Endocytosis and Blood Tests, Exams of Nursing

Download Endocytosis and Blood Tests and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! LABCE EXAM LATEST (2023-2024) GRADED A+ WITH ANSWERS 1. Which one of the following statements about endocytosis is incorrect? Phagocytosis is a form of endocytosis in endocytosis, the cell membrane invaginates and isolates a foreign particle in a vesicle. Endocytosis is a mechanism for viruses to enter cells Endocytosis is the process by which phagosomes expel the macromole- cules inside.: Endocytosis is the process by which phagosomes expel the macro- molecules inside. 2. A hospitalized patient has a decreased serum copper level and increased urine copper level. This is MOST consistent with: Wilson's disease Addison's disease Parathyroid disease Not clinically significant: Wilson's disease 3. An MCV is reported by the instrument as 82 fl. The MCV is flagged with a delta check alert as the previous MCV reported on this patient 12 hours earlier was 97 fl. What is a possible cause for this discrepancy? Transfusion The specimens are not from the same patient Acute hemorrhage The second specimen was hemolyzed: The specimens are not from the same patient 4. Below is a listing of two commonly used terminology systems for genes and antigens. Use this information to answer this question: If a recipient has anti-c, which donor unit should be selected? Wiener Fisher-Race Ro Dce R1 DCe R2 DcE R DCE r dce r' dCe r" dcE ry dCE: r1ry 5. Which of the following is a cause of metabolic alkalosis? late stage of salicylate poisoning uncontrolled diabetes mellitus renal failure excessive vomiting: excessive vomiting 6. What type of specimen is used for testing cyclosporines levels? whole blood serum plasma urine: whole blood 7. Hypochromic: would present with a low MCHC (less than 32g/dL) these cells appear as spherocytes and lack or have a decreased central pallor. 8. The MOST reliable method for determining the appropriate dosage of Rh immune globulin to give to an identified Rh immune globulin candidate after deliver is: Kleihaurer-betke method flow cytometry rosette test panel cells: flow cytometry 9. All of the following specimen collection methods should be used if urine cultures are also required, EXCEPT? routinely voided "clean catch" catheterized suprapubic aspiration: routinely voided 10. Ammonia is BEST characterized as being: a waste product of amino acid and protein metabolism obtained from hydrolysis of urea in the kidney 2 / 13 Leukemoid reaction chronic myelogenous leukemia genetic translocation paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria: Leukemoid reaction 23. Which of the following refers to the most common procedure for donating whole blood for use by the general poplulation? Autologous donation hemapheresis directed donation allogeneic donation: allogeneic donation 24. The accuracy of an immunoassay is its ability to discriminate between re- sults that are true positive and results that are true negative. Two parameters of test accuracy are specificity and sensitivity. Which of these statements apply to an immunoassay with high specificity? Accurately identifies the presence of disease Accurately identifies the absence of disease Has many false-positives Has few false-negatives: Accurately identifies the absence of disease 25. Which statement about bacterial culture for Clostridioides (Clostridium) difficile is TRUE? Routine bacteriological media will provide adequate recovery. The culture is specific for toxigenic strains. Culture on appropriate media provides an effective means of recovering the organism. Culture for C. difficile provides desirable turnaround times.: Culture on appro- priate media provides an effective means of recovering the organism. 26. Which of the following is NOT a way hemoglobinopathies can be caused? Deletion of a globin chain. Substitution of amino acids in a globin chain. Deletion of an amino acid in a globin chain. Addition of an amino acid in a globin chain.: Deletion of a globin chain. 27. What is the deferral period from donating blood for someone who is or has taken Tegison© for severe psoriasis? 5 / 13 Permanent deferral 1 month following last dose 2 weeks No deferral: permanent deferral 28. A Staphylococcus species recovered from a CSF shunt culture was found to produce acid from sucrose and maltose and showed alkaline phosphatase activity. The Staphylococcus was also coagulase negative. The most likely identification is: Staphylococcus epidermidis Staphylococcus aureus Staphylococcus schleiferi Staphylococcus saprophyticus: Staphylococcus epidermidis 29. Which of the following parasites has the longest undulating membrane? Trichomonas vaginalis Trichomonas tenax Trichomonas hominis Dientamoeba fragilis: Trichomonas hominis 30. The laboratory test used to determine the presence of neural tube defects is: L/S ratio Amniotic fluid creatinine Sweat chloride test Alpha-fetoprotein: Alpha-fetoprotein 31. In post-hepatic jaundice, why is urobilinogen decreased? Because there is a decrease in bilirubin being metabolized Because there is an increase in bilirubin being metabolized Because the liver is not conjugating bilirubin Because there is a blockage of conjugated bilirubin being excreted from the liver to intestine: Because there is a blockage of conjugated bilirubin being excreted from the liver to intestine 32. Which of the following conditions is associated with the Epstein-Barr Virus? Measles 6 / 13 Burkitt's lymphoma Mumps Chicken pox: Burkitt's lymphoma 33. 5% sheep blood agar will support the growth of most strains of the following organisms, EXCEPT: Haemophilus spp. Staphylococcus aureus Bacillus anthracis Listeria monocytogenes: Haemophilus spp. 34. Skin and mucous membranes are important components of what part of the immune system? Cell mediated immunity Adaptive immunity Innate immunity Acquired immunity: Innate immunity 35. What characteristic is usually associated with IgM antibodies directed against red cells? React best at 37oC Appear after heated incubation Are identified using the AHG test React best at room temperature: React best at room temperature 36. Which abnormal hemoglobin may be formed in alpha thalassemia? Hb Bart's Hb Lepore Hb E Hb S: Hb Bart's 37. The primary antibody response takes an average of how many days? 1-3 days 3-4 days 5-10 days 14-21 days: 5-10 days 7 / 13 46. Which of the the following bioterrorism agent categories is the easiest to spread, has the ability to cause major harm, panic, and death, and carries the highest level of risk with regard to national security? Category A Category B Category C Category D: Category A 47. Those agents in Category A are highest-priority because they: Can be easily disseminated or transmitted person-to-person Cause high mortality, with potential for major public health impact Might cause public panic and social disruption Require special action for public health preparedness The agents in Category B have the second highest priority because they: Are moderately easy to disseminate Cause moderate morbidity and low mortality Require specific enhancements of Centers for Disease Control and Preven- tion's (CDC) diagnostic capacity and enhanced disease surveillance The agents in Category C carry the third highest priority. This group contains emerging pathogens that could be engineered for mass spread in the future. Category D is not an actual category.: you got this! 48. If a patient is determined to have type B blood, what antibody would be found in his/her serum? Anti-A Anti-B Anti-A and Anti-B Anti-O: Anti-A 49. Total iron-binding capacity measures the serum iron transporting capac- ity of: Hemoglobin Transferrin Ferritin Ceruloplasmin: Transferrin 50. Which blood component is the most commonly used component for the replacement of multiple coagulation factor deficiencies in bleeding patients? 10 / 13 Fresh Frozen Plasma Red Blood Cells Cryoprecipitate Whole Blood: Fresh Frozen Plasma 51. The fibrinolytic system may be activated by which one of the following? Streptokinase Streptolysin Fibrin EDTA: Streptokinase 52. A chemical reaction that is utilized by many different analytical methods involves: Fluorometry Glucose oxidase The reduction of NAD to NADH UV spectrophotometry: The reduction of NAD to NADH 53. All of the following forms of microscopy are commonly used in the clinical laboratory, EXCEPT? Brightfield microscopy Light microscopy Electron microscopy Fluorescence microscopy: Electron microscopy 54. A lipid panel consists of which of the following tests? Potassium, Sodium, Chloride, CO2 AST, ALT, Alkaline Phosphatase,Total Protein, Albumin,Total Bilirubin, Direct Bilirubin Cholesterol, Lipoprotein, HDL, Triglycerides Glucose, BUN, Creatinine, Sodium, Potassium, Chloride, CO2, Calcium, Albu- min, Phosphorus: Cholesterol, Lipoprotein, HDL, Triglycerides 55. Endolimax nana is the correct response. E. nana cysts are small, ranging from 6 - 8 µm, and are characterized by the presence of four nuclei, each with a minute central karyosome surrounded by a clear space. Note that the nuclei are devoid of a ring of outer chromatin, referred to as "ball in socket".: 11 / 13 56. I. butschlii cysts are relatively small, ranging from 6 - 12 µm, have a single eccentrically placed nucleus next to the outer cell wall, with a central karyosome surrounded by a clear space ("ball in socket"). Also distinctive is a large vacuole in the cytoplasm, that stains positive with iodine, from which the genus name is derived.: 57. C. mesneli is a flagellate in which the cysts are lemon-shaped with a thin smooth cell wall, ranging from 6 - 10 µm, with a distinct anterior knob. A single nucleus with a small karyosome is devoid of an outer chromatin ring. A small cyst is seen in the cytoplasm around which is placed a cytostome in the form of a "shepherd's crook".: 58. E. hartmanni ova may a contain up to four nuclei, but which are distinctive for having a central karyosome surrounded by a blotchy chromatin ring ("Entamoeba type" nucleus). A small chromatin bar with rounded edges may also be seen.: 59. Which of the following is the recommended method for preparing a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) sample for a differential count? Cytocentrifugation Concentration of cells by traditional centrifugation Manual smear methods Use of hemocytometer: Cytocentrifugation 60. What are the MAIN functions of the distal convoluted tubules? Balance hydrogen ions and keep the body pH at 6.8 Control aldosterone production and ammonia reabsorption Excrete various antibiotics and uric acid Maintain water-electrolyte and acid-base balances: Maintain water-electrolyte and acid-base balances 61. What is the CORRECT blood-to-anticoagulant ratio in blue top (sodium citrate) tubes used for coagulation tests? 4:1 5:1 9:1 10:1: 9:1 62. For BEST results, if not tested immediately, a semen sample should remain at which of the following temperatures following collection? 12 / 13