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MARYLAND STATE BOARD COSMETOLOGY EXAM Questions with100% Correct Answers Latest Update 202, Exams of Nursing

MARYLAND STATE BOARD COSMETOLOGY EXAM Questions with100% Correct Answers Latest Update 2024 GRAD

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2023/2024

Available from 08/13/2024

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Download MARYLAND STATE BOARD COSMETOLOGY EXAM Questions with100% Correct Answers Latest Update 202 and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! 1 / 16 MARYLAND STATE BOARD COSMETOLOGY EXAM Questions with100% Correct Answers Latest Update 2024 GRADE A+ 1. Where must a cosmetologist's license be places ANS In full view of the public 2. How many apprentices can one senior cosmetologists have at a time ANS 1 3. How many hours a week must an apprentice train at minimum ANS 20 4. To pass the examinations, you must score % on both the theory and the practical: 75% 5. How much does it cost to renew your cosmetologist's license ANS $25 6. What is the fine for operating without a valid license ANS $300 2 / 16 7. What is the fine for poor lighting, heating, or ventilation ANS $50 8. What is the fine for using a neck duster or powder puff on more than one client ANS $100 9. What is the penalty for operating or performing services on a client with an infectious or contagious disease ANS Formal hearing 10. Failure to wash implements before disinfection results in what for the beauty salon ANS $150 fine 11. Presence of rodents or insects in the salon results in a fine of:: $50 12. What is the salon's fine if an employee doesn't wash their hands before each client ANS $50 each time 13. If the school or salon is used for living or sleeping, the fine would be: $100 14. What is the fine for an unsanitary restroom in a salon or school ANS $50 5 / 16 23. Disinfection: A chemical process that uses specific products to destroy harm- ful organisms on environmental surfaces 24. OSHA: Occupational Safety and Health Administration; regulates and enforces safety and health standards in the workplace 25. Msds: Material Data Safety Sheet; required by law to be present on chemical products; listed on these sheets are Identification, hazard identification, composi- tion/ingredients, first aid, fire-fighting measures, accidental release measures, han- dling and storage, exposure controls/personal protection, physical and chemical properties, stability and reactivity, toxicology information, ecological information, disposal consideration, transport information, regulatory information, and revision date 26. EPA: Environmental Protection Agency; registers all types of disinfectants in the United States 27. Disinfectant: chemical products that destroy most bacteria, fungi, and viruses on surfaces 28. Hospital disinfectant: Designated by the EPA as being effective enough to be used in hospitals 29. Nonporous: Made of material that has no pores or openings and cannot absorb liquid 30. Disease: Abnormal condition of all or parts of the body which makes the body incapable of functioning normally 31. Tuberculocidal disinfectant: Proven to kill the bacteria that causes tubercu- losis 6 / 16 s 32. Infection: The invasion of body tissues by disease-causing pathogens 33. Bacteria: One-celled microorganisms that have plant and animal characteris- tics 34. Non pathogenic: Harmless microorganisms that may perform useful func- tions; most bacteria are non pathogenic 35. Pathogenic: Harmful microorganisms that can causes disease or infection 36. Cocci: Round-shaped bacteria that appear alone or in group 7 / 16 they e strings of es like bacteria eria ed into sub 37. Staphylococci: Pus-forming bacteria that grow in clusters like grapes; cause abscesses, pustules, boils, and staph infection 38. Streptococci: Pus-forming bacteria arranged in curved lines lik beads; they cause strep throat and blood poisoning 39. Diplococci: Spherical bacteria that grow in pairs and cause diseas pneumonia 40. Bacilli: Short, rod-shaped bacteria; they are the most common type of and produce diseases like tetanus, typhoid fever, tuberculosis and diphth 41. Spirilla: Spiral or corkscrew-shaped bacteria that are subdivid groups like syphilis or Lyme's disease 10 / 16 54. Parasitic disease: Disease caused by parasites, such as lice or mites 55. Systemic disease: Disease that affects the body as a whole, often due to under- or over-functioning of internal glands or organs 56. Bloodborne pathogens: Disease-causing microorganisms that are carried through blood or bodily fluids 57. Hepatitis: A blood borne virus that can damage the liver 58. HIV: Human Immunodeficiency Virus; causes Acquired Immune Deficiency (AIDS) 11 / 16 a bacterial of dermato- ed papules at er organism 59. Fungi: Single-cell organisms that grow in irregular masses that include molds, mildews, and yeasts 60. Folliculitis barbae: An inflammation of hair follicles caused by infection 61. Tinea barbae: A superficial fungal infection caused by a variety phytes that commonly affect the skin 62. Tinea capitis: A fungal infection of the scalp characterized by r the opening of hair follicles 63. Tinea pedis: Athlete's foot 64. Parasite: Organisms that grow, feed, and shelter on or in anoth 12 / 16 hich burrows while contributing nothing to the survival of that organism 65. Pediculosis Capitis: Head lice 66. Scabies: A contagious skin disease caused by the itch mite, w under the skin 15 / 16 keratin and e hair follicles he epidermis; m 78. Collagen: Fibrous protein that gives the skin its form and strength; collagen levels decrease as we age 79. Comedo: Also known as a blackhead; a hair follicle blocked with sebum 80. Dermal papillae: Small cone-shaped elevation at the base of th that begin in the hair bulb 81. Dermis: The "true skin" under the epidermis 82. Layers of the dermis: Stratum corneum, lucidum, granulosum, spinosum, germinativum 83. Stratum corneum: Also known as the horny layer; outer layer of t consists of scale-like cells 84. Stratum lucidum: The clear layer under the stratum corneu 16 / 16 yer of the of shedding 85. Stratum granulosum: Also known as the granular layer; the la epidermis that is filled with keratin and melanin 86. Stratum spinosum: Also known as the spiny layer; the process skin cells begins here 17 / 16 epest layer of w epidermal mifluid, and edical referral g 88. Cyst: Closed, abnormally developed sac that contains pus, se morbid matter above or below the skin; CAN be drained; requires a m 89. Macule: Flat, colored spot on the skin 90. Tumor: Abnormal cell mass varying in size, shape, and color 91. Excoriation: self-inflicted abrasions on the skin due to scratchin 92. Fissure: A linear crack in the skin that penetrates the dermis 87. Stratum germinativum: Also known as the basal layer; the de the epidermis; this is the live layer of the epidermis that produces ne cells 20 / 16 by burns, scars, inflammation, of congenital diseases 100. Nevus: The technical term for a birthmark 21 / 16 h of hardened bnormal spot lution late covers the f the finger or 102. Verruca: Technical term for wart 103. ABCDE cancer checklist: What to check for if you notice an a on a client's skin; Asymmetry, border irregularity, color, diameter, evo 104. What percentage of aging is caused by sun exposure ANS 80% - 85% 105. Cuticle: Dead, colorless tissue attached to the natural nail p 106. Eponychium: Living skin at the base of the natural nail plate that matrix area 107. Free edge: The part of the nail plate that extends over the tip o toe 101. Keratoma: Technical term for callus; acquired, superficial patc skin 22 / 16 hat lies be- h the skin; it is 108. Hyponychium: Slightly thickened layer of skin under the nail t tween the fingertip and the free edge of the natural nail 109. Lunula: Visible part of the matrix that extends from underneat a whitish, half-moon shape at the base of the nail 25 / 16 air dryers?- 120. What is the first step in properly cleaning a foot bath ANS Drain the water from the foot bath and remove any visible debris 121. What do you do when a wax client has public lice ANS Have them seek medical attention 122. Understanding the effect of what will help create any desired shaping?- : Line 123. Goggles do NOT have to be worn when ANS Sanitizing hands 124. What is not a reason to perform a test strand ANS To determine the best type of shampoo to use for the hair 125. What should ALWAYS be done during a proper cross-checking ANS - Cross-check opposite of cut partings 126. What step immediately follows cleansing the skin for waxing ANS Drying 127. Which haircut technique involves the tops of the scissors being pointed toward the hair ends rather than into them ANS Notching 128. What step would be performed prior to applying a single-process color on virgin hair ANS Parting dry hair 129. When using relaxers incorrectly, what is one thing that could happen?- : The hair melts 130. OSHA;s standards for products do NOT address: Usage 131. What company certifies the safety of pedicure chairs and h : Underwriters Laboratories 26 / 16 132. Which best describes the stimulation of pressure points on the feet ANS - Reflexology 133. In a relaxer, what active ingredient has a 9.6 - 10.0 pH ANS Ammonium thioglycolate 134. What is the BEST recommendation for applying acrylic fingernail prod- ucts ANS Work at a well ventilated work table 135. What term BEST describes a procedure or condition that may produce undesirable side effects during a scalp massage due to any medical issues a client may have: Contraindicated 27 / 16 136. What is not considered when using solid form techniques ANS Length 137. What is not needed in the application of a nail wrap ANS A monomer 138. Filler are not used for: Producing grey coverage 139. For what purpose would the use of hospital grade disinfectants be appropriate ANS To clean blood and bodily fluids off surfaces 140. What is an example of a parasite ANS Scabies 141. What is used to make artificial eyelashes adhere ANS Lash adhesive 142. The stylist's objective is to create the illusion of what face shape ANS Oval 143. In what area would vellus hair be found ANS Cheeks 144. What will equalize porosity ANS Fillers 145. What is not a required step before and each client ANS Wear gloves at all times 146. What is not an example of an antimicrobial pesticide ANS Algaecide 147. What time of hair removal uses caustic alkali preparation ANS Depilatories 148. What result will a human hair wig have after burning it ANS Distinctive odor 149. What is the general outline of a hairstyle ANS Form 150. Reflective listening: Listening to the client and then repeating, in your own words, what you think the client is telling you. 30 / 16 ANS A virucide, fungicide, bactericide, or disinfectant 171. What does the EPA product registration tell you about the product ANS It is against federal law to use the product contrary to label 172. What is the best thing to do first in the event of a minor burn ANS Immerse in cold water 173. What should be used to treat an allergy on the skin ANS Lotions 174. What is the highest level of decontamination used for salon tools and implements ANS Sterilization 175. What artificial nail products are made from acrylonitrile butadiene styrene ANS Nail tips 176. Density: The number of individual hair strands in one square inch of the scalp 31 / 16 177. What tool is recommended for use by a new cutter to remove excess bulk ANS Thinning shears 178. What determines the size of the curl in a permanent waving ANS Perm rod 179. What is NOT a vegetable parasite ANS Staph 180. What is not an essential nutrient to maintain healthy skin ANS Vegetables 181. Where should disinfected tools and implements be stored in a salon?- : Covered container 182. When using a chemical relaxer, what should be avoided ANS Bleaches or high-lift color products 183. What chemical is released as soon as hydrogen peroxide is mixed into hair lightener formula ANS Hydrogen 184. What is used to remove bonded wefts from the hair ANS Oil 185. If hair extensions are required because of a thinning hairline, how many strands of hair is best to add ANS 5 to 10 186. What is the appropriate treatment for eye irritation ANS Flush the eye with clean water 187. What is an example of a hair stream growth pattern: Hair flowing in the same direction 188. What is the term for sewn elastic strips in a circular pattern to the head shape ANS Wefts 32 / 16 189. Where would you start a relaxer retouch application ANS Area most resistant 190. What can be done to speed up the removal of acrylic enhancements ANS - Place acetone bowl inside a bowl of hot water 191. What is NOT determined by a strand test in a color service ANS How much color to use for a service 192. When using a chemical relaxer, it changes the shape of the hair by breaking down what ANS Disulfide bonds 193. What is NOT an important factor to consider in hair analysis ANS Growth pattern 194. What should be completed before every waxing service to ensure that the client has a thorough understanding of the procedure ANS Release form 195. What sterilizer is approved for salon use ANS Autoclave