Docsity
Docsity

Prepare for your exams
Prepare for your exams

Study with the several resources on Docsity


Earn points to download
Earn points to download

Earn points by helping other students or get them with a premium plan


Guidelines and tips
Guidelines and tips

Mastering A&P Final Exam Questions, Exams of Animal Anatomy and Physiology

A comprehensive set of questions and answers related to the final exam for an anatomy and physiology (a&p) course. The questions cover a wide range of topics within the field of human anatomy and physiology, including the sensory system, nervous system, endocrine system, cardiovascular system, and immune system. Detailed explanations and answers to these exam-style questions, making it a valuable resource for students preparing for their final a&p exam. The level of detail and breadth of topics covered suggest this document could be useful as study notes, lecture notes, or a summary for an advanced undergraduate or graduate-level a&p course.

Typology: Exams

2023/2024

Available from 09/28/2024

Studyguru01
Studyguru01 🇺🇸

4

(3)

1.7K documents

1 / 17

Toggle sidebar

Related documents


Partial preview of the text

Download Mastering A&P Final Exam Questions and more Exams Animal Anatomy and Physiology in PDF only on Docsity! 1 / 17 Mastering A&P final exam questions final exam with answers /latest/24/25 1.Potentially damaging stimuli that result in pain are selectively detected by: nociceptors 2.What type of sensory receptors are muscle spindles and Golgi tendon organs: mechanoreceptor 3.Which of the following complements the flexion (withdrawal) reflex: - crossed-extension reflex 4.which division detects stimuli of the general senses and special senses: - somatic sensory division 5.(true or false) Reflexes are programmed, automatic, and rapid responses to stimuli.: true 6.vagus nerve is represented by roman numeral: X 7.what connects the upper motor neurons to lower motor neurons: interneu- rons 8.what type of neuron contacts a muscle fiber and initiates a muscle contrac- tion: lower motor neuron 9.a reflex with a single synapse between the sensory and motor neurons within the spinal cord is known as a: monosynaptic reflex 10.what reflex causes muscle relaxation: golgi tendon reflex 11.(true or false) reflexes are programmed, automatic rapid responses to stimuli: true 12.what nerves carry information about the special senses to the CNS: cranial nerves only 13.to what part of the brain are both general and most special senses carried- : thalamus 14.the activation of olfactory receptors requires that the odorant become immersed in: mucus 15.which cell has receptors specialized to detect different tastes: gustatory cell 16.where is the primary gustatory cortex located: parietal lobe 17.(true or false) the 5 major sensations are sweet, salty, bitter, sour and umami: true 18.which of the following parts of the eye refract light to focus it on the retina: cornea and lens 19.what type of photoreceptor cell perceives color: cone 2 / 17 20.what separates the outer ear from the middle ear: tympanic membrane 21.what part of the inner ear is involved in hearing: cochlea 22.(true or false) the function of the pharyngotympanic tube is to equalize air pressure on both sides of the tympanic membrane: true 23.where are sound vibrations amplified: auditory ossicles 24.the sense of equilibrium does not depend on input from: the cochlea 25.the receptor cells from static equilibrium are located in the: maculae of the utricle and saccule of the vestibule 26.what detects dynamic equilibrium: crista ampullaris 27.which cranial nerve is responsible for transmitting information about sounds and head position and movement to the brain: vestibulocochlear nerve (CN VIII) 28.where are sensations integrated with memories of past experiences?: lim- bic system 29.olfaction is the sense of: smell 30.the sclera is continuous with a transparent layer over the anterior eye knows the: cornea 31.what is the function of the lens: the lens focuses light on the retina 32.ability of the lens to change its share from flattened to round is known as: accommodation 33.the loudness of sound is determined by the vibrations of the: basilar mem- brane 34.where does the conscious awareness of sound begin, along with the analysis of its pitch, location, and loudness: temporal lobe 35.as sound waves travel into ear, they pass from the auditory canal to the: tympanic membrane, auditory ossicles, oval window, periplymh, scala vestibuli of the cochlea 36.the reduction in the number of chromosomes to half the normal count occurs during: meiosis 37.what shuffles the alleles and causes homologous chromosomes to no longer be identical during meiosis: crossing over 38.which of the following is the main hormone that regulates spermatogene- sis: testosterone 39.assuming a 28-day ovarian cycle, on what day should ovulation occur: day 14 40.which portion of the uterus is shed during menstruation: stratum function- alism of endometrium 41.meiosis is a special type of cell division that produces: gametes 42.what is the main female gonad: ovary 5 / 17 71.What vitamin is necessary for certain clotting factors to operate during coagulation?: vitamin K 72.Which of the following must occur first during hemostasis?: formation of thrombin 73.universal blood donor: O- 74.universal blood recipient: AB+ 75.During a transfusion, incompatible antigens can be introduced. Antibodies can bind to foreign antigens, causing them to clump together, or: agglutinate 76.What forms the majority of blood?: plasma 77.What plasma protein is most important for the blood's colloid osmotic pressure?: albumin 78.What is the oxygen-binding protein found in erythrocytes?: hemoglobin 79.The process of red blood cell production is known as: erythropoiesis 80.What is the most common type of leukocyte in a healthy adult?: neutrophil 81.Which type of leukocyte may produce antibodies?: lymphocyte 82. Carbohydrate groups on the surfaces of erythrocytes determine blood type and are known as: antigens 83.Mucosa-associated lymphatic tissues (MALT) include the:: tonsils 84.Which of the following is NOT a surface barrier serving as the first line of defense?: antibody 85.Which lymphoid organ is required for the selection of a functional popula- tion of T lymphocytes (T cells) for the immune system?: thymus 86.What cells display portions of the pathogens (antigens) they ingest on their plasma membranes?: antigen-presenting cells 87.Which of the following is NOT a cytokine involved in innate immunity?: op- sonins 88.Where do T cells become immunocompetent?: thymus 89.What protein, released by cytotoxic T (TC) cells, perforates a target cell's plasma membrane so that enzymes can enter and fragment the target cell's DNA?: perforins 90.What type of cell is activated in lymphatic tissue by macrophages present- ing antigens during a viral infection?: helper T (TH) cell 91.Cancer cells can suppress T cell activity by releasing:: cytokines 92.(true or false) Immunodeficiency disorders can result from a failure of one component of the immune system: true 93.What mucosa-associated lymphatic tissue (MALT) traps pathogens enter- ing the nasal and oral cavities?: tonsils 6 / 17 94.Where are pathogens filtered from lymph?: lymph nodes 7 / 17 95.Surface barriers, such as cutaneous and mucous membranes, serve the immune system as the:: first line of defense. 96.What are the primary cells of adaptive immunity?: lymphocytes 97.Which of the following are true of class I major histocompatibility complex (MHC) molecules?: Class I MHC molecules present endogenous antigens. 98.Activated B cells differentiate into:: plasma cells and memory B cells 99.Which of the following is NOT a function of antibodies?: phagocytosis 100. Vaccinations involve exposure to an antigen to elicit: a primary immune response 101. B cells develop and mature in the: bone marrow 102. What is the first process to occur in the digestive system?: ingestion 103. Splanchnic circulation involves the blood supply that feeds and drains:- : abdominal digestive organs. 104. (true or false) The digestive system is regulated by the sympathetic, parasympathetic, and enteric nervous systems.: true 105. Carbohydrate digestion begins in the:: mouth 106. What is released by the enteroendocrine cells of the gastric glands?: gas- trin 107. Which hormone increases acid secretion by the stomach?: gastrin 108. (true or false)The stomach differs anatomically from other organs of the alimentary canal because it has an additional oblique layer of muscularis externa for churning.: true 109. Which segment of the small intestine receives chyme from the stomach?- : duodenum 110. At the splenic flexure, the colon becomes the: descending colon 111. The final process to occur in the alimentary canal is:: defecation 112. What is responsible for the emulsification of lipids in the duodenum?: bile 113. What best exemplifies enzymatic hydrolysis?: nutrient breakdown 114. In which organ is chyme mixed with pancreatic juice and bile?: duodenum 115. Which organ functions to absorb significant quantities of water, elec- trolytes, and vitamins?: large intestine 116. What region of the stomach does food first enters after its passage through the relaxed gastroesophageal sphincter?: cardia 10 / 17 is 760 mm Hg, intrapulmonary pressure is 758 mm Hg, and intrapleural pressure is 754 mm Hg.: inhalation 139. Air travels from the respiratory bronchioles to the .: alveolar ducts 140. The majority of the nasal cavity is lined with .: pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium 11 / 17 141. What determines the direction of respiratory gas movement?: partial pres- sure gradient 142. What epithelium forms the alveolus: simple squamous epithelium 143. What flap of elastic cartilage keeps food and liquids from entering the larynx during swallowing?: epiglottis 144. The partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the blood of pulmonary capil- laries is approximately .: 45 mmHg 145. Which process of respiration relies on partial pressure gradients?: pul- monary gas exchange and tissue gas exchange 146. How is most oxygen transported in the blood?: bound to hemoglobin as oxyhemoglobin 147. The majority of carbon dioxide is transported .: as the bicar- bonate ion 148. Respiratory acidosis results from .: hypoventilation 149. Air moves out of the lungs when the pressure inside the lungs is .: greater than atmospheric pressure 150. What is part of the respiratory zone?: alveoli 151. Chemical messengers released by endocrine glands to regulate some functions of other cells are known as .: hormones 152. What hormone(s) determines the basal metabolic rate at rest when fast- ing?: thyroid hormones 153. Which blood vessels handle the highest blood pressure?: systemic arter- ies 154. Which of the following connects vessels through vascular anasto- moses?: collaterals 155. What two values are needed to calculate mean arterial pressure (MAP)?- : diastolic pressure and systolic pressure 156. Which of the following is NOT an artery that branches off the aortic arch?: right subclavian artery 157. Which pressure is created by the presence of large proteins in the blood, such as albumin?: colloid osmotic pressure 158. The sclera is continuous with a transparent layer over the anterior eye known as the .: cornea 159. What hormone is the primary antagonist of glucagon?: insulin 160. What type of photoreceptor cell perceives color?: cones 12 / 17 161. The effects of norepinephrine and epinephrine have nearly the same ef- fects as the neurotransmitters of the .: sympathetic nervous system 162. (true or false) Rods are concentrated in the fovea centralis while cones are absent from this region of the retina.: false 15 / 17 187. Which of the following vessels carries oxygenated blood?: pulmonary vein 188. Erythropoiet in is produced by the kidneys to .: regulate red blood cell production by the bone marrow 189. What is the function of the valves in the heart?: prevent backflow of blood through the heart 190. What will NOT stimulate the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS)?: an increase in systemic blood pressure 191. Dilute urine is more likely to be produced when .: the collecting duct is impermeable to water 192. What effect does high blood pressure have on the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) in the absence of regulatory mechanisms?: GFR will increase. 193. What should NOT be found in filtrate?: albumin 194. The glomerular filtration rate is defined as .: the amount of filtrate formed by both kidneys in one minute 195. Which hormone decreases cardiac output by decreasing blood volume and preload?: atrial natriuretic peptide 196. What largely determines preload?: end-diastolic volume (EDV) 197. The portion of the renal tubule through which filtrate initially flows is known as the .: proximal tubule 198. High pressured blood in the ventricles:: forces the semilunar valves open. 199. The right and left atria depolarize and contract following the arrival of the action potential from the:: SA node 200. (true or false) The left side of the heart is often called the systemic pump due to blood flow to the body.: true 201. The right side of the heart receives:: deoxygenated blood from the systemic circuit. 202. How much urine is lost through obligatory water loss each day?: 500 ml 203. What effect does an increase in antidiuretic hormone (ADH) have on the volume of extracellular fluid (ECF)?: ECF increases when antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is present. 204. What is a major function of potassium ions in the body?: maintaining resting potential of neurons and muscle cells 16 / 17 205. Which hormone has NO role in potassium ion regulation?: parathyroid hormone (PTH) 206. Hyperventilation is the compensation for an acid-base imbalance known as:: metabolic acidosis. 207. In what direction will water move when hypotonic fluids are present in the plasma?: Water is pulled from the interstitial fluid and plasma into the cell. 17 / 17 208. Which of the following accounts for the majority of our total body water?- : cytosol