Mastering A&P Final Exam Questions, Exams of Animal Anatomy and Physiology

Download Mastering A&P Final Exam Questions and more Exams Animal Anatomy and Physiology in PDF only on Docsity! 1 / 17 Mastering A&P final exam questions final exam with answers /latest/24/25 1.Potentially damaging stimuli that result in pain are selectively detected by: nociceptors 2.What type of sensory receptors are muscle spindles and Golgi tendon organs: mechanoreceptor 3.Which of the following complements the flexion (withdrawal) reflex: - crossed-extension reflex 4.which division detects stimuli of the general senses and special senses: - somatic sensory division 5.(true or false) Reflexes are programmed, automatic, and rapid responses to stimuli.: true 6.vagus nerve is represented by roman numeral: X 7.what connects the upper motor neurons to lower motor neurons: interneu- rons 8.what type of neuron contacts a muscle fiber and initiates a muscle contrac- tion: lower motor neuron 9.a reflex with a single synapse between the sensory and motor neurons within the spinal cord is known as a: monosynaptic reflex 10.what reflex causes muscle relaxation: golgi tendon reflex 11.(true or false) reflexes are programmed, automatic rapid responses to stimuli: true 12.what nerves carry information about the special senses to the CNS: cranial nerves only 13.to what part of the brain are both general and most special senses carried- : thalamus 14.the activation of olfactory receptors requires that the odorant become immersed in: mucus 15.which cell has receptors specialized to detect different tastes: gustatory cell 16.where is the primary gustatory cortex located: parietal lobe 17.(true or false) the 5 major sensations are sweet, salty, bitter, sour and umami: true 18.which of the following parts of the eye refract light to focus it on the retina: cornea and lens 19.what type of photoreceptor cell perceives color: cone 2 / 17 20.what separates the outer ear from the middle ear: tympanic membrane 21.what part of the inner ear is involved in hearing: cochlea 22.(true or false) the function of the pharyngotympanic tube is to equalize air pressure on both sides of the tympanic membrane: true 23.where are sound vibrations amplified: auditory ossicles 24.the sense of equilibrium does not depend on input from: the cochlea 25.the receptor cells from static equilibrium are located in the: maculae of the utricle and saccule of the vestibule 26.what detects dynamic equilibrium: crista ampullaris 27.which cranial nerve is responsible for transmitting information about sounds and head position and movement to the brain: vestibulocochlear nerve (CN VIII) 28.where are sensations integrated with memories of past experiences?: lim- bic system 29.olfaction is the sense of: smell 30.the sclera is continuous with a transparent layer over the anterior eye knows the: cornea 31.what is the function of the lens: the lens focuses light on the retina 32.ability of the lens to change its share from flattened to round is known as: accommodation 33.the loudness of sound is determined by the vibrations of the: basilar mem- brane 34.where does the conscious awareness of sound begin, along with the analysis of its pitch, location, and loudness: temporal lobe 35.as sound waves travel into ear, they pass from the auditory canal to the: tympanic membrane, auditory ossicles, oval window, periplymh, scala vestibuli of the cochlea 36.the reduction in the number of chromosomes to half the normal count occurs during: meiosis 37.what shuffles the alleles and causes homologous chromosomes to no longer be identical during meiosis: crossing over 38.which of the following is the main hormone that regulates spermatogene- sis: testosterone 39.assuming a 28-day ovarian cycle, on what day should ovulation occur: day 14 40.which portion of the uterus is shed during menstruation: stratum function- alism of endometrium 41.meiosis is a special type of cell division that produces: gametes 42.what is the main female gonad: ovary 5 / 17 71.What vitamin is necessary for certain clotting factors to operate during coagulation?: vitamin K 72.Which of the following must occur first during hemostasis?: formation of thrombin 73.universal blood donor: O- 74.universal blood recipient: AB+ 75.During a transfusion, incompatible antigens can be introduced. Antibodies can bind to foreign antigens, causing them to clump together, or: agglutinate 76.What forms the majority of blood?: plasma 77.What plasma protein is most important for the blood's colloid osmotic pressure?: albumin 78.What is the oxygen-binding protein found in erythrocytes?: hemoglobin 79.The process of red blood cell production is known as: erythropoiesis 80.What is the most common type of leukocyte in a healthy adult?: neutrophil 81.Which type of leukocyte may produce antibodies?: lymphocyte 82. Carbohydrate groups on the surfaces of erythrocytes determine blood type and are known as: antigens 83.Mucosa-associated lymphatic tissues (MALT) include the:: tonsils 84.Which of the following is NOT a surface barrier serving as the first line of defense?: antibody 85.Which lymphoid organ is required for the selection of a functional popula- tion of T lymphocytes (T cells) for the immune system?: thymus 86.What cells display portions of the pathogens (antigens) they ingest on their plasma membranes?: antigen-presenting cells 87.Which of the following is NOT a cytokine involved in innate immunity?: op- sonins 88.Where do T cells become immunocompetent?: thymus 89.What protein, released by cytotoxic T (TC) cells, perforates a target cell's plasma membrane so that enzymes can enter and fragment the target cell's DNA?: perforins 90.What type of cell is activated in lymphatic tissue by macrophages present- ing antigens during a viral infection?: helper T (TH) cell 91.Cancer cells can suppress T cell activity by releasing:: cytokines 92.(true or false) Immunodeficiency disorders can result from a failure of one component of the immune system: true 93.What mucosa-associated lymphatic tissue (MALT) traps pathogens enter- ing the nasal and oral cavities?: tonsils 6 / 17 94.Where are pathogens filtered from lymph?: lymph nodes 7 / 17 95.Surface barriers, such as cutaneous and mucous membranes, serve the immune system as the:: first line of defense. 96.What are the primary cells of adaptive immunity?: lymphocytes 97.Which of the following are true of class I major histocompatibility complex (MHC) molecules?: Class I MHC molecules present endogenous antigens. 98.Activated B cells differentiate into:: plasma cells and memory B cells 99.Which of the following is NOT a function of antibodies?: phagocytosis 100. Vaccinations involve exposure to an antigen to elicit: a primary immune response 101. B cells develop and mature in the: bone marrow 102. What is the first process to occur in the digestive system?: ingestion 103. Splanchnic circulation involves the blood supply that feeds and drains:- : abdominal digestive organs. 104. (true or false) The digestive system is regulated by the sympathetic, parasympathetic, and enteric nervous systems.: true 105. Carbohydrate digestion begins in the:: mouth 106. What is released by the enteroendocrine cells of the gastric glands?: gas- trin 107. Which hormone increases acid secretion by the stomach?: gastrin 108. (true or false)The stomach differs anatomically from other organs of the alimentary canal because it has an additional oblique layer of muscularis externa for churning.: true 109. Which segment of the small intestine receives chyme from the stomach?- : duodenum 110. At the splenic flexure, the colon becomes the: descending colon 111. The final process to occur in the alimentary canal is:: defecation 112. What is responsible for the emulsification of lipids in the duodenum?: bile 113. What best exemplifies enzymatic hydrolysis?: nutrient breakdown 114. In which organ is chyme mixed with pancreatic juice and bile?: duodenum 115. Which organ functions to absorb significant quantities of water, elec- trolytes, and vitamins?: large intestine 116. What region of the stomach does food first enters after its passage through the relaxed gastroesophageal sphincter?: cardia 10 / 17 is 760 mm Hg, intrapulmonary pressure is 758 mm Hg, and intrapleural pressure is 754 mm Hg.: inhalation 139. Air travels from the respiratory bronchioles to the .: alveolar ducts 140. The majority of the nasal cavity is lined with .: pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium 11 / 17 141. What determines the direction of respiratory gas movement?: partial pres- sure gradient 142. What epithelium forms the alveolus: simple squamous epithelium 143. What flap of elastic cartilage keeps food and liquids from entering the larynx during swallowing?: epiglottis 144. The partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the blood of pulmonary capil- laries is approximately .: 45 mmHg 145. Which process of respiration relies on partial pressure gradients?: pul- monary gas exchange and tissue gas exchange 146. How is most oxygen transported in the blood?: bound to hemoglobin as oxyhemoglobin 147. The majority of carbon dioxide is transported .: as the bicar- bonate ion 148. Respiratory acidosis results from .: hypoventilation 149. Air moves out of the lungs when the pressure inside the lungs is .: greater than atmospheric pressure 150. What is part of the respiratory zone?: alveoli 151. Chemical messengers released by endocrine glands to regulate some functions of other cells are known as .: hormones 152. What hormone(s) determines the basal metabolic rate at rest when fast- ing?: thyroid hormones 153. Which blood vessels handle the highest blood pressure?: systemic arter- ies 154. Which of the following connects vessels through vascular anasto- moses?: collaterals 155. What two values are needed to calculate mean arterial pressure (MAP)?- : diastolic pressure and systolic pressure 156. Which of the following is NOT an artery that branches off the aortic arch?: right subclavian artery 157. Which pressure is created by the presence of large proteins in the blood, such as albumin?: colloid osmotic pressure 158. The sclera is continuous with a transparent layer over the anterior eye known as the .: cornea 159. What hormone is the primary antagonist of glucagon?: insulin 160. What type of photoreceptor cell perceives color?: cones 12 / 17 161. The effects of norepinephrine and epinephrine have nearly the same ef- fects as the neurotransmitters of the .: sympathetic nervous system 162. (true or false) Rods are concentrated in the fovea centralis while cones are absent from this region of the retina.: false 15 / 17 187. Which of the following vessels carries oxygenated blood?: pulmonary vein 188. Erythropoiet in is produced by the kidneys to .: regulate red blood cell production by the bone marrow 189. What is the function of the valves in the heart?: prevent backflow of blood through the heart 190. What will NOT stimulate the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS)?: an increase in systemic blood pressure 191. Dilute urine is more likely to be produced when .: the collecting duct is impermeable to water 192. What effect does high blood pressure have on the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) in the absence of regulatory mechanisms?: GFR will increase. 193. What should NOT be found in filtrate?: albumin 194. The glomerular filtration rate is defined as .: the amount of filtrate formed by both kidneys in one minute 195. Which hormone decreases cardiac output by decreasing blood volume and preload?: atrial natriuretic peptide 196. What largely determines preload?: end-diastolic volume (EDV) 197. The portion of the renal tubule through which filtrate initially flows is known as the .: proximal tubule 198. High pressured blood in the ventricles:: forces the semilunar valves open. 199. The right and left atria depolarize and contract following the arrival of the action potential from the:: SA node 200. (true or false) The left side of the heart is often called the systemic pump due to blood flow to the body.: true 201. The right side of the heart receives:: deoxygenated blood from the systemic circuit. 202. How much urine is lost through obligatory water loss each day?: 500 ml 203. What effect does an increase in antidiuretic hormone (ADH) have on the volume of extracellular fluid (ECF)?: ECF increases when antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is present. 204. What is a major function of potassium ions in the body?: maintaining resting potential of neurons and muscle cells 16 / 17 205. Which hormone has NO role in potassium ion regulation?: parathyroid hormone (PTH) 206. Hyperventilation is the compensation for an acid-base imbalance known as:: metabolic acidosis. 207. In what direction will water move when hypotonic fluids are present in the plasma?: Water is pulled from the interstitial fluid and plasma into the cell. 17 / 17 208. Which of the following accounts for the majority of our total body water?- : cytosol