MDC3 EXAM QUESTIONS WITH ANSWERS TESTED AND VERIFIED SOLUTIONS WITH 2023 UPDATES, Exams of Nursing

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MDC3 EXAM QUESTIONS WITH ANSWERS TESTED

AND VERIFIED SOLUTIONS WITH 2023 UPDATES

1. Which of the following symptoms do you expect to see in a patient diagnosed with acute pyelonephritis? a. Jaundice and flank pain b. Costovertebral angle tenderness and chills. c. Burning sensation on urination d. Polyuria and nocturia
2. You have a patient that might have a urinary tract infection (UTI). Which statement by the patient suggests that a UTI is likely? a. “I pee a lot” b. “It burns when I pee” c. “I go hours without the urge to pee” d. “My pee smells sweet”
3. Which instructions do you include in the teaching care plan for a patient with cystitis receiving phenazopyridine (Pyridium)? a. If the urine turns orange-red, call the doctor b. Take phenazopyridine just before urination to relieve pain. c. Once painful urination is relieved, discontinue prescribed antibiotics d. After painful urination is relieved stop taking phenazopyridine.
4. Which patient is at greatest risk for developing a urinary tract infection (UTI)? a. A 35 y.o. woman with a fractured wrist b. A 20 y.o. woman with asthma c. A 50 y.o. postmenopausal woman d. A 28 y.o. with angina
5. You have a patient that is receiving peritoneal dialysis. What should you do when you notice the return fluid is slowly draining? a. Check for kinks in the outflow tubing. b. Raise the drainage bag above the level of the abdomen. c. Place the patient in a reverse Trendelenburg position. d. Ask the patient to cough.
6. A 30 y.o. female patient is undergoing hemodialysis with an internal arteriovenous fistula in place. What do you do to prevent complications associated with this device? a. Insert I.V. lines above the fistula. b. Avoid taking blood pressure in the arm with the fistula.

c. Palpate pulses above the fistula. d. Report a bruit or thrill over the fistula to the doctor.

7. Your patient is complaining of muscle cramps while undergoing hemodialysis. Which intervention is effective in relieving muscle cramps? a. Increase the rate of dialysis. b. Infuse normal saline solution c. Administer a 5% dextrose solution. d. Encourage active ROM exercises.
8. Your patient with chronic renal failure reports pruritus. Which instruction should you include in this patient’s teaching plan? a. Rub the skin vigorously with a towel. b. Take frequent baths. c. Apply alcohol-based emollients to the skin d. Keep fingernails short and clean
9. Which intervention do you plan to include with a patient who has renal calculi? a. Maintain bed rest b. Increase dietary purines c. Restrict fluids d. Strain all urine
10. An 18 y.o. student is admitted with dark urine, fever, and flank pain and is diagnosed with acute glomerulonephritis. Which would most likely be in this student’s health history? a. Renal calculi b. Renal trauma c. Recent sore throat d. Family history of acute glomerulonephritis
11. Which drug is indicated for pain related to acute renal calculi? a. Narcotic analgesics b. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDS) c. Muscle relaxants d. Salicylates
12. Which of the following causes the majority of UTIs in hospitalized patients? a. Lack of fluid intake b. Inadequate perineal care

c. Invasive procedures d. Immunosuppression

13. Clinical manifestations of acute glomerulonephritis include which of the following? a. Chills and flank pain b. Oliguria and generalized edema c. Hematuria proteinuria d. Dysuria and hypotension
14. You expect a patient in the oliguric phase of renal failure to have a 24 hour urine output less than: a. 200ml b. 400ml c. 800ml d. 1000ml
15. What is the most common early sign of kidney disease? a. Sodium retention b. Elevated BUN level c. Development of metabolic acidosis d. Inability to dilute or concentrate urine
16. A patient is experiencing which type of incontinence if she experiences leaking urine when she coughs, sneezes, or lifts heavy objects? a. Overflow b. Reflex c. Stress d. Urge
17. Immediately post-op after a prostatectomy, which complications require priority assessment of your patient? a. Pneumonia b. Hemorrhage c. Urine retention d. Deep vein thrombosis

18. The most indicative test for prostate cancer is: a. A thorough digital rectal examination b. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) c. Excretory urography d. Prostate-specific antigen
19. A 22 y.o. patient with diabetic nephropathy says, “I have two kidneys and I’m still young. If I stick to my insulin schedule, I don’t have to worry about kidney damage, right?” Which of the following statements is the best response? a. “You have little to worry about as long as your kidneys keep making urine.” b. “You should talk to your doctor because statistics show that you’re being unrealistic.” c. “You would be correct if your diabetes could be managed with insulin.” d. “Even with insulin, kidney damage is still a concern.”
20. A patient diagnosed with sepsis from a UTI is being discharged. What do you plan to include in her discharge teaching? a. Take cool baths. b. Avoid tampon use. c. Avoid sexual activity. d. Drink 8 to 10 eight-oz glasses of water daily.
21. Which finding leads you to suspect acute glomerulonephritis in your 32 y.o. patient? a. Dysuria, frequency and urgency b. Back pain, nausea, and vomiting c. Hypertension, oliguria, and fatigue d. Fever, chills, and right upper quadrant pain radiating to the back.
22. What is the priority nursing diagnosis with your patient diagnosed with end-stage renal disease? a. Activity intolerance b. Fluid volume excess c. Knowledge deficit d. Pain
23. Your patient returns from the operating room after abdominal aortic aneurysm repair. Which symptom is a sign of acute renal failure?

a. Anuria b. Diarrhea c. Oliguria d. Vomiting

24. You’re preparing for urinary catheterization of a trauma patient and you observe bleeding at the urethral meatus. Which action has priority? a. Irrigate and clean the meatus before catheterization. b. Check the discharge for occult blood before catheterization. c. Heavily lubricate the catheter before insertion. d. Delay catheterization and notify the doctor.
25. Which criterion is required before a patient can be considered for continuous peritoneal dialysis? a. The patient must be hemodynamically stable b. The vascular access must have healed. c. The patient must be in a home setting d. Hemodialysis must have failed.
26. Polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate) is used in renal failure to: a. Correct acidosis b. Reduce serum phosphate levels. c. Exchange potassium for sodium d. Prevent constipation from sorbitol use.
27. The nurse is aware that the following findings would be further evidence of a urethral injury in a male client during a rectal examination. a. A low-riding prostate b. The presence of a boggy mass c. Absent sphincter tone d. A positive hemoccult
28. When a female client with an indwelling urinary (Foley) catheter insists on walking to the hospital lobby to visit with family members, nurse Rose teaches how to do this without compromising the catheter. Which client action indicates an accurate understanding of this information? a. The client sets the drainage bag on the floor while sitting down. b. The client keeps the drainage bag below the bladder at all times. c. The client clamps the catheter drainage tubing while visiting with the family.

d. The client loops the drainage tubing below its point of entry into the drainage bag.

29. A female client has just been diagnosed with condylomata acuminata (genital warts). What information is appropriate to tell this client? a. This condition puts her at a higher risk for cervical cancer; therefore, she should have a Papanicolaou (Pap) smear annually. b. The most common treatment is metronidazole (Flagyl), which should eradicate the problem within 7 to 10 days. c. The potential for transmission to her sexual partner will be eliminated if condoms are used every time they have sexual intercourse. d. The human papillomavirus (HPV), which causes condylomata acuminata, can’t be transmitted during oral sex.
30. A male client with bladder cancer has had the bladder removed and an ileal conduit created for urine diversion. While changing this client’s pouch, the nurse observes that the area around the stoma is red, weeping, and painful. What should Nurse Kaye conclude? a. The skin wasn’t lubricated before the pouch was applied. b. The pouch faceplate doesn’t fit the stoma c. A skin barrier was applied properly. d. Stoma dilation wasn’t performed.
31. The nurse is aware that the following laboratory values support a diagnosis of pyelonephritis. a. Myoglobinuria b. Ketonuria c. Pyuria d. Low white blood cell (WBC) count
32. A female client with chronic renal failure (CRF) is receiving hemodialysis treatment. After hemodialysis, nurse Sarah knows that the client is most likely to experience: a. Hematuria b. Weight loss c. Increased urine output d. Increased blood pressure

33. Nurse Lily is assessing a male client diagnosed with gonorrhea. Which symptom most likely prompted the client to seek medical attention? a. Rashes on the palms of the hands and soles of the feet. b. Cauliflower-like warts on the penis. c. Painful red papules on the shaft of the penis. d. Foul-smelling discharge from the penis
34. A male client in the short-procedure unit is recovering from renal angiography in which a femoral puncture site was used. When providing post-procedure care, the nurse should: a. Keep the client’s knee on the affected side bent for 6 hours b. Apply pressure to the puncture site for 30 minutes c. Check the client’s pedal pulses frequently. d. Remove the dressing on the puncture site after vital signs stabilize.
35. A client comes to the outpatient department complaining of vaginal discharge, dysuria, and genital irritation. Suspecting a sexually transmitted disease (STD), Dr. Smith orders diagnostic tests of the vaginal discharge. Which STD must be reported to the public health department? a. Chlamydia b. Gonorrhea c. Genital herpes d. Human papillomavirus infection
36. After trying to conceive for a year, a couple consults an infertility specialist. When obtaining a history from the husband, Nurse Jessica inquires about childhood infectious diseases. Which childhood infectious disease most significantly affects male fertility? a. Chickenpox b. Measles c. Mumps d. Scarlet fever
37. After having transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP), Mr. Lim returns to the unit with a three-way indwelling urinary catheter and continuous closed bladder irrigation. Which finding suggests that the client’s catheter is occluded? a. The urine in the drainage bag appears red to pink b. The client reports bladder spasms and the urge to void c. The normal saline irrigant is infusing at a rate of 50 drops/minute. d. About 1,000ml of irrigant have been instilled; 1,200 ml of drainage have been returned.

38. A 55-year-old client with benign prostatic hyperplasia doesn’t respond to medical treatment and is admitted to the facility for prostate gland removal. Before providing preoperative and postoperative instructions to the client, Nurse Gerry asks the surgeon which prostatectomy procedure will be done. What is the most widely used procedure for prostate gland removal? a. Transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) b. Suprapubic prostatectomy c. Retropubic prostatectomy d. Transurethral laser incision of the prostate
39. Nurse Karen is caring for a client who had a cerebrovascular accident (CVA). Which nursing intervention promotes urinary continence? a. Encouraging intake of at least 2 L of fluid daily. b. Giving the client a glass of soda before bedtime. c. Taking the client to the bathroom twice per day. d. Consulting with a dietitian.
40. When performing a scrotal examination, Nurse Payne finds a nodule. What should the nurse do next? a. Notify the physician b. Change the client’s position and repeat the examination c. Perform a rectal examination d. Transilluminate the scrotum
41. A male client is admitted for treatment of glomerulonephritis. On initial assessment, Nurse Miley detects one of the classic signs of acute glomerulonephritis of sudden onset. Such signs include: a. Generalized edema, especially of the face and periorbital area. b. Green-tinged urine c. Moderate to severe hypotension d. Polyuria
42. A client reports experiencing vulvar pruritus. Which assessment factor may indicate that the client has an infection caused by Candida albicans? a. A cottage cheese-like discharge b. Yellow-green discharge c. Gray-white discharge d. Discharge with a fishy order

43. Nurse Grace is assessing a male client diagnosed with gonorrhea. Nurse Grace knows that gonorrhea and which of the following are reportable to the local health authorities? Select all that apply. a. Syphilis? b. Chlamydia c. HIV infection d. AIDS? e. Herpes
44. Nurse Jones is caring for a client with syphilis. The nurse determines the client is in the primary stage of untreated syphilis when she recognizes what cue. a. A boil on the inner thigh b. A carbuncle on the right pelvic area c. A papule on the pelvic region d. A chancre in the genital area
45. The nursing student is helping the instructor with pamphlets for the health screening fair. The nursing student reads the brochure on the recommendations for Pap and HPV testing. The nursing instructor determines the nursing student understood the information when the nursing student makes what statement? a. “I am 26 years old and I don’t need to have my Pap done for another year according to the recommendations.” b. “My mom is 50 years old and she is eligible for getting her Pap and HPV” c. “My girlfriend gets an HPV every year to be safe. I think I will do that.” d. “My sister is 18 years old, and she is getting her first Pap on Monday.”
46. Nurse Trethorn is taking the history of a client visiting the clinic for a persistent discharge. The client also states some abdominal discomfort and frequency of urination. The nurse prepares the client for testing procedure. What equipment would the nurse be sure to include in the supplies. a. Swabs b. 4x4 gauze c. 10ml syringe d. Catheter tubing
47. Nurse Cynthia is educating the client on sexually transmitted diseases. The nurses is evaluating the educational material. What is the most important information to give the client? a. All STIs present with no symptoms

b. Can use a condom more than once c. Ensuring privacy for discussion d. Providing information on partner treatment

48. During a routine physical examination, a firm mass is palpated in the right breast of a 35- year-old woman. Which of the following findings or client history would suggest cancer of the breast as opposed to fibrocystic disease? a. Increased vascularity of the breast b. History of anovulatory cycles c. Cyclic changes in mass size d. History of early menarche
49. Nurse Donald is caring for a client following a modified radical mastectomy. Which assessment finding would indicate that the client is experiencing a complication related to this surgery? a. Pain at the incisional site b. Complaints of decreased sensation near the operative site c. Arm edema on the operative side d. Sanguineous drainage in the Jackson-Pratt drain
50. A 32-year-old woman meets with the nurse on her first office visit since undergoing a left mastectomy. When asked how she is doing, the woman states her appetite is still not good, she is not getting much sleep because she doesn’t go to bed until her husband is asleep, and she is really anxious to get back to work. Which of the following nursing interventions should the nurse explore to support the client’s current needs? a. Ask open-ended questions about sexuality issues related to her mastectomy b. Suggest that the client learn relaxation techniques to help with her insomnia c. Call the physician to discuss allowing the client to return to work earlier d. Perform a nutritional assessment to assess for anorexia