Medical Assistant Ethics and Procedures, Exams of Nursing

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NCCT EXAM PRACTICE QUESTIONS

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ANSWERS.

1. Title of the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) mandates that individuals with disabilities are: A) to be provided access to public services B) to be given opportunities for public housing C) not be discriminated against in obtaining employment D) to be provided means of telecommunication - Correct Answer ✔✔ C
2. Which of the following health care issues is NOT covered under the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPPA)? A) Increasing the probability of health insurance B) Addressing health care fraud and abuse C) standardizing the electronic transmission of health data D) Outlining payment of Medicare and Medicaid - Correct Answer ✔✔ D
3. Which of the following constitutes a breach of contract by a health care provider? A) Discontinuing treatment because of the patient did not pay in a timely manner B) Discontinuing treatment because it is no longer needed C) Being formally discharged by the patient D) Withdrawing from the case due to patient noncompliance or an inability to serve the patient - Correct Answer ✔✔ A

4. Under the doctrine of respondeat superior, who can potentially be held legally responsible for an act of negligence by a medical assistant? A) The medical assistant only B) The employee/provider only C) Both the medical assistant and the employer/provider D) The patient - Correct Answer ✔✔ C
5. Touching a patient in a manner to which they have not consented is considered a tort of A) invasion of privacy B) battery C) libel D) slander - Correct Answer ✔✔ B
6. All of the following minors ( under age ) are considered emancipated EXCEPT a minor who is A) a member of the armed forces B) financially responsible and no longer under parental car C) married D) being tested for a sexually transmitted disease - Correct Answer ✔✔ D
7. Unless public safety is involved, what is required in all cases to release patient medical records after a subpoena is issued? A) the patients written consent B) a court order C) a deposition D) an interrogatory - Correct Answer ✔✔ A
8. What normal patient right is suspended upon discovery of child abuse? A) privacy B) confidentiality C) documentation D) standard of care - Correct Answer ✔✔ B

9. A POLST dorm is a type of A) document declaring durable power of attorney for health care B) document releasing a provider from liability under Good Samaritan laws C) living will or advance directive D) PSDA - Correct Answer ✔✔ C
10. Generally, medical assistants are permitted to do certain clinical procedures only under the supervision of an employer/provider because they are NOT A) certifies B) registered C) licenses D) certified, registered, or licensed - Correct Answer ✔✔ C
11. Which of the following best describes ethics? A) individual choices relating to conduct B) personal values governing an individual’s perceptions of right and wrong C) laws defining acceptable behavior D) creeds to live by - Correct Answer ✔✔ B
12. Bioethics is defined as A) any ethical matter that pertains to life and/or health care B) issues regarding abortion and the use of fetal tissue C) dealings with individuals who have committed sexual abuse or exploitation D) dealings with individuals who have committed physical or emotional abuse - Correct Answer ✔✔ A
13. Which of the following principles for a medical assistant is NOT set forth by the American Association of Medical Assistants (AAMA) Code of Ethics? A) respect for the confidentiality of patient information B) performance of service while respecting all patients C) continuous professional improvement

D) specific ways of dealing with certain situations - Correct Answer ✔✔ D

14. At present, what is the main difference between reposting child abuse and reporting elder or intimate partner abuse? A) child abuse must be reported to authorities in all stares while other types of abuse do not always need to be reported B) sexual abuse is the main offense related to child abuse C) physical abuse is more predominant in elder an intimate partner D) child abuse is more likely to involve a reportable criminal act - Correct Answer ✔✔ A
15. A provider is dealing with a patient with HIV or AIDS. Which of the following statements regarding the providers legal or ethical requirements is NOT TRUE? A) the provider cannot withhold treatment to the HIV positive patient B) the provider should protect the patients confidentiality C) the provider can ethically deny treatment D) the patients intimate partner should be notified by the patient, the provider, or authorities - Correct Answer ✔✔ C
16. What is the time frame during which an abortion can be legally performed in all stares? A) there is no universal time frame for all states B) abortion can be performed during the first trimester C) abortion can be performed during the first trimester only in cases of rape D) abortion can be performed during the first and second trimesters - Correct Answer ✔✔ B
17. Therapeutic communication interjects what element into communication? A) empathy B) advice

C) recommendations D) knowledge of the process of communication - Correct Answer ✔✔ A

18. Active listening requires A) being alert and interested B) being attuned only to what the other is saying C) being attuned to what the other person is saying and what they are communicating nonverbally D) being able to respond quickly with a corrective action - Correct Answer ✔✔ C
19. In order for verbal communication between two people to be effective, the senders message must be A) complete B) clear and concise C) cohesive D) all of the above - Correct Answer ✔✔ D
20. In the United Stares, what do most people consider a comfortable personal space for dealing on a personal ( not intimate) level with another individual? A) in contact to -/ feet B) between -/ and feet C) between and feet D) between and feet - Correct Answer ✔✔ B
21. The use of a defense mechanism in which a person unconsciously ascribes their own undesirable acts or impulses to someone else is known as A) sublimation B) repression C) projection D) compensation - Correct Answer ✔✔ C
22. According to Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, what is the first level of need that people must satisfy before all others ?.

A) physiological and survival needs B) necessities for safety and security C) needs related to loving and belonging D) conditions promoting prestige and esteem - Correct Answer ✔✔ A

23. A cultural broker is someone who A) physiological and survival needs B) necessities for safety and security C) needs related to loving belonging D) conditions promoting prestige and esteem - Correct Answer ✔✔ C
24. When interviewing a patient, which of the following types of question prompts only a yes or no response? A) indirect statement B) closed question C) open ended question D) active question - Correct Answer ✔✔ B
25. Which of the following does NOT initially occur when a person is exposed to an acute stressor? A) triggering of the parasympathetic nervous system B) activation of the "flight or fight" response C) releasing of adrenaline and other hormones into the bloodstream D) increased respiration rate - Correct Answer ✔✔ A
26. In order, what are the four stages of job burnout? A) value, ambiguity, overload, conflict B) value, reality, dissatisfaction, detachment C) honeymoon, Dissatisfaction, reality, a sad state D) honeymoon, reality, dissatisfaction, a sad state - Correct Answer ✔✔ D
27. Which of the following activities does NOT relieve stress? A) goal setting

B) meditation C) gladly accepting all assigned work D) taking time off for lunch or a break - Correct Answer ✔✔ C

28. The symptoms lethargy and weight loss can be associated with which of the following conditions? A) AIDS B) cancer C) end stage renal disease D) all of the above - Correct Answer ✔✔ D
29. According to Dr. kubler-ross, what are the most likely stages of grief experienced by a patient with a life threatening illness, in order? A) denial, bargaining, anger, depression, acceptance B) denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance C) acceptance of reality, experience of pain, adjustment, development of a new reality D) denial followed by any number of stages leading to acceptance in the end - Correct Answer ✔✔ B
30. Which of the following management styles offers rewards to subordinates in terms of teamwork, recognition by other workers, and self- actualization? A) authoritarian management B) micromanagement C) participatory management D) management by walking around - Correct Answer ✔✔ C
31. In an officer manager is using a teamwork approach, what is the first step in getting the team started? A) brainstorming with the team B) developing a work statement with the team C) looking at benchmarks from other institutions D) developing a time frame and standards for goal achievement - Correct Answer ✔✔ B

32. As an office manager, when is the best time to carry out a salary review for employees? A) at the same time as their performance evaluation B) When the employee asks for a salary review C) at the beginning of each year D) when the office experiences changes in funding - Correct Answer ✔✔ C
33. A medical assistant who functions as a Human Resources manager is responsible for developing and updating which of the following documents? A) office policy manual B) office procedure manual C) HIPAA manual D) safety data sheets - Correct Answer ✔✔ A
34. Which of the following actions during an initial employment interview is discouraged? A) providing a time frame for decisions on hiring or additional interviews B) using predetermined questions during the interview C) providing a quiet and private environment for the interview D) offering the applicant the job at that time - Correct Answer ✔✔ D
35. The standard rate of overtime pay for administrative or clinical medical assistant is generally A) twice the regular hourly rate for each hour over in a week B) at least one and one half times the regular hourly rate for each hour over in a week C) not applicable because most medical assistant are considered exempt employees D) only applicable in terms of increasing benefits outside pay - Correct Answer ✔✔ B
36. Medical assistants and other individuals who handle finances in the medical office should

A) be bonded B) purchase professional liability insurance C) be registered D) be licensed - Correct Answer ✔✔ A

37. When must a medical assistant functioning as an office manager pay federal and state taxes related to employee wages? A) monthly B) quarterly C) at the end of the year D) upon filing of a- form - Correct Answer ✔✔ B
38. What types of nutrients can be converted into energy? A) carbohydrates B) fats C) proteins D) all of the above - Correct Answer ✔✔ D
39. Unhealthy trans unsaturated fatty acids are found in A) olive and canola oils B) linoleum acid C) stick margarine D) unhydrogenated oils - Correct Answer ✔✔ C
40. Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding a persons basal metabolic rate (BMR)? A) It is the level of energy needed when the body is resting B) it is higher in people who have a larger percentage of body fat C) it is elevated in children during growth spurts D) it is increase when a woman is pregnant - Correct Answer ✔✔ B
41. According to the new food pyramid issued by the U.S. Department of Agriculture, what is the recommended daily intake of vegetables?

A) cups B) -/ cups C) cups D) ounces - Correct Answer ✔✔ B

42. What are the main inorganic nutrients that act as antioxidants? A) Vitamin K and folic acid B) Vitamin D and the minerals calcium and phosphorus C) Vitamins A, C, and E, and the mineral selenium D) several B-complex vitamins and the minerals phosphorus, magnesium, and sulfur - Correct Answer ✔✔ C
43. What type of diabetes mellitus requires the individual to take insulin regularly throughout life? A) Type only B) Type @ only C) Types and D) Gestational - Correct Answer ✔✔ A
44. What is the cardiovascular disease in which arteries narrow due to inner deposition of cholesterol and fat? A) Hypertension B) Atherosclerosis C) Arteriosclerosis D) Myocardial infarction - Correct Answer ✔✔ B
45. Cancerous cells that are derived from epithelial cells are known as A) carcinomas B) sarcomas C) lymphomas D) germ cell tumors - Correct Answer ✔✔ A
46. Which of the following characteristics does NOT distinguish a virus from other types of microorganisms? A) A virus can only reproduce within another type of living cell

B) Viruses are pathogenic C) Viruses produce spores D) Viruses cannot be observed directly under light microscope

• Correct Answer ✔✔ C

47. An organism that serves as a carrier of a disease to another organism such as a human is known as a A) fomite B) vector C) bloodborne carrier D) exudate - Correct Answer ✔✔ B
48. Which of the following currently available vaccines are contraindicated in pregnant women, immunocompromised patients, and those with active AIDS? A) Measles, mumps, rubella (MMR) B) MMR and influenza C) MMR, varicella, and zoster D) Hepatitis A and B - Correct Answer ✔✔ C
49. Pathogenic microorganisms, cancer cells, and transplanted tissues are initially recognized as foreign by A) macrophages and helper T cells B) B cells C) memory and killer T cells D) immunoglobulins - Correct Answer ✔✔ A
50. The biggest concern regarding the infectious diseases methicillin resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) and tuberculosis is that A) identification of the infectious agent is difficult B) they are highly drug resistant, limiting antibiotic treatment options C) they are viral and cannot be cured D) It becomes a chronic infection - Correct Answer ✔✔ B

51. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Hepatitis A infection? A) it is spread via the oral fecal route B) it can be prevented by an available vaccine C) patients usually develop jaundice, dark urine, and flu-like symptoms D) it becomes a chronic infection - Correct Answer ✔✔ D
52. Which of the following is the neurotransmitter released at the neuromuscular junction between axons of motor neurons and the motor end plate? A) acetylcholine B) GABA C) Serotonin D) dopamine - Correct Answer ✔✔ A
53. A streptococcal infection might be linked to all of the following circulatory disorders, EXCEPT A) rheumatic fever B) mitral valve stenosis C) congestive heart failure D) varicose veins - Correct Answer ✔✔ D
54. Which of the following types of anemia can be controlled by injecting the patient with vitamin B? A) iron deficiency anemia B) pernicious anemia C) sickle cell anemia D) Hodgkin disease - Correct Answer ✔✔ B
55. What layer of the skin contains blood vessels, nerve endings,, and glands? A) epidermis B) dermis C) hypodermis D) integumentary - Correct Answer ✔✔ B

56. Which of the following is a contagious skin disorder characterized by pustules and caused by staphylococci and/ or streptococci? A) dermatitis B) dermatophytosis C) impetigo D) psoriasis - Correct Answer ✔✔ C
57. Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding herpes zoster infection? A) it is caused by the same virus associated with varicella or chicken pox in children B) it usually presents as a linear area of a skin rash C) a later symptom can be post herpetic neuralgia D) Since it is caused by a virus, there is no available vaccine - Correct Answer ✔✔ D
58. The purpose of immunotherapy for allergies is to use extracts of allergens to A) induce production of blocking gG class antibodies toward the allergens B) induce production of IgE class antibodies toward the allergens C) generally build up the immune system D) use immunomodulation to suppress the immune system - Correct Answer ✔✔ A
59. Which of the following urinary tract disorders should be suspected if a patient has chills, fever, abrupt back pain, and tenderness in the suprapubic region? A) cystitis B) glomerulonephritis C) pyelonephritis D) renal calculi - Correct Answer ✔✔ C
60. Which of the following functions is NOT performed by the kidneys?

A) regulation of water and acid-base balance B) filtration of the blood to remove waste C) regulation of blood pressure D) collection and storage prior to urinary excretion - Correct Answer ✔✔ D

61. Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is caused by A) lesions in the mucous membranes in the stomach or duodenum B) return of stomach acid due to leakage of the valve leading to the stomach C) inflammation of diverticula D) inflammation of the ileum - Correct Answer ✔✔ B
62. Which of the following statements about the pancreas is FALSE? A) it functions as both an endocrine and an exocrine gland B) it is involved in the secretion of insulin C) It can develop stones, causing pain D) it can become inflamed, which can be life-threatening - Correct Answer ✔✔ C
63. In order, the large intestine is comprised of the A) cecum, colon, and rectum B) duodenum, jejunum, and ileum C) ascending, transverse, descending, and sigmoid colons D) liver, gall bladder, and pancreas - Correct Answer ✔✔ A
64. What is the chief cause of blindness in the United States? A) retinal detachment B) glaucoma C) diabetic retinopathy D) presbyopia - Correct Answer ✔✔ C
65. The gel occupying space between the lends and retina of the eye is called the A) fovea centralis

B) vitreous body C) sclera D) aqueous humor - Correct Answer ✔✔ B

66. In patients with myopia, light rays entering the eye focus A) on several areas of the retina B) in front of the retina C) beyond the retina D) on the retina - Correct Answer ✔✔ B
67. When a person moves their head, their equilibrium is usually maintained by A) the vestibular system in the inner ear B) the tympanic cavity in the middle ear C) the auricle D) the cochlea - Correct Answer ✔✔ A
68. Hearing loss due to hardening of the stapes of the middle ear is known as A) tinnitus B) otitis media C) otosclerosis D) Meniere disease - Correct Answer ✔✔ C
69. Which of the following is NOT a possible cause of epistaxis? A) allergic rhinitis B) blunt force C) hypertension D) childbirth - Correct Answer ✔✔ D
70. In the respiratory system, gas exchange between oxygen breathed in and carbon dioxide to be removed takes place in the A) pharynx B) trachea C) bronchi D) alveoli - Correct Answer ✔✔ D

71. The main characteristics that distinguishes asthma from forms of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is that asthma A) does not cause dyspnea B) is characterized by a permanent narrowing of the airways C) can usually be reversed either spontaneously or through use of agents such as bronchodilators D) is caused by a loss of elasticity of the alveoli - Correct Answer ✔✔ C
72. Which of the following can cause pneumonia? A) bacteria B) fungi C) viruses D) all of the above - Correct Answer ✔✔ D
73. Which of the following is a spinal defects in which there is a sideways curvature of the spiney? A) lordosis B) kyphosis C) Paget disease of bone D) scoliosis - Correct Answer ✔✔ D
74. A fracture in which of the bone is broken into a number of fragments is described as A) greenstick B) comminuted C) oblique D) transverse - Correct Answer ✔✔ B
75. The main type of arthritis or join inflammation that is considered a systemic autoimmune disease is A) osteoarthritis B) rheumatoid arthritis C) gout D) psoriatic arthritis - Correct Answer ✔✔ B

76. Which of the following is NOT true of the endochondral ossification? A) it is responsible for the growth in length of long bones B) the cell types involved are bone cells, their progenitors, and cartilage C) it begins during embryonic development and continues until the late teens and early twenties D) it is direct deposition of bone into the mesenchyme - Correct Answer ✔✔ D
77. The largest leg bone that connects the kneecap to the foot is the A) patella B) femur C) tibia D) fibula - Correct Answer ✔✔ C
78. The human vertebral column normally consists of A) -articulating vertebrae and the spinal cord B) articulating vertebrae and nine fused vertebrate C) the vertebral body and the vertebral arch D) clearly separated regions - Correct Answer ✔✔ B
79. The cervical region of the spinal cord controls certain movement in the A) neck, diaphragm, shoulder, arm, wrist, and hand B) trunk and abdomen C) abdomen, thigh , leg, and toes D) leg, foot, and toes - Correct Answer ✔✔ A
80. Viral infections have been associated with which of the following neurologic disorders? A) meningitis only B) tic douloureux C) reye syndrome only D) meningitis and reye syndrome - Correct Answer ✔✔ D

81. Which of the following is NOT characteristic of cerebrovascular accident (CVA)? A) a loss of blood to the brain, depriving it of oxygen B) direct impairment of cranial nerves C) symptoms like loss of consciousness and paralysis D) caused by hemorrhage or blockage of blood vessel - Correct Answer ✔✔ B
82. Which of the following portions of the brain is primarily responsible for maintaining homeostasis? A) cerebellum B) cerebral cortex C) hypothalamus D) pons - Correct Answer ✔✔ C
83. Which of the following can cause paralysis? A) spinal cord injury B) stroke C) poliomyelitis D) all of my above - Correct Answer ✔✔ D
84. When a patient is covered by more than one insurance policy, the total amount paid is limited by policy language regarding A) preauthorization B) assignment of benefits C) coordination of benefits D) the deductible - Correct Answer ✔✔ C
85. What is capitation? A) a payment system in which the health care provider is paid a fixed fee per patient B) a payment system in which the health care provider is paid a specific free for a particular service C) payment for the full free for health care services by the patient

D) payment for health care services by the government through Medicare - Correct Answer ✔✔ A

86. The managed care organization model, in which a network of providers and hospitals sign agreements to provide patient services at a discount to the insurance company nonexclusively, is a A) Point-of-service (POS) plan B) preferred provider organization (PPO) C) exclusive provider organization (EPO) D) integrated delivery system (IDS) - Correct Answer ✔✔ B
87. What health care services are covered under Medicare, part B? A) hospital stays, home health care, and hospice care B) outpatient expenses C) prescription drug coverage D) all of the above - Correct Answer ✔✔ B
88. The resource-based relative value scale (RBRVS) is used to A) coordinate with medigap policies B) determine whether a Medicare payment is PAR or non-PAR C) calculate Medicare payments D) determine practice overhead - Correct Answer ✔✔ C
89. Which of the following individuals can receive medical care medical care under the Medicaid program? A) those receiving Aid to Families with Dependent Children B) those who cannot work because of physical difficulties C) pregnant women earning less than poverty-level wages D) all of the above - Correct Answer ✔✔ D
90. Which of the following is the medical insurance program that covers active duty soldiers? A) CHAMPVA B) TRICARE Prime C) TRICARE Extra

D) TRICARE Standard - Correct Answer ✔✔ B

91. Workers compensation insurance covers which of the following expenses for a person injured on the job? A) all medical expenses B) all medical expenses plus lost wages C) all medical expenses plus lost wages, and an automatic settlement for pain, suffering , and other punitive damages D) Some medical expenses and lost wages, as determined by state laws - Correct Answer ✔✔ B
92. If a usual, customary, and reasonable (UCR) fee structure is used for billing, an insurance carrier that pays fees that are considered customary will pay the provider A) the top fee in the customary will pay the provider B) the full fee as long as it falls within the customary fee range C) the RBRVS-calculated fee D) an adjustment - Correct Answer ✔✔ B
93. When is patient health information that is transmitted via telephone call or fax subject to the security rule under the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) regarding electronic transmission? A) always B) never C) when that information was derived from electronically stored information D) when the patient has signed a privacy agreement - Correct Answer ✔✔ C
94. The relative value units (RVU's) issued for a particular service fee under Medicare are computed using which of the following factors? A) the providers rate for the service, practice expenses, and malpractice expenses

B) all of the factors listed in response A plus adjustors like the geographic practice cost index and the Budget Neutrality Adjuster C) standard national codes D) sliding fees within an acceptable range - Correct Answer ✔✔ B

95. According to the Current Procedural Terminology (CPT) system, what is the procedure to change a code for billing a medical procedure to reflect that the service lasted longer than described? A) enter the code twice B) add a plus sign (+) before the code C) use an unlisted code and add a report D) use a category code - Correct Answer ✔✔ B
96. Under the Current Procedural Terminology (CPT) system of coding, what type of modifier should be added to a code to indicate a slight difference in the description (for example, using a surgical team instead of one surgeon)? A) indicate both the described code and B) Put a - after the described code C) use a code beginning with and ending with the two-digit modifier D) add the modifier - Correct Answer ✔✔ c
97. Which medical insurance coding system should be used when billing Medicare or Medicaid? A) International Classification of Disease, th Revision, Clinical Modification (ICD--CM) B) current procedural terminology (CPT) C) Healthcare Common Procedure Coding System (HCPCS) D) V codes - Correct Answer ✔✔ C
98. Which of the following is the general format for describing a diagnosis due to disease under the International Classification of Disease, th Revision, Clinical Modification (ICD--CM-) system?

A) three-digit-coding for the diagnosis, followed by a decimal point, and then a one- or two-digit modifier B) anE followed by a three-digit code, then a decimal point, and then a one-or two-digit modifier - Correct Answer ✔✔ A

99. Which of the following is the standard claim form to be completed for situations such as inpatient admissions, emergency department services, and walk-in facilities? A) CMS- (-) B) Uniform Bill (UB-) C) Authorization for release of medical information D) encounter form - Correct Answer ✔✔ B
100. When can Medicare patients be held responsible for paying out of pocket expenses in addition to what is paid by the government? A) Never B) if they sign a written waiver C) if they sign an advanced beneficiary notification ( ABN) D) in any situation that is beyond the scope of Medicare - Correct Answer ✔✔ c
101. Which of the following is the most commonly used manual system of managing a patients account? A) patient ledger B) encounter form C) posting system D) pegboard system - Correct Answer ✔✔ D
102. In a patients account or ledger, what should be posted as a credit? A) the services provided and the charges for each B) payments by the insurance company or patient C) payments by the insurance company or patient and adjustments D) the difference between charges and payments - Correct Answer ✔✔ C

103. The primary reason to keep day sheets and month-end sheets is to maintain accurate records of A) accounts receivable for the practice B) accounts payable for the practice C) individual patient accounts D) receipts - Correct Answer ✔✔ A
104. Which of following is generally included in monthly billing statements generated in computerized account systems? A) contact information for both the practice and the patient B) services performed, charges, payments, and a running balance C) aging of how long past due balances have accrued D) all of the above - Correct Answer ✔✔ D
105. Which of the following types of check endorsement will ensure safety against cashing by anyone else? A) rubber endorsement stamp B) daily depositing C) blank endorsement D) restrictive endorsement - Correct Answer ✔✔ D
106. In order to comply with the truth in lending act, what must be done by a provider who allows a patient to pay using installment payments? A) always have the patient sign a written agreement outlining cost of services rendered and outstanding terms of the agreement, including interest B) have the patient sign a written agreement outlining cost of services rendered and outstanding terms of the agreement, including interest, only if there are at least five installments C) explain to the patient when payments are due and whether there will be interest charged if they do not comply D) explain to the patient at the time of service that they must pay any insurance required co-pay at that time, and that further payments will be assessed after the insurance

company pays their portion of the bill - Correct Answer ✔✔ B

107. Which of the following tools is used to measure how rapidly patient accounts are being paid? A) collection ratio B) accounts receivable (A/R) ratio C) account aging D) number of accounts with balances over two months old - Correct Answer ✔✔ B
108. Which of the following is generally the last resort for collection of an overdue bill? A) telephone collections B) collection letters C) outside collection firm D) filling in small claims court - Correct Answer ✔✔ C
109. When a patient has declared bankruptcy under Chapter , what should the medical office do regarding their unpaid account? A) write off the outstanding charges B) send a proof of claim and a copy of the patients debt to bankruptcy court C) file a claim to the individuals attorney as an outstanding unsecured debt D) file a claim in probate court - Correct Answer ✔✔ B
110. An accounting software package that computerizes every aspect of running a medical facility is known as a A) single entry system B) double entry system C) computer service bureau D) TPMS - Correct Answer ✔✔ D

111. Which of the following is an accounting system designed to generate information for governmental or other external organizations? A) managerial accounting B) cost accounting C) cost analysis D) financial accounting - Correct Answer ✔✔ D
112. If a practice uses an accrual basis for income reporting, when is the income is recorded? A) the date the money was collected B) the date the charges were accrued C) the completion date for treatment D) a convenient date every month - Correct Answer ✔✔ B
113. Which of the following is a fidelity bond purchase to guard against embezzlement or other financial loss caused by any employee of a practice? A) position schedule bond B) personal bond C) blanket position bond D) total practice bond - Correct Answer ✔✔ c
114. When closing the facility, an administrative medical assistant should lock up A) cabinets used for record storage B) cabinets used for storage of drugs named under the controlled substances act C) petty cash and the days receipts D) all of the above - Correct Answer ✔✔ D
115. Which of the following is a good estimate of the number of chairs needed in a waiting room? A) as many as will fit B) two and half seats per examination room C) two seats per provider per their hourly turnover D) either B or C - Correct Answer ✔✔ D