Medical Assisting Certification Study Guide: Questions and Answers, Exams of Nursing

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(NHA) Medical Assisting Certification

Study Guide QUESTIONS AND

ANSWERS

CC - CORRECT ANSWER -Chief Complaint

Segment - CORRECT ANSWER -Line between two waveforms

P Wave - CORRECT ANSWER -Arterial Depolarization

How many 1mm boxes are in a 6 second rhythm strip? - CORRECT ANSWER -

30 one millimeter boxes

The SA node represents which waveform on the EKG? - CORRECT ANSWER -

Only the P wave

What is the reading you can get from the RR interval? - CORRECT ANSWER -

Ventricular Pulse

What is the primary stage of Hemolysis? - CORRECT ANSWER -Vascular phase

and platelet phase together

What is Electrophoresis? - CORRECT ANSWER -Analyzation of the chemical

components of blood, e.g. hemoglobin, serum, urine, cerebrospinal fluid based on electrical charge.

Positive testing for occult blood in a stool sample turns which color? - CORRECT

ANSWER -Turns blue on a positive test for occult blood in feces

The stages of Hemostasis - CORRECT ANSWER -1. Vascular, 2. Platelet

Phase, 3. Coagulation Phase,

4. Fibronolysis

Blood vessels - CORRECT ANSWER -Aorta, Arteries, Arterioles, Capillaries,

Venues, Veins, Superior and Inferior Vena Cavae

Outer connective tissue layer of a blood vessel - CORRECT ANSWER -Tunica

Adventitia

Inner endothelial tissue of a blood vessel - CORRECT ANSWER -Tunica Intima

The inner smooth layer of a blood vessel - CORRECT ANSWER -Tunica tunica

media

The standards of right and wrong in a medical setting - CORRECT ANSWER -

Code of Ethics

What do you find in capillaries? - CORRECT ANSWER -A mixture of venous and

arterial blood is found

The average adult has how many liters of blood? - CORRECT ANSWER -5-

Liters

What is the percentage of water in the blood? - CORRECT ANSWER -92%

Percentage of plasma in the blood? - CORRECT ANSWER -55%

Percentage of formed elements in the blood? - CORRECT ANSWER -45%

99% of formed elements in the blood - CORRECT ANSWER -RBC,s or

Erythrocytes

Where do you find hemoglobin? - CORRECT ANSWER -RBC,s

Where do all blood cells originate? - CORRECT ANSWER -Bone marrow

How many RBC,s per microliter of blood - CORRECT ANSWER -4.2-6.2 million

What is the second most numerous WBC - CORRECT ANSWER -Lymphocyte

with 20-40%

Their numbers increase in intracellular infections and TB - CORRECT

ANSWER -Monocytes

Their numbers increase in bacterial infections and are often first on the scene -

CORRECT ANSWER -Neutrophils

These WBC,s play an important role in viral infection as well as in immunity -

CORRECT ANSWER -Lymphocytes

Number of leukocytes for average adult per microliter - CORRECT ANSWER -

5000-

Leukopenia - CORRECT ANSWER -Decrease in WBC,s seen with viral infection

and leukemia

Comprises 3-8% of WBC or leukocytes - CORRECT ANSWER -Monocytes

Largest in size of the leukocytes - CORRECT ANSWER -Monocytes

Carries histamine - CORRECT ANSWER -Basophil

Injury to a blood vessel that causes it to constrict, slowing the clod of blood. -

CORRECT ANSWER -Vascular phase of Hemostasis

Preferred site for a venipuncture - CORRECT ANSWER -Antecubital Fossa

Test used to evaluate the intrinsic pathway and monitor heparin therapy -

CORRECT ANSWER -APTT also know as PTT

Test used to evaluate the extrinsic pathway and also used to monitor warfarin therapy -

CORRECT ANSWER -PT

Fibrinolysis - CORRECT ANSWER -Breakdown and removal of a clot

Converts the temporary platelet plug in a stable fibrin clot - CORRECT

ANSWER -Coagulation Phase

2nd choice vein for venipuncture and most often the only one palatable in an obese Pt. -

CORRECT ANSWER -Cephalic vein

Antiseptics used in Phlebotomy - CORRECT ANSWER -70% isopropyl alcohol

pads most common, provolone - iodine for BC,s and Chlorhexidine gluconate for patients that are allergic to Betadine/ Iodine

Length of needle commonly used in venipuncture - CORRECT ANSWER -1 inch

(up to 1.5")

Average gauge of needle used for drawing blood - CORRECT ANSWER -21-

Gauge of needle that can cause hemolysis - CORRECT ANSWER -smaller than

23 gauge

3 skills of the phlebotomist - CORRECT ANSWER -Social, clerical, technical

Analytical errors during collection of blood - CORRECT ANSWER -Extended

tourniquet time, hemolysis, wrong order of draw, failure to invert tubes, faulty technique under filling tubes

Analytical errors before collection of blood - CORRECT ANSWER -Patient

misidentification, improper time, wrong tubes, not fasting, exercise (Cortisol levels), Pt. Posture, Poor coordination with other treatments, improper site prep, medication interference

Analytical errors After collection of blood - CORRECT ANSWER -Failure to

separate serum from cell (Glycolisis), improper use of serum separator (Not inverting tubes or not spinning tubes), delays in processing, exposure to light, improper storage conditions, dimming clots

Fistula - CORRECT ANSWER -Permanent surgical connection between an

artery and a vein, never used for venipuncture

Edima - CORRECT ANSWER -Accumulation of fluid in tissue

Thrombophlebitis - CORRECT ANSWER -Inflammation of a blood clot formation

Explanation of Hemoconcentration - CORRECT ANSWER -The increase in

proportion of formed elements to plasma caused by leaving on the tourniquet for more than two minutes Consequence of insufficient pressure applied after withdrawal of a needle -

CORRECT ANSWER -Thrombus

Additives in a green top tube - CORRECT ANSWER -Heparin, sodium, lithium,

ammonium

Why is the green top tube never used for hematology? - CORRECT ANSWER -

Green tops additive heparin interferes with the Wright's stained blood test

Common tests for the lavender EDTA tube - CORRECT ANSWER -CBC,

differential or diff, ESR, sickle cell screening Common tests for this color tube are Chemistry tests performed on plasma such as

ammonia, carboxyhemoglobin and STAT electrolytes - CORRECT ANSWER -

Green top tube (Heparin) tests How long does it take for blood to clot by the normal coagulation process in the red top

tube - CORRECT ANSWER -30-60 mins

The primary purpose is to provide reliable data about a patients health status by

ensuring the accuracy of a test while detecting and eliminating error - CORRECT

ANSWER -What is Quality Control?

Common test for the red topped tube - CORRECT ANSWER -Serum Chemistry

tests, serology tests, blood bank (Glass only)

Order of the draw for capillary specimens - CORRECT ANSWER -Lavender first,

than tubes with other additives, than tubes without additives

Antiseptic not used on a dermal puncture site - CORRECT ANSWER -Betadine

(Because it interferes with several tests like bilirubin, uric acid, phosphorus, and postassim) For which procedure would you warm the site for a minimum of 3-4 minutes to increase

blood flow? - CORRECT ANSWER -Dermal punctures (Heels sticks)

Which are the preferred sites for dermal punctures? - CORRECT ANSWER -The

distal segment of the third or fourth finger of the non-dominant hand

Heel sticks are performed on which patients? - CORRECT ANSWER -Infants

less than 1 years old Where on the foot is the dermal puncture made on patients less than 1 years old? -

CORRECT ANSWER -The medial and lateral areas of the plantar surface of the

foot

Dermal puncture is made in - CORRECT ANSWER -The fleshy portion of the

finger slightly to the side of the center perpendicular to the lines of the fingerprints

what will occur if you puncture the heel too deep? More than 2mm - CORRECT

ANSWER -Osteomyalitis

what are the identification requirements for the blood bank? - CORRECT

ANSWER -Patients full name or DOB, Hospital ID# or SNN for outpatient care, date

and time of collection as well as the phlebotomist's initials

What does the toxicology section of the lab analyze? - CORRECT ANSWER -

Plasma levels of drugs and poisons

What is the percentage of the population with the D antigen present? - CORRECT

ANSWER -85% of the population

The 4 blood types - CORRECT ANSWER -A, B, AB, O

Which blood type has neither the Anti-A nor the Anti-B plasma antibodies -

CORRECT ANSWER -AB

This section of the lab uses serum to analyze the presence of antibodies to bacteria, fungi, viruses, parasites, and antibodies against the body's own substances? -

CORRECT ANSWER -Serology (Immunology) Section

Mycology - CORRECT ANSWER -Study of fungi

The physical examination of urine consists of - CORRECT ANSWER -Color,

Clarity, Specific gravity

A low power microscope has a magnifying power of - CORRECT ANSWER -

100X

Oil immersion objectives on the microscope reach a maximal magnification of -

CORRECT ANSWER -1000X

This objective of the microscope is used for observing bacteria, WBC differential count

and RBC morphology - CORRECT ANSWER -Oil immersion

Eyepiece of the microscope - CORRECT ANSWER -Ocular lens

Focal length is? - CORRECT ANSWER -The distance of the object to be

examined to the center of the lens

Meter to inches - CORRECT ANSWER -39.

High power objective on a microscope magnification - CORRECT ANSWER -

400X

1000 meter are equal to - CORRECT ANSWER -1km

1mm to inches - CORRECT ANSWER -0.

0.3 meter of tubing is how many inches - CORRECT ANSWER -12 inches

1kg is how many pounds - CORRECT ANSWER -2.2 pounds

Abbreviation of microliter - CORRECT ANSWER -ul

Abbreviation for decimeter - CORRECT ANSWER -dm

Gram stain positive stains - CORRECT ANSWER -Deep violet (Violet to black)

Gram stain negative stains which color - CORRECT ANSWER -Light to dark red

Bacteria that take up and retain the crystal violet and resist alcohol discoloration -

CORRECT ANSWER -Gram positive bacteria, appear blue to black

Bacteria that are decolorized completely by ethanol and take safrin counterstain -

CORRECT ANSWER -Gram negative bacteria, appear red

Gram stain sequence - CORRECT ANSWER -Crystal violet, Gram's iodine, 95%

ethyl alcohol/acetone mix/safranin stain

The degree of angle of the pusher slide - CORRECT ANSWER -30 degrees

The urinary system - CORRECT ANSWER -Two kidneys, two ureters, bladder,

urethra When checking for hormones in urine when do you collect the urine sample? -

CORRECT ANSWER -First voiding in the morning

Which urine specimen provides the clearest, most accurate results? - CORRECT

ANSWER -Clean catch midstream specimen

Which urine sample requires aseptic technique - CORRECT ANSWER -Clean

catch specimen

Examination of urine consists of - CORRECT ANSWER -Physical, chemical,

microscopic

Physical examination of urine consists of - CORRECT ANSWER -Volume

(Adequate for testing, observing color, appearance, odor, and specific gravity

What amount of urine must you have to be sufficient for analysis? - CORRECT

ANSWER -25ml

What is the normal range of specific gravity of random collection - CORRECT

ANSWER -1.005 - 1.

What is the normal range of the specific gravity of urine in adults with normal diet and

fluid intake - CORRECT ANSWER -1.015 - 1.

Microscopic examination of urine requires this amount - CORRECT ANSWER -

10-15ml

Urine Specific Gravity - CORRECT ANSWER -The ratio of weight of a given

volume of urine to the weight of the same volume of distilled water at a constant temperature

Glycosuria - CORRECT ANSWER -Presence of glucose in the urine

Normal pH of freshly voided urine - CORRECT ANSWER -4.5-8.0 within this

range the pH of the most healthy patients is around 6.

Symptoms of patients with diabetes mellitus - CORRECT ANSWER -Glycosuria,

polyuria, and thirst

pH of 0-7.0 - CORRECT ANSWER -Acidic

pH of 7-14 in urine - CORRECT ANSWER -Alkaline

Distilled water has a pH of? - CORRECT ANSWER -7.0 pH or neutral

A urine pH of what is considered neutral? - CORRECT ANSWER -7.0 pH

A positive urine nitrate test is an indication for - CORRECT ANSWER -A

significant number of bacteria are present

What color is a test positive for in nitrate in urine - CORRECT ANSWER -Pink

The copper reaction test us used for what? - CORRECT ANSWER -Screening

for glucose in urine

The presence of leukocytes in urine is an indicator for what? - CORRECT

ANSWER -Bacteriuria or UTI

Urine screening for UCG or hCG - CORRECT ANSWER -Pregnancy test

HIPAA is for? - CORRECT ANSWER -Patient confidentiality

The four elements of negligence are - CORRECT ANSWER -1. Duty of care,

2.Derelict: Breach of duty, 3.Direct cause, 4.Damage

Tort - CORRECT ANSWER -Wrongful act that results in injury to one person or

another

Examples of A Tort - CORRECT ANSWER -Battery, invasion of privacy, and

defamation of character

Defamation of character by written statement is considered - CORRECT

ANSWER -Libel

Consists of injury to another person's reputation, name, or character through spoken

(Slander) or written (Libel) - CORRECT ANSWER -Defamation of character

Unprivileged touching - CORRECT ANSWER -Battery

The release of medical records without the patient's knowledge or permission -

CORRECT ANSWER -Invasion of privacy

Good Samaritan Law - CORRECT ANSWER -Rendering first aid within the

scope of knowledge by a healthcare worker without the fear of being sued for negligence

Hypothalamus - CORRECT ANSWER -Regulates and maintains body

temperature

Functions necessary for life - CORRECT ANSWER -Heart function, blood

pressure, respiration, and temperature

Rectal temperature range in Celsius - CORRECT ANSWER -37.0-38.1 C

Oral temperature range in Fahrenheit - CORRECT ANSWER -97.6-99.6 F

Axillary temperature range in Celsius - CORRECT ANSWER -35.9-37.0 C

Tympanic temperature range in F and C - CORRECT ANSWER -98.6F and 37C

Intermittent fever - CORRECT ANSWER -Fluctuating fever that returns to or

below the baseline than rises again

Remittent fever - CORRECT ANSWER -Fluctuating, remains elevated does not

return to baseline

Continuous fever - CORRECT ANSWER -Remains constant above baseline,

does not fluctuate

Rectal temperature is not taken from the following patients - CORRECT

ANSWER -Patients with heart disease

When taking axillary temperature how long should it be taken - CORRECT

ANSWER -5-10 mins or as required by office policy

Pulse is taken where and how long - CORRECT ANSWER -Radial for 30secs x2,

it tachy or brady take it for 1 minute

Explain blood pressure - CORRECT ANSWER -Measurement of amount of force

blood excretes on peripheral artery walls

BP cuffs too short and narrow can give a false reading of what? - CORRECT

ANSWER -Hypertension

If the brachial artery is far below the heart level the BP reading can be - CORRECT

ANSWER -Falsely high readings

While taking BP the deflation rate is - CORRECT ANSWER -2-3mm Hg

Taking BP hearing two consecutive beats gives which reading - CORRECT

ANSWER -Systolic

The disappearance point whilst taking BP is usually what? - CORRECT

ANSWER -A few mm Hg below the muffling point which marks the diastolic pressure

How long should the arm rest between re-inflating the cuff during BP taking -

CORRECT ANSWER -1-2 minutes

Repetitive inflation of BP cuff can result in - CORRECT ANSWER -Venous

congestion

Venous caused by repetitive inflation of BP can lead to - CORRECT ANSWER -

Artificially low systolic and high diastolic reading

Anthropometric measurements - CORRECT ANSWER -BMI and growth

development in infants, children, and adults

The four principals of physical examination - CORRECT ANSWER -Inspection,

palpation, percussion, auscultation The position used for most physical examinations, Pt. lays on back legs extended -

CORRECT ANSWER -Horizontal recumbent position

Patient laying on back with knees flexed, soles of feet on bed - CORRECT

ANSWER -Dorsal recumbent

This position is used to promote drainage or ease breathing - CORRECT

ANSWER -Fowler's

Prone position is used for - CORRECT ANSWER -Used to examine back and

spine Patient lays on his/her stomach with head turned to one side for comfort -

CORRECT ANSWER -Prone position

Patient is on left side with the right knee flexed against abdomen - CORRECT

ANSWER -Sim's Position

Patients with leg injuries or arthritis can not assume this position - CORRECT

ANSWER -Sim's

This position is usually used for rectal and vaginal examination - CORRECT

ANSWER -Knee Chest position is used for?

Never leave the patient alone in the room when he/she is in this position -

CORRECT ANSWER -Knee Chest

This position is used for surgical procedures for the pelvis and abdomen. Also used for

shock treatment - CORRECT ANSWER -Trendelenburg

If skin or eyes come in contact with chemicals wash area with water for? -

CORRECT ANSWER -5 minutes

MSDS - CORRECT ANSWER -Material Safety Data Sheet

Hyperkalemia - CORRECT ANSWER -Higher than normal levels potassium in

the blood

What are the symptoms of shock - CORRECT ANSWER -Pale cold clammy skin,

blank stare, rapid weak pulse, and fast shallow breathing

Syncope - CORRECT ANSWER -Sudden loss of conciseness

First aid for shock - CORRECT ANSWER -Open airway, call assistance, position

head lower, control bleeding if any, keep warm

Cycle of infection - CORRECT ANSWER -Agent > Portal exit > Mode o. t. >

Portal entry

Susceptible Host

2 methods of medical asepsis - CORRECT ANSWER -Standard and

transmission-based precautions

Modes of transmission are - CORRECT ANSWER -Contact (Direct, indirect),

droplets, airborne, common vehicle, and vector

What is the difference between droplet and airborne - CORRECT ANSWER -

Droplet is less than 3 feet, airborne more than 3 feet

Define medical asepsis - CORRECT ANSWER -Destruction of pathogenic

microorganisms after they leave the body What is the least expensive and most available disinfectant for surfaces -

CORRECT ANSWER -1:10 bleach solution

Boiling water in today's medical environment is limited to items that - CORRECT

ANSWER -Will not be used in invasive procedures, will not be interested inside the

body nor in sterile procedures

Define surgical asepsis - CORRECT ANSWER -All microbial life, pathogen, and

non pathogens are destroyed

What is used at 250-254f, 15 pounds of pressure for 20-40 minutes? - CORRECT

ANSWER -Autoclave

Used on instruments that easily corrode - CORRECT ANSWER -Dry heat

sterilization What is the most important means of preventing the spread of infections? -

CORRECT ANSWER -Handwashing

PPE includes - CORRECT ANSWER -Mask, goggles, face shields, respirator

What defines standard precautions - CORRECT ANSWER -All patients are

presumed to be infected with blood borne pathogens This is an infection control method designed to prevent direct contact with blood or other

body fluids - CORRECT ANSWER -Standard precautions

This replaces universal precautions and body substance isolation - CORRECT

ANSWER -Standard precautions

Don gloves, face shields if in danger of splashing, dispose all needles without recapping

into sharps container - CORRECT ANSWER -Standard precautions

This is the second tier of precautions when patient is contagious - CORRECT

ANSWER -Transmission based precautions

Define contact precautions - CORRECT ANSWER -Reducing the risk of

transmission of microorganisms direct or indirect

Special air handling and ventilation are required to prevent - CORRECT

ANSWER -Airborne diseases under airborne precautions

This is an emerging and important problem in the health care field - CORRECT

ANSWER -Latex sensitivity

Every health care worker with a latex allergy should wear this - CORRECT

ANSWER -Medical alert bracelet

po - CORRECT ANSWER -By mouth

pr - CORRECT ANSWER -By way of rectum/suppository

sl - CORRECT ANSWER -Sublingual

IM - CORRECT ANSWER -Intramuscular

SQ - CORRECT ANSWER -Subcutaneous

qd - CORRECT ANSWER -Every day

bid - CORRECT ANSWER -Twice a day

tid - CORRECT ANSWER -Three times a day

qid - CORRECT ANSWER -Four times a day

pc - CORRECT ANSWER -After a meal

qhs - CORRECT ANSWER -Each night or at bedtime

prn - CORRECT ANSWER -As necessary or when needed

sig - CORRECT ANSWER -From the latin, let it be labled

The innermost layer of the heart - CORRECT ANSWER -Endocardium

The sac containing the heart - CORRECT ANSWER -Pericardium

A muscular hollow organ located in the thoracic cavity between lungs - CORRECT

ANSWER -Epicardium

Serous fluid - CORRECT ANSWER -Prevents friction as the heart beats

Receives deoxygenated blood returning to the heart from the body - CORRECT

ANSWER -Right atrium

Receives deoxygenated blood from the right atrium which it pumps to the lungs through

the pulmonary artery - CORRECT ANSWER -Right ventricle

Receives oxygenated blood from the left atrium and pumps it to the body thru the aorta -

CORRECT ANSWER -Left ventricle

The AV valves - CORRECT ANSWER -Tricuspid and mitral (Bicuspid)

The semilunar - CORRECT ANSWER -Aortic and pulmonic

Valve located between the right ventricle and pulmonary trunk - CORRECT

ANSWER -Pulmonic valve

Valve located between the left atrium and the left ventricle - CORRECT

ANSWER -Mitral or bicuspid

Heart sounds produced by closure of the valves - CORRECT ANSWER -

Murmurs

Caused by diseases of the valves or other structural abnormalities - CORRECT

ANSWER -Murmurs

First heart sound due to the closure of the mitral and tricuspid valves - CORRECT

ANSWER -S1 in the upper chambers or atria

S2 in the ventricles - CORRECT ANSWER -Second heart sound due to the

closure of the aortic and pulmonic valves

Arteries supplying the heart - CORRECT ANSWER -Right and left coronary from

the aorta

The ANS or autonomic nervous system is subdivided into - CORRECT

ANSWER -Sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system

The SP or sympathetic nervous system affects - CORRECT ANSWER -Both, the

atria and the ventricles by increasing heart rate, conduction and irritability

The PNS or parasympathetic nervous system affects - CORRECT ANSWER -

Atria only by decreasing heart rate, conduction and irritability

Automaticity - CORRECT ANSWER -Ability of the cardiac cells to initiate own

electrical impulses without outside stimulation

Excitability or irritability - CORRECT ANSWER -Ability of cardiac cells to respond

to external stimulus

Contractibility - CORRECT ANSWER -Ability of cardiac cells to shorten (Muscles

contraction) in response to electrical stimulus

Digitalis, dopamine, epinephrine - CORRECT ANSWER -Drugs that increase the

contractility of the heart

Depolarization flows from - CORRECT ANSWER -Endocardium to the

myocardium to the epicardium

Results in myocardial relaxation - CORRECT ANSWER -Repolarization

Found in the upper posterior portion of the right atrial wall below the vena cava opening

• CORRECT ANSWER -SA node Consists of anterior, middle and posterior divisions that distribute electrical impulses by

SA to Av node - CORRECT ANSWER -Internodal pathway

Located at the posterior septal wall of the right atrium just above the tricuspid valve -

CORRECT ANSWER -AV node

Found at the superior portion of the inter ventricular septum, pathway that leads out of

the SA node - CORRECT ANSWER -Bundle of HIS

Located within the ventricular endocardium, consists of small conduction fibers -

CORRECT ANSWER -Purkinjie fibers

This fires at 20-40 beats per minute - CORRECT ANSWER -Purkinjie fibers

This has a 1/10th of a delay to allow blood to flow from atria to ventricles -

CORRECT ANSWER -AV node

Has an intrinsic firing rate of 40-60bpm - CORRECT ANSWER -Bundle of HIS

Normal firing rate of 60-100bpm and is the primary pacemaker of the heart -

CORRECT ANSWER -SA node

Acts a pacemaker when higher level pacemakers fail - CORRECT ANSWER -

Purkinjie fibers

Limb leads consist of - CORRECT ANSWER -3 bipolar and 3 augmented leads

These record electrical potentials in the frontal place - CORRECT ANSWER -The

limb leads

T wave - CORRECT ANSWER -Deflection produced by ventricular repolarization

U wave - CORRECT ANSWER -Deflection seen following by ventricular

repolarization

What is the PR interval and how long? - CORRECT ANSWER -P wave plus a

segment, 0.12-0-2 sec

QRS interval, how long? - CORRECT ANSWER -No more than 1 sec in limb

leads and 0.11 in precordial leads

PR segment - CORRECT ANSWER -Line from the end of the P wave to the

onset of the QRS complex

J (RST) junction - CORRECT ANSWER -Point at which ORS complex end and

the ST segment begins

ST segment - CORRECT ANSWER -From the J joint to the onset of the T wave

The target heart rate for a stress test - CORRECT ANSWER -

The percentage of the target heart rate during a stress test that makes it valid -

CORRECT ANSWER -85%

Normal indication for a stress test - CORRECT ANSWER -Evaluation of a patient

with chest pain and a normal EKG, arrhythmia, monitoring a PT. with a recent MI

Hematocrit is made up of - CORRECT ANSWER -Hemoglobin X 3

Define Hematocrit - CORRECT ANSWER -The percentage by volume of packed

red blood cells in a given sample of blood after centrifugation.

Opposite of anemia - CORRECT ANSWER -Polycythemia

Drugs used for a pharmacologic stress test, it is concluded when - CORRECT

ANSWER -85% of the target rate is achieved

When taking a pharmacologic stress, it is concluded when - CORRECT

ANSWER -85% of the target rate is achieved

Ectopic rhythms - CORRECT ANSWER -Electrical impulses originating from

somewhere else but the SA node

Pre-Excitation syndrome - CORRECT ANSWER -Electrical impulses of the heart

bypass the normal pathway and instead go down an accessory shortcut

Conduction block - CORRECT ANSWER -Electrical impulses of the heart bypass

the normal pathway and instead go down an accessory shortcut

Indication for termination of a stress test - CORRECT ANSWER -SOB, chest

pain, dizziness, blood pressure abnormalities

Ischemia - CORRECT ANSWER -Decrease in amount of blood flow

What is the hallmark of infraction - CORRECT ANSWER -The presence of

abnormal Q waves

When is a Q wave (Hallmark of infraction) considered abnormal - CORRECT

ANSWER ->1mm (0.04 sec) wide and the height is greater than 25% of the height of

the R wave in that lead

The WHO criteria for the diagnosis of MI (At least two of them) - CORRECT

ANSWER -Clinical history of ischemic-type chest comfort, changes on serial EKG

tracings, and the rise and fall of serum cardiac markers

List some cardiac markers - CORRECT ANSWER -Triponin, CK, LDH, SGOT,

AST

What is a negative holter? - CORRECT ANSWER -A negative holter will have no

significant arrhythmias or ST changes

How long is a holter monitor worn - CORRECT ANSWER -24 hours or longer

Why is a holter monitor done? - CORRECT ANSWER -To rule out arrhythmias or

ischemia

How many electrodes are on a holter monitor? - CORRECT ANSWER -

A positive holter is one that recorded at least one or more of these abnormalities -

CORRECT ANSWER -Tachy, bradycardia, ST segment elevation or depression,

and pauses

When is the event monitor used? - CORRECT ANSWER -Only when symptoms

occur

List drugs given for acute MI - CORRECT ANSWER -Oxygen, epinephrine,

isoproterenol, dopamine (Intropin), beta blocker (olol) lidocaine, verapamil, digitalis, morphine, and nitroglycerin What is a powerful smooth muscle relaxant with the side effect of headache -

CORRECT ANSWER -Nitroglycerin patch or sl

Digitalis does - CORRECT ANSWER -increases the force of cardiac contractions

as well as cardiac output, toxicity in 20% of patients

Butterfly - CORRECT ANSWER -Winged infusion set

What is the most important task of a phlebotomist - CORRECT ANSWER -Check

patient ID

With the bevel upward insert the needle at which angle - CORRECT ANSWER -

15-30 degrees

Prandial - CORRECT ANSWER -Fasting

What is important to do first after dermal puncture? - CORRECT ANSWER -Wipe

away the first drop

Timed specimens - CORRECT ANSWER -Hormone levels, blood levels of

medications, monitor Pt. condition e.g. hemoglobin level (Internal bleeding)

The BP cuff inflation for a bleeding time test - CORRECT ANSWER -40mm Hg

Trough levels are collected - CORRECT ANSWER -30 minutes before the

scheduled dose

Indication for blood cultures - CORRECT ANSWER -FUO indication the

presence of pathogenic microorganisms in the blood (Septicemia)

While administering a OGTT it is important to take with each sample? - CORRECT

ANSWER -Urine sample

When are OGTT scheduled to begin? - CORRECT ANSWER -7-9am

The two hour postprandial test is used for? - CORRECT ANSWER -Evaluation of

diabetes mellitus

The OGTT is used for? - CORRECT ANSWER -Diagnosing diabetes

The 3 hour OGTT is used for? - CORRECT ANSWER -To test for hyperglycemia

The 5 hour OGTT is used for? - CORRECT ANSWER -To test for hypoglycemia,

for disorders of carbohydrate metabolism

PKU - CORRECT ANSWER -Test for babies and to detect phenylketonuria, a

genetic disease that can cause mental retardation and brain damage

Cold agglutinins - CORRECT ANSWER -Antibodies produced in response to

atypical pneumonia, must be kept at 37 C

ABG, ammonia, lactic acid, pyruvate, parathyroid test handling - CORRECT

ANSWER -Chilled in crushed ice and water mixture

Bili - CORRECT ANSWER -Bile

Light sensitive specimens - CORRECT ANSWER -Bilirubin, beta-carotine,

vitamin A, vitamin B6, and porphyrins (In urine it's the fingerprint for toxicity)

Which blood test can NOT be done using dermal puncture - CORRECT

ANSWER -ESR, BC

You have a right to caring staff who believe your reports of pain - CORRECT

ANSWER -Apical pulse

Normal reparation range and how long it is taken - CORRECT ANSWER -12-20

for 30 sec x2

Orthopnea - CORRECT ANSWER -Difficulty breathing when laying flat

Define Cheyne-Stokes - CORRECT ANSWER -Regular pattern of irregular

breathing and breathing rate

Hypoventilation - CORRECT ANSWER -State in with a reduced amount of air

enters the lungs resulting in decreased oxygen and increased carbon dioxide levels in the blood

Medical assistant role in physical examination - CORRECT ANSWER -Room

prep, patient prep, assisting the doctor

Hazards - CORRECT ANSWER -Physical, chemical, biological

The technique is not permitted in the lab - CORRECT ANSWER -Never draw

from a pipette by mouth

Expressionless face and staring eyes are indications - CORRECT ANSWER -

Shock

Agents are - CORRECT ANSWER -Any infective microorganisms, viruses, fungi,

bacteria, and parasites

Define a common vehicle - CORRECT ANSWER -Water, food, drinking from the

same glass, kissing

Define susceptible host - CORRECT ANSWER -Infectious agent enter a person

who is not resistant or immune

In pulmonary trunk the arteries carry this kind of blood - CORRECT ANSWER -

Deoxygenated blood

During depolarization the electrical impulses flow - CORRECT ANSWER -From

the endocardium to the myocardium to the epicardium

During repolarization the electrical impulses flow from... - CORRECT ANSWER -

The epicardium to the endocardium

What fires at 40-60bpm - CORRECT ANSWER -AV junction, bundle of HIS

Which are unipolar leads? - CORRECT ANSWER -aVR, aVL, and aVF

0.1mV on EKG paper measures - CORRECT ANSWER -1mm

On the vertical axis 1 large square equals what? - CORRECT ANSWER -5mm

(0.5V)

On the horizontal axis 5 large squares equal - CORRECT ANSWER -1 second

Which test is used to evaluate primary hemostasis? - CORRECT ANSWER -

Bleeding time test

How long is the lifespan of a platelet? - CORRECT ANSWER -9-12

When the vaccutainer method can not be used you would use - CORRECT

ANSWER -10-20mL syringes

Which tube must be filled completely? - CORRECT ANSWER -Light blue sodium

citrate tube, to maintain a ratio of 9:1