Medical Coding 300+ questions with answers to study ICD-10 coding, Exams of Nursing

Download Medical Coding 300+ questions with answers to study ICD-10 coding and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! Medical Coding 300+ questions with answers to study ICD-10 coding Coding is - correct answer the process of translating this written or dictated medical record into a series of numeric or alpha-numeric codes Proper code assignment is determined by - correct answer content of the medical record and by the unique rules that governs each code set What are 3 things that Coder must master - correct answer 1. anatomy 2. medical terminology 3. must be detail-oriented Medical coders assign a code to what - correct answer 1. Each diagnosis 2. Service/procedure 3. Supply, using the classification system when applicable The classification system determines ______ - correct answer the amount health care providers will be reimbursed if the patient is covered by Medicare, Medicaid, or other insurance programs using the system A coder must evaluate the medical record for - correct answer 1. completeness and accuracy 2. communicate regularly with physicians and the health care professional to clarify DX or obtain additional PT info. Techicians who speciallize in coding inpatient hospital services are referred as - correct answer 1. Health information coders 2. medical record coders 3. Coder/abstractors 4. Coding Specialist What is MS-DRGs and what does it do? - correct answer 1. Medicare Severity-Diagnosis Related Groups 2. Determines the amt the hospital will be reimbursed if the PT is covered by Medicare or other insurance programs What is EHR - correct answer Electronic health record Skilled coders may become - correct answer consulatants, educators or medical auditors What is the difference between Hospital and Physican Services - correct answer 1. Outpatient coding (physician services)- learning CPT, HCPCS, LEVEL II, ICD-9 CM codes Volume 1 and 2 Medical Coding 300+ questions with answers to study ICD-10 coding 2. Inpatient coding (Hospital services)- Learning CPT, ICD-9 CM codes Volumes 1,2,3 and MS- DRGS What is APC and who uses it - correct answer Ambulatory Payment Classification- outpatient facility coders (physician services What is the coder's role in a physician's office - correct answer Extremely important for the proper reimbursement of services and the livelihood of the physician What is a physican degree of education - correct answer 4 years of college, 4 years of medical school plus 3 to 5 years of residency. What are mid-level providers and who can be classified as one? - correct answer 1. Mid-level providers are know as physician extenders 2. Physician assistants (PA) and Nurse Practitioners (NP) What are the requirement for a PA and what - correct answer 1. 26 1/2 month program to complete 2. Licensed to practice medicine under physician supervision NP must have - correct answer A Master's Degree in Nursing In simplest terms, how many payers are there? - correct answer 2 Private insurance plans and government insurance plans Commercial carriers are considered what - correct answer Private payers that offer both group and individual plans. Private Payers contracts may vary but may include _____ - correct answer hospitalization, basic, and major medical coverage. What is the most significant government insurer - correct answer Medicare What is Medicare - correct answer Federal health insurance program- Administered by the Center for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS) What is CMS and what does it provide - correct answer Center for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS) provides coverage for people over the age of 65, blind, or disabled individuals, people with end -stage renal disease CMS regulations often serves as the____ word in coding requirement for Medicare and Non- Medicare payers alike - correct answer Last What are the parts of Medicare - correct answer Medicare A Medicare B Medical Coding 300+ questions with answers to study ICD-10 coding What is the definition of O in SOAP? - correct answer objective-The provider assesses and documents the patient's illness using observation, palpation, auscultation and percussion. Test and other services performed may be documented here as well What is the definition of A in SOAP? - correct answer Assessment-Evaluation and conclusion made by the provider. This is usually where the diagnosis(es) for the services are found What is the definition of P in SOAP? - correct answer Plan-Course of Action. Here, the provider will list eh next steps for the patient, whether it is ordering additional test, or taking over the counter medication What is a operative report - correct answer a document the detail of a procedure performed on a patient What will most operative notes have - correct answer Header and Body what are some of things that operative header note might include? - correct answer 1. Date and time of procedure 2. Name of surgeon, co-surgeon, assistant surgeon 3. Typer of anethesia and anestheiology provider name 4. Pre-operative and post-operative diagnoses 5. Procedures performed 6. Complications What are some of things that operative body note might include? - correct answer 1. indication for surgery 2. details of the procedure (s) 3. Findings What is the approximate percentage of an operative report that contains words less important to a coder? - correct answer 20 % What is the task for a coder with an operative report? - correct answer to break down the information and applying the correct code. What are the 5 most important Coding Tips for operative reports for a coders - correct answer 1. Diagnosis code reporting 2. Start with the procedures listed 3. Look for key words 4. Highlight unfamiliar words Medical Coding 300+ questions with answers to study ICD-10 coding 5. Read the body What does the first coding tip mean for the operative report for a coder ? - correct answer Diagnosis code reporting- Use the post-operative diagnosis for coding unless there are further defined diagnoses or additional diagnoses found in the body or finding of the operative report. What does the second coding tip mean for the operative report for a coder? - correct answer Start with the procedures listed- For the coder who is new to coding a procedure , one way of quickly starting the research process is by focusing on the procedures listed in the header. Read the note in its entirety to verify the procedures performed. Procedures listed in the header may not be listed correctly and procedures documented with the body of the report may not be listed in the header at all. It will help a coder with a place to start What does the third coding tip mean for the operative report for a coder? - correct answer Look for key words- Key words may include locations ana anatomical structures involved, surgicial approach, procedure method, procedure type, siiz and number and the surgical instruments used during the procedure What does the fourth coding tip mean for the operative report for a coder? - correct answer Highlight unfamiliar words- Words you are not familiar with should be highlighted and researched for understanding What does the fifth coding tip mean for the operative report for a coder? - correct answer Ready the body- All procedures reported should be documented with the body of the report. The body may indicate a procedure was abandoned or complicated, possibly indicating the need for a different procedure code or reporting of a modifier What is medical necessity related to? - correct answer whether a procedure or service is considered appropriate in a given circumstance Generally what is a medically-necessary service? - correct answer the least radical service/procedure that allows for effective treatment of the patient's complaint or condition Under what regulations is medically necessity found under - correct answer Title XVIII 1862 (a) (1) of the Social Security Act What is the National Coverage Determinations Manual - correct answer Describes whether specific medical items, services, treatment procedures or technologies can be paid under Medicare What is the difference between Covered and Non-covered items - correct answer 1. Covered items-services and procedures are covered only when linked to designated, approved diagnosis 2. Non-covered items are deemed "not reasonable or necessary Medical Coding 300+ questions with answers to study ICD-10 coding Medicare and many insurance plan may deny payment for a service that is - correct answer not reasonable or necessary according to the Medicare reimbursement rules. What is NCD and what does it do? - correct answer 1. National Coverage Determinations 2. Explains when Medicare will pay for items or services What is LCD and What does it provide? - correct answer 1. Local Coverage Determinations 2. MAC is responsible for interpreting national policies into regional policies. The LCDs further define what codes are needed and when an item or service will be covered . LCD have jurisdiction only with their regional area What is MAC? - correct answer Medical Administrative Contractor If a NCD does not exist what are CMS guidelines? - correct answer Where coverage of an item or service is provided for specified indications or circumstances but is not explicitly excluded for others, or where the item or service is not mentioned at all in the CMS Manual System, the Medicare contractor is to make the coverage decision, in consultation with its medical staff and with CMS when appropriate, based on the laws, regulations, ruling and general program instructions. How often should Practices check policies to maintain compliance? - correct answer Quarterly What does ABN stand for - correct answer Advance Beneficiary Notice of Noncoverage, or Advance Beneficiary Notice What is an ABN? - correct answer A standardized form that explains to the patient why medicare may deny a particular service or procedure. What does ABN protect? - correct answer The provider's financial interest by creating a paper trail that CMS requires before a provider can bill the patient for payment if Medicare denies coverage for the stated service or procedure What must the provider complete (in regards to ABN)? - correct answer 1. Complete one-page form in full 2. giving the patient an explanation as to why Medicare is likely to refuse coverage for proposed procedure or service What are some of the common reasons why Medicare may deny a procedure and service? - correct answer 1. Medicare does not pay for the procedure/service for the patient's condition 2. Medicare does not pay for the procedure/service as frequently as proposed 3. Medicare does not pay for experimental procedure/services Medical Coding 300+ questions with answers to study ICD-10 coding 7. Other similar insurance coverage, specified in regulation, under which benefits for medical care are secondary or incidental to other insurance benefits What is included in the Health care clearinghouse covered entity? - correct answer Entities that process nonstandard health information they receive from another entity into standard format or vice versa Why is there a need for National Standard for Electronic Health care transaction and code set? - correct answer According to CMS " transactions are electronic excahanges involving transfer of information between two parties for a specific purpose. National standards for electronic health care transaction are designeed to improve the effciency and effectiveness of the health care system by standardizing the formats used for electronic transactions. What transactions are used in National Standard for Electronic care transaction and code set - correct answer 1. Health claims and equivalent encounter information 2. Enrollment and disenrollment in a health plan 3. Eligibility for a health plan 4. Health care payment and remittance advice 5. Health plan premium payments 6. Health claim status 7. Referral certification and authorization 8. Coordination of benefits Which ode sets within the transactions have been designated for standard use? - correct answer 1. HCPCS 2. CPT 3. CDT 4. ICD-9-CM 5. NDC What does the acronym HCPCS stand for - correct answer Healthcare Common Procedure Coding System What does the acronym CPT stand for? - correct answer Current Procedural Terminology What does the acronym CDT stand for? - correct answer Common Dental Terminology When will ICD-10-CM be effective? - correct answer October 1, 2013 Medical Coding 300+ questions with answers to study ICD-10 coding What does the acronym NDC stand for? - correct answer National Drug codes What does the acronym NPI stand for and who uses it? - correct answer 1. National Provider Indentifier 2. indentifier for providers required on the transactions What does the acronym EIN and who uses it? - correct answer 1. Employer Indentification Number 2. Issued to employers by the Internal Revenue Services (IRS) Who enforces the HIPAA privacy rule? - correct answer OCR (Office of Civil Rights) What does the acronym OCR stand for? - correct answer Office of Civil Rights What does the OCR do? - correct answer Protects the privacy of individually identifiable health information; HIPAA Security Rule Patient Safety Rule What is the HIPAA Security Rule according to the OCR? - correct answer Sets national standards for the security of electronic protected health information and the confidentiality provision of the patient Safety Rule What is the Patient Safety Rule according to the OCR? - correct answer Protects identifiable information being used to analyze patient safety events and improve patient safety What is the acronym PHI stand for? - correct answer Protected health information What does acronym TPO stand for? - correct answer Treatment Payment and Health Care Operations When and who can a covered entity disclose health information to? - correct answer 1. A covered entity may use or disclose protected health information for its own treatment,payment or health care operations 2. A covered entity may disclose protected health information for treatment activities of a health care provider 3. A covered entity may disclose protected health information to another covered entity or a health care provider for the payment activities of the entity that receives the information 4 A covered entity may disclose to another covered entity for health care operation activities of the entity that receives the information, if each entity either has or had a relationship with the individual who is the subject of the protected health information Medical Coding 300+ questions with answers to study ICD-10 coding 5. A covered entity that participates in an organized health care arrangement may disclose protected health information about an individual to another covered entity that participates in the organized health care arrangement for any health care operations activities of the organized health care arrangement What is the HIPAA minimum necessary requirement? - correct answer The minimum necessary protected health information should be provided to satisfy a particular purpose. if the information is not required to satisfy a particular purpose, it must be withheld. Under the Privacy rule the minimum necessary standards does not apply to the following________ - correct answer 1. Disclosures to or requests by a health care provider for treatment of purposes 2. Disclosures to the individual who is the subject of the information 3. Uses or disclosures made pursuant to an individual's authorization 4. Uses or disclosures required for compliance with the HIPAA Administrative Simplification Rules 5. Disclosures to the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services when disclosure of the information is required under the Privacy Rule for enforcement purposes 6. Uses or disclosures that are required by other laws What does the acronym HITECH stand for? - correct answer Health Information Technology for Economic and Clinical Health Act What does the acronym ARRA stand for? - correct answer American Recovery and Reinvestment Act of 2009 HITECH was enacted as part of what? - correct answer American Recovery and Reinvestment Act of 2009 (ARRA) What does ARRA and HITECH promote? - correct answer The adoption and meaningful use of health information technology Portions of HITECH strengthen HIPAA rules by_______ - correct answer addressing the privacy and security concerns assoicated with the electronic transmission of health information HITECH has how many categories of violation - correct answer Four What do the categories of ARRA depend on? - correct answer The covered entity's level of culpability for releasing protected information and minimum and maximum penalties. HITECH lowers ________ for what constitutes a violation but provides ________ during which any violation not due to willful neglect may be corrected without a penalty. - correct answer 1. Lowers the Bar Medical Coding 300+ questions with answers to study ICD-10 coding 2. Latin word subfigure What are some of the common suffixes for diseases and meaning? - correct answer 1. -itis- inflammation 2. -oma-tumor 3. -pathy- disease of identify the following suffix :-gram - correct answer a record of data identify the following suffix: -graph - correct answer instrument for recording data identify the following suffix: -graphy - correct answer act of recording data Identify the following suffix: -meter - correct answer Instrument of measuring Identify the following suffix: -scope - correct answer instrument for viewing or examining identify the following suffix: -scopy - correct answer examination of identify the following suffix: -centesis - correct answer puncture, tap identify the following suffix: -desis - correct answer binding, fusion identify the following suffix: -ectomy - correct answer excision, surgical removal identify the following suffix: -pexy - correct answer surgical fixation identify the following suffix: -plasty - correct answer plastic repair, plastic surgery, reconstruction identify the following suffix: -rraphy - correct answer surgical repair, suture identify the following suffix: -stomy - correct answer surgical creation of an opening identify the following suffix: -tome - correct answer Instrument for incising (cutting) identify the following suffix: -tomy - correct answer incision, cutting Identify the following suffix: - tripsy - correct answer crushing What is the standard body position and what is it? - correct answer 1. anatomical position 2. an upright, face-forward position with the arms by the side and palms facing forward. The feet are parallel and slightly apart What does Anterior or Ventral mean? - correct answer toward the front of the body What does Posterior or Dorsal mean? - correct answer toward the back of the body What does Medial mean? - correct answer Towards the mid line of the body Medical Coding 300+ questions with answers to study ICD-10 coding What does Lateral mean? - correct answer Toward the side of the body What does Proximal mean? - correct answer nearer to the point of attachment or to the given reference point what does Distal mean? - correct answer farther from the point of attachment or from a given reference point What does Superior (cranial) mean? - correct answer above; toward the head What does Inferior (caudal) mean? - correct answer below; toward the lower end of the spine what does Superficial (external)? - correct answer Closer to the surface of the body What does Deep (internal)? - correct answer Closer to the center of the body What does Sagittal plane mean? - correct answer cuts through the mid line of the body from the front to back and divides the body into right and left sections What does Frontal (coronal) plane mean? - correct answer cuts at a right angle to the mid line cut , from side to side and divides the body into front (anterior) and Back (posterior) sections What does Transverse (horizontal) plane mean? - correct answer cuts horizontally through the body and separates the body into upper (superior) and lower (inferior) sections The structure of the human body falls into how many categories? - correct answer 4 What are the categories of the human body? - correct answer 1. Cells 2. Tissues 3. Organs 4. Systems What is a cell? - correct answer A basic unit of all living things What are 4 components of a cell and what do they do? - correct answer 1. cell membrane- forms the boundary of the cell 2. cytoplasm- make up the body of the cell 3. Nucleus- the small, round structure in the center of the cell 4. Chromosomes- located in the nucleus of the cell; they contain genes determining hereditary characteristics What are 4 types of tissue and what do they do? - correct answer 1. Muscle tissue- produces movement 2. Nerve tissue- conducts impulses to and from the brain Medical Coding 300+ questions with answers to study ICD-10 coding 3. Connective tissue - connects and supports various body structures: Adipose (fat) and osseous (bone) 4. Epithelial tissue- found in the skin, lining of the blood vessels, respiratory, intestinal, urinary tracts, and other body systems What are organs? - correct answer two or more kinds of tissue together performing special body functions What are systems? - correct answer a group of organs working together to perform a complex body function What is cytology? - correct answer Study of cells including the formation, structure and function of cells What does the acronym RNA mean and what does it do? - correct answer 1. Ribonucleic acid 2. Contained within the nucleus, is transcribed from DNA by enzymes and plays a crucial role in protein synthesis What is a gene? - correct answer Specific segment of base pairs in chromosomes; functional unit of heredity What is mitosis? - correct answer Cells divide and multiply to form two cells How many cavities does the body have? - correct answer 5 What are the 5 types of body cavities and what is in the space? - correct answer 1. cranial cavity- inside the skull, or cranium, containing the brain 2. Spinal (Vertebral canal)- inside the spinal column containing the spinal cord 3. Thoracic or chest cavity- the space containing the heart, lungs, esophagus, trachea, bronchi, and thymus 4. Abdominal cavity- the space containing the lower portion of the esophagus, the stomach, intestines (excluding the sigmoid colon and rectum) kidneys, liver, gallbladder, pancreas, spleen and ureters 5. Pelvic cavity- the space containing the urinary bladder, certain reproductive organs, part of the large intestine, and the rectum How many types of membranes are there in the human body? - correct answer 5 What are 5 types of membranes in the human body? - correct answer 1. Mucous Membrane 2. Serous Membrane 3. Synovial Membrane Medical Coding 300+ questions with answers to study ICD-10 coding What is stratum Granulosum composed of? - correct answer It is composed of granular layer of cells What are 2 types of Granules? - correct answer 1. Keratohyaline granules 2. lamellated granules What is stratum spinosum composed of? - correct answer It is composed of prickle cells What is stratum basale composed of? - correct answer Composed of the deepest of the 5 layers, made of basal cells Where is the dermis located? - correct answer It is located under the epidermis. What are the 2 layers of strata of the dermis - correct answer 1. Stratum Papillare 2. Stratum Reticulare What is stratum papillare composed of? - correct answer It is composed of a thin superficial layer interlocked with epidermis What is the stratum reticulare composed of? - correct answer It is composed of a thick layer of dense, irregular connective tissue The dermis contains many important structures nourishing and innervating the skin, what are they? - correct answer 1. Vessels carrying blood and lymph 2. Nerves and nerve endings 3. Glands 4. Hair follicles What lies underneath the dermis? - correct answer subcutaneous layer What is another name for subcutaneous layer? - correct answer hypodermis The subcutaneous layer is not considered ______ - correct answer a layer of skin. Subcutaneous tissue is mostly composed of __________ - correct answer fatty or adipose tissue plus some areolar tissue What is areolar tissue? - correct answer loose connective tissue consisting of a meshwork of collagen, elastic tissue and reticular fibers. The hypodermis serves to _________ - correct answer 1. protect the underlying structures 2. prevent the loss of body heat 3. anchor the skin to the underlying musculature Medical Coding 300+ questions with answers to study ICD-10 coding What is the fibrous connective tissue that is included in the hypodermis? - correct answer superficial fascia Define cutaneous - correct answer Pertaining to the skin Define dermatology - correct answer the study of the skin Define dermatologist - correct answer Physician specializing in diseases of the skin and subcutaneous tissue Define decubitus - correct answer Pressure ulcer/bedsore Define ecchymosis - correct answer Condition in which blood seeps into the skin causing discoloration Define hypodermic - correct answer Pertaining to under the skin Define intradermal - correct answer Pertaining to within the skin Define jaundice - correct answer Yellowness of skin Define melanin - correct answer Pigment giving color to the skin Define melanoma - correct answer Pigmented tumor of the skin Define pediculosis - correct answer Infestation with lice Define subcutaneous - correct answer Pertaining to below the skin Define tinea - correct answer Ringworm; a fungal infection of the skin By which week does a developing fetus have its lifetime supply of hair follicles? - correct answer By 22 weeks On average a human body has how many follicles - correct answer 5 million follicles Where is greatest concentration of hair follicles? - correct answer head Hair on the scalp grows approximately how much per day and per year - correct answer 1) .3 to .4 mm/day 2) @ 6 inches per year What are 2 structures of hair? - correct answer 1. follicle 2. shaft The shaft is composed of keratin in what 3 layers? - correct answer 1. medulla 2 cortex 3. cuticle Medical Coding 300+ questions with answers to study ICD-10 coding Pigment cells are in what layer of the shaft? - correct answer The cortex What layer gives hair its charactertistic color? - correct answer The medulla What is a fingernail made of? - correct answer keratin What is the purpose of keratin on the fingernail? - correct answer 1. protective plate 2. counterforce to the finger tip to increase sensory input of touch Nails grow all the time but the rate of growth slow with _____ - correct answer Age and poor circulation Fingernails grow at an approximate rate of _______ - correct answer of 3mm per month Toenails grow at an approximate rate of _______ - correct answer 1 mm per month What are the 6 specific parts of the nail? - correct answer 1. root 2. nail bed 3. nail plate 4. eponychium (cuticle) 5. perionychium 6. hyponychium The root lies beneath the skin behind the fingernail and extends several millimeters into the finger and is also known as________ - correct answer germinal matrix The root produces what of the nail? - correct answer It produces most of the volume of the nail. What is the nail, the nail bed, and its edges called? - correct answer It is called the lunula What is another name for the nail bed? - correct answer It is the sterile matrix Where does the nail bed extend to? - correct answer It extends to the edge of the lunula to the hyponychium What does the nail bed contain? - correct answer 1. Blood vessels 2. Nerves 3. Melanocytes (melanin-producing cells) Define alopecia - correct answer Loss of hair Define follicles - correct answer Specialized structures required for hair growth Medical Coding 300+ questions with answers to study ICD-10 coding What does the appendicular skeleton consist of - correct answer It consistes of the shoulder girdle, pelvic girdle, extremities Define closed fracture - correct answer A fracture that does not involve a break in the skin. Define compound fracture - correct answer A fracture that projects through the skin increasing th possibility of infection Define comminuted fracture - correct answer A fracture shattered into bony fragments Define transverse fracture - correct answer A fracture that breaks the shaft of a bone across the longitudinal axis Define greenstick fracture - correct answer A fracture where only one side of the shaft is broken, and the other is bent. Common in children Define spiral fracture - correct answer A fracture spread along the length of a bone and produced by twisting stress Define Colles' fracture - correct answer A fracture of the distal radius in the forearm with dorsal (posterior) displacement of the wrist and hand Define compression fracture - correct answer It is a collapse of a vertebra. It may be due trauma, tumor or osteoporosis Define epiphyseal fracture - correct answer It iss a fracture at one of the ends of a long bone that involves the bone's growth plate What are 3 types of muscles found in the body - correct answer 1. Skeletal Muscle 2. Cardiac Muscle 3. Smooth Muscle What is skeletal muscle? - correct answer Also called striated muscle, it is attached to the skeleton by tendons; contraction of skeletal muscle is under voluntary control What is cardiac muscle? - correct answer Also called heart muscle, it contains interlocking involuntary striated muscles as well as smooth muscle, which allow the electrical impulses to pass quickly across the muscle fibers What is smooth muscle? - correct answer Found in the walls of all the hollow organs of the body except the heart. Its condtraction reduces the size of these structures; movement generally is considered involunatry Define ankylosis - correct answer Condition of stiffening of joint Define arthralgia - correct answer pain in joint Medical Coding 300+ questions with answers to study ICD-10 coding Define arthritis - correct answer inflammation of joint Define arthrodesis - correct answer It is the surgical fixation of a joint Define arthropathy - correct answer joint disease Define bursitis - correct answer Inflammation of bursa Define carpal - correct answer Petaining to the wrist bones Define chondral - correct answer Pertaining to cartilage Define chondralgia - correct answer Pain around and in the cartilage Define coccygeal - correct answer Pertaining to coccyx Define connective tissue - correct answer Tissue connecting or binding together Define dactylic - correct answer Pertaining to finger or toe Define femoral - correct answer Pertaining to femur or thigh bone Define iliac - correct answer Pertaining to the ilium Define kyphosis - correct answer abnormal curvature of thoracic spine (humpback) Define lordosis - correct answer Abnormal anterior curvature of spine usually lumbar Define metacarpal - correct answer They are the bones of the hand Define osteoblast - correct answer It is a bone-forming cell Define osteocarcinoma - correct answer It is a cancerous tumor of bone Define osteochondritis - correct answer Inflammation of bone and cartilage Define osteopenia - correct answer It is a lower than average bone density, can be a precursor to osteporosis Define osteoporosis - correct answer A disease of bones that leads to reduced bone mass and an increased risk of fracture. Define osteorrhaphy - correct answer The surgical suturing or joining of fragments of broken bone, usually by wiring them together. Define Patellar - correct answer Pertaining to patella Define Phalangeal - correct answer Bones of fingers and toes Define Scoliosis - correct answer Lateral Curvature of spine Define Sternotomy - correct answer surgical incision of sternum Medical Coding 300+ questions with answers to study ICD-10 coding Define Tendonitis - correct answer Inflammation of tendon