Medical Office Procedures and Terminology, Exams of Nursing

Download Medical Office Procedures and Terminology and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! CPSS Study Guide Exam 433 Questions with Verified Answers What does an Excludes1 note mean in ICD-10? - CORRECT ANSWER The code excluded should never be used. What is used at the end of an ICD-10 diagnosis code to indicate additional digits are required? - CORRECT ANSWER Dashes When coding services for eyelids, and the condition affects all four eyelids, separate codes must be assigned for all four eyelids. - CORRECT ANSWER False In the Alphabetic Index, ______ are used to identify manifestation codes. - CORRECT ANSWER Brackets In ICD-10, what is meant by a "family" of codes? - CORRECT ANSWER Any 3- character category The term used in ICD-10 to represent a consequence of a previous disease or injury is: - CORRECT ANSWER Sequela. What is the maximum number of characters that an ICD-10 code can contain? - CORRECT ANSWER 7 When an Excludes2 note appears in ICD-10, it means: - CORRECT ANSWER The two codes can be reported together. In ICD-10, a placeholder ______ is used to allow for future expansion in codes that require seven digits. - CORRECT ANSWER "X" What was the biggest change in the structure of ICD-10 that did not exist in ICD-9 codes? - CORRECT ANSWER Laterality What agency is responsible for oversight and compliance of ICD-10? - CORRECT ANSWER Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services For ambulatory surgery coding, always select the diagnosis code from the preoperative diagnosis shown on the operative report. - CORRECT ANSWER False In ICD-10, the Diseases of Eye and Adnexa are included in Chapter _____. - CORRECT ANSWER 7 In ICD-10, the "A - Initial Encounter," "D - Subsequent Encounter," and "S - Sequela" are always shown as the _____ character. - CORRECT ANSWER 7th In ICD-10, the term "senile" cataract has been replaced with: - CORRECT ANSWER Age-related cataract . How is a glaucoma stage reported in ICD-10? - CORRECT ANSWER The stage must be identified by a seventh-character numeric code In ICD-10, diagnosis codes should be assigned based on the diagnosis shown in the fee slip. - CORRECT ANSWER False What group is responsible for creating and publishing the ICD-10 codes? - CORRECT ANSWER World Health Organization In ICD-10, the Tabular List is a list of: - CORRECT ANSWER Codes arranged in chronological order. The acronym "ICD" in ICD-10 stands for: - CORRECT ANSWER International Classification of Diseases In most cases, a patient's initial encounter with the practice is: - CORRECT ANSWER By telephone. Which of the following telephone techniques will help create a positive image for the practice? - CORRECT ANSWER Implementing a two-ring rule. Always make sure the phone is answered before the third ring. Acknowledging the caller by name. Minimizing customer hold time and frequently returning to reassure the caller that he/she has not been forgotten. In a penetrating injury to the eye: - CORRECT ANSWER Instruct the patient to leave the object in the eye. Complications of blunt trauma to the eye include all except: - CORRECT ANSWER Hyperopia All of the following can cause flashing lights, except: - CORRECT ANSWER Uveitis A "Droopy Eyelid" is not an emergency unless accompanied by: - CORRECT ANSWER Sudden vision loss. Diplopia. Pain. In a chemical splash injury, the first thing you should instruct the patient to do is: - CORRECT ANSWER . Immediately flush out the eye with water for 10-15 minutes. The following symptoms can be scheduled in the next available time slot except: - CORRECT ANSWER Pain The following are true of orbital cellulitis, except: - CORRECT ANSWER It is more common than preseptal cellulitis. If a patient complains of a headache, the following associated symptoms may indicate an emergency, except: - CORRECT ANSWER Long-standing diplopia Patients complaining of discharge from their eyes in combination with an upper respiratory infection require evaluation for: - CORRECT ANSWER Adenovirus Mucous discharge may represent all of the following except: - CORRECT ANSWER Viral infection. The most important condition to rule out in a case of painful lid swelling is: - CORRECT ANSWER Orbital cellulitis The following statements about double vision are true except: - CORRECT ANSWER Binocular diplopia presents only when a patient has one eye open. All of the following are examples of alkalis that can cause eye burns, except: - CORRECT ANSWER Battery Acid. The following is true of blepharospasm except: - CORRECT ANSWER . The patient can be considered legally blind due to eye damage in severe cases The following are all common causes of lid twitching except: - CORRECT ANSWER Hyperopia The posterior chamber is: - CORRECT ANSWER Behind the iris and in front of vitreous face. The eyeball consists of which of the following layers? - CORRECT ANSWER Fibrous layer,Vascular layer,Nerve layer The temporal fibers of the optic nerve do not cross, while nasal fibers do cross at the optic chiasm. - CORRECT ANSWER True The extraocular muscle that does NOT originate at the annulus of Zinn is the _____. - CORRECT ANSWER . Inferior oblique The structure of the eye that continues to grow throughout life is the _____. - CORRECT ANSWER Lens The aqueous humor exits the anterior chamber through the drainage structure located in the _____. - CORRECT ANSWER . Angle. Name the anatomical structure that gives shape and rigidity to the eyelid. - CORRECT ANSWER Tarsal plate The main depressor of the eyelids is: - CORRECT ANSWER Obicularis The Visual Pathway begins at the _____. - CORRECT ANSWER Retina The structure which does NOT make up transparent ocular media is the _____. - CORRECT ANSWER Iris. The area in the retina that represents the physiologic blind spot is: - CORRECT ANSWER Orbital floor Which of the following is NOT a layer of the cornea? - CORRECT ANSWER Broadman's area The cranial nerve responsible for AFFERENT pupillary reflex is: - CORRECT ANSWER CN II The vascular layer of the eye consists of the _____. - CORRECT ANSWER Ciliary body, Iris, Choroid. Accommodation and aqueous production are a function of the: - CORRECT ANSWER Ciliary Body The area susceptible to blunt trauma of the orbit is: - CORRECT ANSWER Orbital floor The primary lifting of the upper lid is performed by _____. - CORRECT ANSWER The levator muscle The junction between the cornea and sclera is the _____. - CORRECT ANSWER Limbus. The functions of the orbit are to provide protection, support, and attachment of the cranial nerves. - CORRECT ANSWER False Which of the following is hydrophobic? - CORRECT ANSWER Epithelium Which of the following statements are true? - CORRECT ANSWER The way you interact with others communicates your respect (or lack thereof) to them.Everyone who works in our office wants and deserves to have respect.a. The fewer interpersonal conflicts we have in our office, the more productive and happier we will be as a staff. You can say the same exact words and have two different meanings. what common household products is used to kill blood-borne pathogens - CORRECT ANSWER bleach covered entities under HIPAA include - CORRECT ANSWER health care professionals, health care facilities medicare will reimburse practices for refractions - CORRECT ANSWER false which of the following is most likely used to help monitor glaucoma - CORRECT ANSWER visual field devices used to correct refractive errors are - CORRECT ANSWER glasses and contacts lenses the number of exemption each employee claims on his/her w-4 form helps determine how much_is withheld from each paycheck - CORRECT ANSWER federal tax which of the following actions help to portray a positive image on the telephone - CORRECT ANSWER all of the above in most states, a nonexempt employee is eligible for overtime pay for hours worked in excess of 40hrs per week - CORRECT ANSWER true the following symptoms can be scheduled in the next available time slot except - CORRECT ANSWER pain a patient desiring to have a change in glasses whose only complaint is difficulty with near vision should be scheduled - CORRECT ANSWER next available appt a patient with complaints of blurred vision for about three months should be scheduled - CORRECT ANSWER next available appt which government department enforces medicare rules and regulations - CORRECT ANSWER centers for medicare and medicaid services od - CORRECT ANSWER right bid - CORRECT ANSWER twice a day ha - CORRECT ANSWER headache QID - CORRECT ANSWER four times a day qd - CORRECT ANSWER once a day qhs - CORRECT ANSWER at night Pt - CORRECT ANSWER patient os - CORRECT ANSWER left eye R/O - CORRECT ANSWER rule out ou - CORRECT ANSWER both eyes an eye care professional licensed to fabricate and dispense eye glasses is an - CORRECT ANSWER optician a routine eye exam is likely to be covered under major medical insurance - CORRECT ANSWER false the world meaning to enlarge or cause to expand is - CORRECT ANSWER dilate the word meaning currently happening - CORRECT ANSWER occurring a physician and surgeon who specializes in treatment and surgery of the eye is an - CORRECT ANSWER ophthalmologist patient registration process are normally completed - CORRECT ANSWER upon check in in most cases the patients initial encounter with the practice is - CORRECT ANSWER by telephone The primary goal of the ophthalmic practice should be to: - CORRECT ANSWER Provide quality medical eye care for patients Which of the following are characteristics of a winning team? - CORRECT ANSWER All of the above A team is a group of people who work together in an ophthalmic practice. It is automatically a team because all of the team members are employed by the practice. - CORRECT ANSWER False Ethical treatment of patients depends on fair treatment of patients without regard to race, religion, financial status, sex, or ethnicity. - CORRECT ANSWER True The financial success of the practice depends on: - CORRECT ANSWER All of the above. Which of the following IS NOT a responsibility for a staff member in providing quality customer service? - CORRECT ANSWER Interrupt patients when they talk too long because the practice is running behind When dealing with unhappy patients, always apologize, even if you do not agree with their point of view. - CORRECT ANSWER True When communicating with patients, openly express your feelings, even if they are negative. - CORRECT ANSWER False Many patients change physicians because of dissatisfaction in their treatment by the physician and/or staff members. - CORRECT ANSWER True Which of the following are examples of excellent customer service? - CORRECT ANSWER Smile, make eye contact, and address patients by name. Be a good listener. Be courteous. In large practices, the posting of all payments usually is the responsibility of one person in the billing department. - CORRECT ANSWER False Maximizing practice collections is the responsibility of the entire staff. - CORRECT ANSWER True Which of the following is not a process used by the practice in processing direct deposits from insurance companies, Medicare, and Medicaid? - CORRECT ANSWER Include the amounts from direct deposits in the daily deposit All checks received by mail should be processed within 24 hours of receipt. - CORRECT ANSWER True Lockbox arrangements with banks are helpful to some practices in order to: - CORRECT ANSWER Provide security for checks and rapid deposit of funds EOBs should be: - CORRECT ANSWER Stored for future reference based on practice policy or local regulations Daily backup tapes are used to protect data in case of power failure or other damage to stored data. - CORRECT ANSWER True How many staff members are responsible for compiling all of the daily work that has been processed into a single balance sheet? - CORRECT ANSWER One staff member Which of the following forms is not usually requested during the registration process? - CORRECT ANSWER Patient's credit score In multi-physician practices, the appointment scheduler can schedule the patient for an appointment with any physician for any reason. - CORRECT ANSWER False Patient registration processes are normally completed: - CORRECT ANSWER Upon check-in. It is important to follow scheduling templates when scheduling patient appointments in order to: - CORRECT ANSWER Control the schedule so that patients are seen efficiently and in a timely manner. If the patient registers without noting a ZIP code, this most likely means: - CORRECT ANSWER Possible future delays in receiving payment from the patient if it is not obtained Registration information should be: - CORRECT ANSWER Routinely reviewed for each patient upon arrival If the patient arrives for an appointment without necessary insurance authorization: - CORRECT ANSWER An attempt is made to obtain the authorization, so that the patient can be seen. The appointment process is relevant to effective collections because: - CORRECT ANSWER Patients must be scheduled with the correct physician and for the correct reason. Scheduling patient appointments by documenting the appointment in a computerized practice management system offers the advantage of efficient integration with human resources. - CORRECT ANSWER False The patient's chart usually is prepared prior to the patient's visit. - CORRECT ANSWER True The patient registration form usually is completed upon arrival to the office and requests which of the following information? - CORRECT ANSWER All of the above When scheduling a patient for an appointment, which of the following data should be documented? - CORRECT ANSWER Patient's full address with ZIP code It is important to confirm patient appointments prior to the scheduled appointment in order to: - CORRECT ANSWER Limit the number of no-shows and last-minute cancellations Credit balances on accounts in which the patient cannot be located: - CORRECT ANSWER Must be forwarded to the state, subject to disposition as unclaimed property. Refunds due to Medicare/Medicaid should be: - CORRECT ANSWER Paid within 60 days of overpayment. Ideally, the patient and applicable payer should be billed for services: - CORRECT ANSWER As soon as possible In recent years, billing processes have become: - CORRECT ANSWER More reliant on automated processes. Within the practice information system, patient statements usually are divided by: - CORRECT ANSWER Alphabetical order of last names Cash management is a term referring to - CORRECT ANSWER Appropriate safekeeping of practice revenue. Electronic processing of claims greatly increases the speed of payment from third- party payers. - CORRECT ANSWER True Primary responsibility for effective policy implementation rests on: - CORRECT ANSWER The billing supervisor. When a practice receives checks for insufficient funds, the practice often adds bank processing fees to the amount owed by the patient. - CORRECT ANSWER True Unless unusual circumstances dictate otherwise, patients with outstanding accounts should receive a statement: - CORRECT ANSWER . Once per month. Which of the following information is required for claims processing? - CORRECT ANSWER . All of these Financial assessment of accounts receivable performance should be: - CORRECT ANSWER Measured monthly within the practice. In a Medicare audit, which of the following patient statements would deem an office visit routine and not billable to Medicare? - CORRECT ANSWER am here for my annual eye exam and glasses check.. In order to treat patients effectively, a physician may have allied staff perform certain diagnostic tests. Before the test can be performed by the technician, what must be documented in the patient chart? - CORRECT ANSWER Order for the test New patient exams are exempt from global fee periods and do not require a modifier to get paid the same day as a procedure. - CORRECT ANSWER TRUE Under Medicare's global surgical fee concept, most services performed following surgery are included in the global fee payment and not billable separately. A physician may, however, bill Medicare separately for: - CORRECT ANSWER Diagnostic tests required to treat the patient. When auditing medical records, Medicare auditors generally have no preference as to the method a physician uses for documeer for the testnting a patient chart. - CORRECT ANSWER Order for the test The Medicare Physician Fee Schedule Database (MPFSD) includes fee calculations based on work expense, practice expense, and malpractice expense which are used in determining payments to physicians. Those figures are referred to as what? - CORRECT ANSWER Relative Value Units This 10-digit number is assigned to providers to be used for identification purposes when submitting services to Medicare for payment: - CORRECT ANSWER Provider Identification Number When billing Medicare, what is the definition of "deductible?" - CORRECT ANSWER The amount the patient is financially responsible for before Medicare provides payment What is the standard claim form used to submit provider services to Medicare Part B? - CORRECT ANSWER CMS-1500 Before billing a Medicare patient, the provider must have a Patient Authorization or Assignment of Benefits form signed by the patient to: - CORRECT ANSWER Inform Medicare the physician has right to bill for covered services. In order to be paid by Medicare, timely claims filing must occur within: - CORRECT ANSWER 12 months. What does the Office of Inspector General (OIG) release annually that identifies areas of focus for review and investigation they believe are the most vulnerable for possible fraud/abuse? - CORRECT ANSWER Inform Medicare the physician has right to bill for covered services. Which of the following would CMS constitute as fraud? - CORRECT ANSWER . Billing a more extensive service than actually performed. The Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS), in conjunction with the National Correct Coding Institute, developed the Correct Coding Initiative (CCI) bundling edits which are used by Medicare providers to: - CORRECT ANSWER Control improper coding of claims billed When auditing medical records, Medicare auditors generally have no preference as to the method a physician uses for documenting a patient chart. - CORRECT ANSWER FALSE what does the office of inspector general release annually that identifies areas of focus for review and investigation for possible fraud and abuse - CORRECT ANSWER work plan Which part of the patient examination tests for gross measurement of peripheral vision, range of motion and function of eye muscles, and evaluates the size, shape, and reaction of the pupils? - CORRECT ANSWER External Exam The portion of the examination that determines the best lens correction for the patient, and may result in a prescription for glasses is called: - CORRECT ANSWER Refraction In order for the physician to clearly see the details of the back of the eye (retina), patients are given drops that make the pupil larger. This process is called: - CORRECT ANSWER Dilation The measurement documenting the patient's current spectacle prescription is called: - CORRECT ANSWER Lensometry A numerical value associated with the smallest objects a patient can see on a specific chart at a specific distance is called: - CORRECT ANSWER Visual Acuity The examination of the back of the eye is called the: - CORRECT ANSWER Fundus Examination A patient will be asked for their chief complaint and symptoms of their current problem during which portion of the eye exam? - CORRECT ANSWER History The measurement of intraocular pressure is called: - CORRECT ANSWER tonometry test The lids and eyelashes, the conjunctiva, the cornea, iris, lens and vitreous are evaluated during which portion of the eye exam? - CORRECT ANSWER Slit Lamp Examination Which of the following should be disposed of in a red biohazardous bag? - CORRECT ANSWER Used gauze saturated with blood Which of the following should be avoided where there is a likelihood of occupational exposure? - CORRECT ANSWER Eating. OSHA stands for: - CORRECT ANSWER Occupational Safety and Health Administration. What is PPE? - CORRECT ANSWER Personal Protective Equipment. The Bloodborne Pathogens Standard requires the practice to have written guidelines for the employees' protection and reference. These guidelines are referred to as: - CORRECT ANSWER Exposure Control Plan (ECP). The word meaning to get - CORRECT ANSWER receive if a patient declines to sign an acknowledge of the practice's NPP staff is obligated to - CORRECT ANSWER documenting that the patient declined to sign the cost associated with part c plans varies depending on - CORRECT ANSWER the benefits the plan provides a slit lamp is - CORRECT ANSWER a microscope used by the physician in examine the patient's eyes in most cases, the patient's initial encounter with the practice is - CORRECT ANSWER by telephone an eye care provider licensed to diagnose and treat disease of the eye but unable to perform invasive eye sx is an - CORRECT ANSWER optometrist by osha standards, what is the proper disposal method for a cotton ball with a drop of blood on it that has been used as a pressure dressing - CORRECT ANSWER dispose in a biohazard waste container collected by a licensed contaminated waste removal contractor attempting to change a patient's diagnosis code to allow a beneficiary coverage of a non covered service is - CORRECT ANSWER fraud the measurement of intraocular pressure is called - CORRECT ANSWER tonometry HIPAA act of 1996 includes which of the following areas - CORRECT ANSWER privacy of info, security of info, portability of info, administrative simplification which of the following telephone techniques will help create a positive image for the practive - CORRECT ANSWER Implement a two ring rule, acknowledge the caller by name, and minimize customer hold time the snellen acuity eye chart measure - CORRECT ANSWER visual acuity what is the proper course of action for addressing the potential loss of a patient's protected health info (phi) - CORRECT ANSWER review the patient's record to see if he/she signed a notice of privacy practices (NPP) droopy upper lid due to age, gravity, or a weak eye muscle - CORRECT ANSWER ptosis a growth of fleshy tissue on conjunctiva that may extend onto the cornea - CORRECT ANSWER pterygium separation of the retina from the back of the eye - CORRECT ANSWER retinal nearsightedness - CORRECT ANSWER myopia farsightedness - CORRECT ANSWER hyperopia inflammation of the cornea - CORRECT ANSWER keratitis diagnosis resulting from the removal of a cataract with the implantation of an intraocular lens - CORRECT ANSWER pseudophakia inflammation of the eyelid margins which may result incrusting of the lashes - CORRECT ANSWER blepharitis degeneration of the macula, resulting on the loss of central and reading vision - CORRECT ANSWER age related macular degeneration excessive eyelid skin that may impair a person's field of vision - CORRECT ANSWER dermaeochalasi the bony cavity in the skull that houses the globe, the extrocular muscles, the blood vessels, and the nerves - CORRECT ANSWER orbit transparent, curved tissue at the front of the eye - CORRECT ANSWER cornea area of the retina providing central, clear, detailed vision - CORRECT ANSWER macula muscles of this tissue control the amount of light to electric impulses which are transmitted to the brain - CORRECT ANSWER retina the thick, transparent substance that fills the center of the eye - CORRECT ANSWER vitreous the channel through which images are transmitted from the retina to the brain - CORRECT ANSWER visual pathway tiny opening on the nasal side of the upper and lower lids through which excess tears pass when. leaving the ye - CORRECT ANSWER puncta thick , hardened, nontransparent lens - CORRECT ANSWER cataract thin, transparent tissue covering the outer surface of the eye - CORRECT ANSWER conjunctiva an auto refractor is used to - CORRECT ANSWER provide a baseline measurement of refractive error successful receptionists - CORRECT ANSWER place a smile in one/s voice, are honest and sincere with all patients according to osha guidelines, what should be the first course of action for cleaning up a blood spill - CORRECT ANSWER put on gloves the procedure for reporting workplace misconduct that is perceived as harassment is outline in which of the following documents - CORRECT ANSWER the osha workplace violence fact sheet Which of the following is NOT an example of an activity that can negatively affect productivity: - CORRECT ANSWER . Being settled in and ready to work by the scheduled start of the shift The most professional employees: - CORRECT ANSWER Work to present their best selves and do their best work at all times. Which of the following describes how employers must handle harassment investigations? - CORRECT ANSWER Prompt, thorough, and impartial After notifying a co-worker that their behavior is not acceptable and asking them to stop, if the unwelcome behavior continues, who should the employee report the harassment to? - CORRECT ANSWER A manager Which of these is NOT a part of the LEARN acronym? - CORRECT ANSWER Repeat Which of these cultural competency levels represents the least effective level? - CORRECT ANSWER Cultural Destructiveness Who provided us with the quote: "We must become the change we want to see"? - CORRECT ANSWER Gandhi Which of these is a cultural competency derailing behavior? - CORRECT ANSWER Making assumptions about others How many Essential Elements of cultural competency are there? - CORRECT ANSWER 5 What is the best reason to work on raising your level of cultural diversity competence as a healthcare worker? - CORRECT ANSWER I will remove barriers to being more effective in delivering healthcare Which of these is not a secondary dimension of diversity? - CORRECT ANSWER age Which of these beliefs may represent a culturally diverse patient's historical health perspectives? - CORRECT ANSWER . The expressiveness of pain is unacceptable Being overweight is a sign of health and well-being Patients should not be told if they become terminally ill Which of these generational groups is the newest? - CORRECT ANSWER Generation Alpha Which of these generational differences in perspective traits is attributed to more than one generation? - CORRECT ANSWER Civic-minded This course is only the beginning to creating a safe and secure work environment; the rest is up to management. - CORRECT ANSWER False One of the first steps in creating an emergency action plan is to: - CORRECT ANSWER Sit down with management and staff to discuss the importance of putting an emergency action plan in place. Samples of emergency action plans can be found on the internet. Which organization has an EAP in PDF format that can be filled out online and saved to a computer? - CORRECT ANSWER The U.S. Department of Homeland Security (Ready.gov) The Department of Homeland Security recommends three actions in the event of an active shooter. They are: - CORRECT ANSWER Evacuate, Hide Out, or Take Action The main difference between the emergency action plan and plan of action is that the emergency action plan is the written document organizing management and staff during workplace emergencies, whereas the plan of action is the motion or act of carrying out the EAP. - CORRECT ANSWER True The U.S. Department of Homeland Security developed an active shooter emergency action plan called: - CORRECT ANSWER Active Shooter: How to Respond After an active shooting incident is over, management must take over and: - CORRECT ANSWER Start the healing process An active shooter emergency action plan should include a detailed diagram of the overall office space including: - CORRECT ANSWER All of these choices Studies have shown that nearly ___________ American workers annually report being a victim of workplace violence. - CORRECT ANSWER 2 million When creating an office emergency action plan, the plan coordinator needs to reach out to local law enforcement agencies to - CORRECT ANSWER Get assistance in the development of the EAP.Inform them of the office layout and possible safe rooms in case of emergency. Which of the following is a technical safeguard requirement? - CORRECT ANSWER Installing and updating antivirus software and firewalls Under the HITECH Act, the Breach Notification Act requires notification to HHS OCR of the intentional or unintentional disclosure of PHI to unapproved entities on an annual basis only if the breach has affected more than 500 individuals. - CORRECT ANSWER false Patient names on a sign-in form are considered an intentional breach of - CORRECT ANSWER False Which of the following disclosures require signed permission from the individual whose PHI is being requested? - CORRECT ANSWER Information requested by an attorney without a subpoena If an individual or staff member has a complaint regarding the use of PHI, the individual must speak to which of the following professionals for the facility? - CORRECT ANSWER Privacy officer "Safe" computing includes which of the following? - CORRECT ANSWER Using email and the Internet ONLY as allowed by practice protocols What does HIPAA stand for? - CORRECT ANSWER Health Insurance Portability and Accountability A According to the HIPAA Omnibus Final Rule of 2013, the business associate of the covered entity (physician practice) is required to sign a Business Associate Agreement with which of the following? - CORRECT ANSWER Subcontractors of business associates According to regulations contained in the Omnibus Final Rule of 2013, a patient has the right to receive a copy of his or her medical record in an electronic format An auto refractor is used to: - CORRECT ANSWER Help determine the eyeglasses prescription A patient calling to schedule an appointment with symptoms of sudden vision loss can be scheduled at some time within a week. There is no urgency to scheduling the visit. - CORRECT ANSWER true HIPAA Privacy Standards must be applied when determining the information that can be shared in a phone call with the relative of a patient - CORRECT ANSWER True If a patient arrives for an appointment without a necessary insurance authorization, - CORRECT ANSWER An attempt is made to obtain the authorization, so that the patient can be seen Over the past several years, billing processes have become: - CORRECT ANSWER More reliant on automated processes. Payment receipts should be used: - CORRECT ANSWER To record all payments received from patients. In triaging a patient phone call, the person receiving the call may: - CORRECT ANSWER Schedule an appointment. Take a message. Refer to the billing department. Encounter forms are most commonly used to: - CORRECT ANSWER Record the diagnosis and procedural codes At the conclusion of each encounter, the patient: - CORRECT ANSWER . Should stop at the check-out desk to determine payment status. Patient's charts are prepared at the time the patient arrives for his/her appointment. - CORRECT ANSWER False Unless unusual circumstances dictate otherwise, patients with outstanding accounts should receive a statement - CORRECT ANSWER Monthly. In most cases, the practice's initial encounter with the patient is: - CORRECT ANSWER By telephone. The balance due on services rendered by the practice is known as Accounts Receivable (A/R). - CORRECT ANSWER True In spite of the topic, the overall tone of your email should always be: - CORRECT ANSWER All of the above Use of ________ makes it easier for recipients to skim content than having to read lengthy blocks of text. - CORRECT ANSWER . Bullets or numbered lists An important rule of email-writing etiquette is to avoid long-winded messages that contain extraneous information and irrelevant facts - CORRECT ANSWER True The fact that email is faster and easier than other communication options means we can put less thought into how we use it. - CORRECT ANSWER false Overuse of _______ can result in your email ending up at the bottom of your recipients' priority lists. - CORRECT ANSWER The "high importance" designation If you are going to fall victim to the current epidemic of bad email writing, you run the risk of gaining a professional reputation as someone who is: - CORRECT ANSWER All of the above. If you are listed in the "cc" field, generally you - CORRECT ANSWER Are not expected to reply. In general, every professional business email should have - CORRECT ANSWER All of the above Basic email success elements include: - CORRECT ANSWER All of the above Which of the following examples is NOT an appropriate, professional email salutation or greeting? - CORRECT ANSWER What's happening Which of the following are examples of topics better suited for a telephone call or a personal face- to-face conversation (as opposed to an email)? - CORRECT ANSWER All of the above A "bad" email can feature which of the following elements? - CORRECT ANSWER all of the above An email borders on being too long when it approaches this many words. - CORRECT ANSWER 200 A good subject line __________. - CORRECT ANSWER Delivers the most important information, without the recipient having to open the email.Reminds recipients about your request/question/proposal every time they glance at their inbox. Grabs attention and summarizes the email. Proofreading and editing your email before sending allows you to - CORRECT ANSWER all of the above Minor surgical procedures have a 90-day postoperative period and are most commonly performed in ambulatory surgery centers. - CORRECT ANSWER false An eye care provider licensed to diagnose and treat diseases of the eye and to perform eye surgery is an: - CORRECT ANSWER Ophthalmologist Major surgeries are most commonly performed in: - CORRECT ANSWER A certified surgical facility An eye care professional licensed to fabricate and dispense eyeglasses is an: - CORRECT ANSWER Optician Which of the following procedures is a common treatment for dry eyes? - CORRECT ANSWER Punctual Occlusion An eye care provider licensed to diagnose and treat diseases of the eye, but unable to perform invasive eye surgery is an: - CORRECT ANSWER Optometrist