Medical Procedures and Practices, Exams of Clinical Medicine

Download Medical Procedures and Practices and more Exams Clinical Medicine in PDF only on Docsity!

Clinical Procedures for Medical Assistants 10th Edition Bonewit-West Test Bank

Table of Contents

Chapter 1: The Medical Record

Chapter 2: Medical Asepsis and the OSHA Standard

Chapter 3: Sterilization and Disinfection

Chapter 4: Vital Signs

Chapter 5: The Physical Examination,

Chapter 6: Eye and Ear Assessment and Procedures

Chapter 7: Physical Agents to Promote Tissue Healing

Chapter 8: The Gynecologic Examination and Prenatal Care

Chapter 9: The Pediatric Examination

Chapter 10: Minor Office Surgery

Chapter 11: Administration of Medication and Intravenous Therapy

Chapter 12: Cardiopulmonary Procedures

Chapter 13: Colon Procedures and Male Reproductive Health

Chapter 14: Radiology and Diagnostic Imaging

Chapter 15: Introduction to the Clinical Laboratory

Chapter 16: Urinalysis

Chapter 17: Phlebotomy

Chapter 18: Hematology

Chapter 19: Blood Chemistry and Immunology

Chapter 20: Medical Microbiology

Chapter 21: Nutrition - NEW

Chapter 22: Emergency Preparedness - NEW

Chapter 23: Emergency Medical Procedures and First Aid

Chapter 01: The Medical Record

Bonewit-West: Clinical Procedures for Medical Assistants, 10th Edition

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Which of the following is not a function of the medical record?

a. To provide information for making decisions regarding the patient’s care

b. To document the patient’s progress

c. To serve as a legal document

d. To share information between members of the patient’s family

ANS: D REF: p. 2| CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI. OBJ: 1

2. What information is contained in the medical record?

a. Health history report

b. Results of the physical examination

c. Laboratory reports

d. Progress notes

e. All of the above

ANS: E REF: pp. 2-3| CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI. OBJ: 2

3. The purpose of the HIPAA Privacy Rule is to

a. reduce exposure of patients to bloodborne pathogens.

b. provide patients with better control over the use and disclosure of their health

information.

c. prevent the patient’s records from being copied.

d. encourage the patient to become more involved in preventive health care.

ANS: B REF: p. 4 | CAAHEP Competency (2015): IX. OBJ: 2

4. All of the following are characteristics of the Notice of Privacy Practices except :

a. Was developed by the American Medical Association

b. Must explain how a patient’s health information will be used and protected by the

medical office

c. Must be provided to each patient

d. Must obtain a signed acknowledgment from the patient that he/she has received an

NPP

ANS: A REF: p. 4| CAAHEP Competency (2015): IX. OBJ: 2

5. Health information in any form that contains patient identifiable information is known as

a. PHI.

b. NPP.

c. OSHA.

d. HIPAA.

ANS: A REF: p. 4| CAAHEP Competency (2015): IX. OBJ: 2

6. In which of the following situations does HIPAA not require written consent for the use or

disclosure of protected health information?

a. Patient referral to a specialist

b. Emergency care provided at a hospital

c. Determination of eligibility for insurance benefits

d. Training of health care students

e. All of the above

ANS: E REF: p. 4| CAAHEP Competency (2015): IX. OBJ: 2

7. Which of the following is not an example of a medical office clinical document?

a. Patient registration record

b. Physical examination report

c. Medication record

d. Health history report

ANS: A REF: pp. 2-3| CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI. OBJ: 2

8. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a laboratory report?

a. It relays results of laboratory tests to the provider

b. It consists of a report of the analysis or examination of body specimens

c. It assists in diagnosing and treating disease

d. It is a request for laboratory tests performed by an outside laboratory

ANS: D REF: pp. 2-3| CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI. OBJ: 2

9. Which of the following is an example of a diagnostic procedure report?

a. Electrocardiogram report

b. Physical therapy report

c. Urinalysis report

d. Pathology report

ANS: A REF: pp. 2-3| CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI. OBJ: 2

10. What is the name of the type of report that documents the assessments and treatments

designed to restore a patient’s ability to function?

a. Consultation report

b. Diagnostic procedure report

c. Pathology report

d. Therapeutic service report

ANS: D REF: pp. 2-3| CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI. OBJ: 2

11. Which of the following is not an example of a hospital report?

a. Operative report

b. Cytology report

c. Discharge summary report

d. Emergency department report

ANS: B REF: pp. 2-3| CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI. OBJ: 2

12. Which of the following is an example of a consent document?

a. Patient registration record

b. Notice of Privacy Practices form

c. Release of medical information form

d. Patient instruction sheet

ANS: C REF: pp. 2-3| CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI. OBJ: 2

13. Which of the following can be performed by an electronic medical record software program?

a. Creation of a medical record

b. Storage of a medical record

c. Editing of a medical record

d. Retrieval of a medical record

e. All of the above

ANS: E REF: p. 3| CAAHEP Competency (2015): V. OBJ: 3

14. All of the following are advantages of an electronic medical record (EMR) except

a. an EMR does not have to be filed.

b. documents in an EMR can be quickly retrieved.

c. more than one person can view an EMR at the same time.

d. EMRs are exempt from the HIPAA regulations.

ANS: D REF: pp. 3, 6| CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI. OBJ: 5

15. Which of the following are used to enter data into an electronic medical record?

a. Free-text entry

b. Drop-down menus

c. Radio buttons

d. All of the above

ANS: D REF: p. 11| CAAHEP Competency (2015): V. OBJ: 8

16. How are paper documents entered into a patient’s electronic medical record?

a. By scanning them into the computer

b. By retyping them on the computer

c. By photocopying them

d. By transmitting them through a modem

ANS: A REF: p. 11| CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI. OBJ: 8

17. What is the name of a program that converts typed text into text that can be manipulated by

the computer (once it has been scanned into the computer)?

a. POMR

b. OCR

c. Word processing program

d. Practice management program

ANS: B REF: p. 6| CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI. OBJ: 4

18. All of the following assist in the collection of data for a health history except

a. a quiet, comfortable room.

b. showing interest in the patient.

c. showing concern for the patient.

d. calling the patient “honey.”

ANS: D REF: p. 6| CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.3. OBJ: 8

19. Which of the following can be used to enter a health history into an electronic medical record?

a. The patient completes a paper form and the medical assistant scans it into the

computer.

b. The medical assistant enters information into the computer while asking the patient

questions.

c. The patient completes a health history questionnaire on a computer.

d. All of the above

ANS: D

OBJ: 8

20. What is a health history?

a. A legal document required to perform certain procedures on a patient

b. Documentation of the results of the physical examination

c. A collection of subjective data about the patient

d. A narrative description and interpretation of a diagnostic procedure

ANS: C REF: p. 6| CAAHEP Competency (2015): V. OBJ: 6

21. The health history is taken

a. after the provider performs the physical examination.

b. after laboratory test results are reviewed.

c. before the provider performs the physical examination.

d. after the provider makes a diagnosis of the patient’s condition.

ANS: C REF: p. 6| CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI. OBJ: 6

22. What is the chief complaint?

a. The probable outcome of the patient’s condition

b. The symptom causing the patient the most trouble

c. A detailed description of the patient’s illness using medical terms

d. A tentative diagnosis of the patient’s condition

ANS: B REF: p. 7| CAAHEP Competency (2015): V. OBJ: 7

23. Which of the following questions should be used to elicit the chief complaint from a patient?

a. Where does it hurt?

b. Are you sick?

c. How long have you been ill?

d. What seems to be the problem?

e. All of the above

ANS: D REF: p. 7| CAAHEP Competency (2015): V. OBJ: 7

24. Which of the following is a correct example for documenting the chief complaint?

a. “Complains of pain in the left shoulder.”

b. “The patient does not feel well today.”

c. “Burning in the chest and coughing for the past 2 days.”

d. “Otitis media that began following a cold.”

ANS: C REF: p. 7| CAAHEP Competency (2015): V. OBJ: 7

25. An expansion of the chief complaint is known as the

a. review of systems.

b. present illness.

c. progress report.

d. provisional diagnosis.

ANS: B REF: p. 7| CAAHEP Competency (2015): V. OBJ: 7

26. What is the past medical history?

a. The patient’s previous diseases, injuries, and operations

b. The symptom causing the patient the most trouble

c. Information about the patient’s lifestyle

d. The hereditary diseases and health of blood relatives

ANS: A REF: pp. 7, 11| CAAHEP Competency (2015): V. OBJ: 6

27. All of the following are included in the past medical history except

a. accidents and injuries.

b. immunizations.

c. hospitalizations and operations.

d. current medications.

e. occupation.

ANS: E REF: pp. 7, 11| CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI. OBJ: 6

28. A review of the health status of blood relatives is known as

a. family history.

b. review of systems.

c. genetic review.

d. chronological history.

ANS: A REF: p. 11| CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI. OBJ: 6

29. Which of the following is an example of a familial disease?

a. Tuberculosis

b. Pneumonia

c. Diabetes mellitus

d. Emphysema

ANS: C REF: p. 11| CAAHEP Competency (2015): V. OBJ: 6

30. The social history focuses on which of the following that may affect the patient’s condition?

a. Patient’s lifestyle

b. Familial diseases

c. Past injuries

d. Medications being taken by the patient

ANS: A REF: p. 11| CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI. OBJ: 6

31. All of the following are included in the social history except

a. dietary history.

b. health habits.

c. occupation.

d. chronic illnesses.

ANS: D REF: p. 11| CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI. OBJ: 6

32. What is the ROS?

a. A history of the patient’s previous diseases, injuries, and operations

b. The symptom causing the patient the most trouble

c. A systematic review of each body system

d. A review of the hereditary diseases and health of blood relatives

ANS: C REF: p. 11| CAAHEP Competency (2015): V. OBJ: 6

33. What term is used to describe the process of recording information about a patient in the

medical record?

a. Documenting

b. Registration

c. Scribbling

d. Classifying

ANS: A REF: p. 11| CAAHEP Competency (2015): V. OBJ: 8

34. All of the following must be performed when documenting in the medical record except:

a. Check the name on the medical record before making an entry.

b. Include the patient’s name at the beginning of each entry.

c. Begin each phrase with a capital letter and end with a period.

d. Never document for someone else.

ANS: B REF: pp. 11-12 | CAAHEP Competency (2015): V. OBJ: 8

35. A procedure should be documented immediately after being performed to

a. avoid documenting the procedure out of sequence.

b. avoid performing the wrong procedure on a patient.

c. avoid forgetting certain aspects of the procedure.

d. prevent another staff member from documenting the procedure.

ANS: C REF: pp. 11-12| CAAHEP Competency (2015): I. OBJ: 8

36. Black ink should be used when documenting in the PPR to

a. provide a permanent record.

b. ensure legible handwriting.

c. avoid spelling errors.

d. reduce documentation errors.

ANS: A REF: pp. 11-12| CAAHEP Competency (2015): I. OBJ: 8

37. Which of the following is the correct way to sign a documentation entry?

a. D.B., CMA (AAMA)

b. Dawn C. Bennett, CMA (AAMA)

c. D. Bennett, CMA (AAMA)

d. Bennett, CMA (AAMA)

ANS: C REF: pp. 11-12| CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI. OBJ: 8

38. Why should a documentation error in a PPR never be erased or obliterated?

a. It makes it harder to read the medical record.

b. The patient may not receive the proper care.

c. Credibility is reduced if the provider is involved in litigation.

d. It indicates the procedure was performed incorrectly.

ANS: C REF: pp. 11-12| CAAHEP Competency (2015): I. OBJ: 8

39. The purpose of progress notes is to

a. provide a review of each body system.

b. update the medical record with new patient information.

c. prevent the patient’s condition from getting worse.

d. ensure that the patient returns for follow-up care.

ANS: B REF: p. 13| CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.

OBJ: 9

40. What is a symptom?

a. Conclusions drawn from an interpretation of data

b. Any change in the body or its functioning that indicates disease

c. The probable outcome of a disease

d. The scientific method of identifying a patient’s condition

ANS: B REF: p. 13| CAAHEP Competency (2015): V. OBJ: 10

41. What is an objective symptom?

a. A symptom that can be observed by another person

b. A symptom that precedes a disease

c. A symptom that is felt by the patient and cannot be observed by another

d. The symptom causing the patient the most trouble

ANS: A REF: p. 13| CAAHEP Competency (2015): V. OBJ: 10

42. Which of the following is an example of a subjective symptom?

a. Rash

b. Pain

c. Dyspnea

d. Bleeding

ANS: B REF: p. 13| CAAHEP Competency (2015): V. OBJ: 10

43. Which of the following should be included when documenting the administration of

medication?

a. Name of the medication

b. Route of administration

c. Dosage administered

d. Injection site

e. All of the above

ANS: E REF: p. 13| CAAHEP Competency (2015): I. OBJ: 8

44. Laboratory tests ordered on a patient at an outside laboratory should be documented in the

event which of the following occurs?

a. The patient does not undergo the test.

b. The test results are abnormal.

c. The patient’s condition gets worse.

d. The test results are negative.

ANS: A REF: p. 14, 16| CAAHEP Competency (2015): I. OBJ: 8

45. Why is it important to document instructions provided to the patient?

a. To ensure that the patient understands the instructions provided

b. To protect the provider legally if the patient is harmed by not following the

instructions

c. To ensure that the patient follows the instructions

d. To provide a record for the insurance company

ANS: B REF: p. 16| CAAHEP Competency (2015): I. OBJ: 8

46. Flushed skin usually indicates the patient

a. is experiencing pain.

b. has an elevated temperature.

c. has chills.

d. has a rash.

ANS: B REF: p. 21| CAAHEP Competency (2015): V. OBJ: 11

47. A yellow color of the skin that is first observed in the whites of the eyes is called

a. cyanosis.

b. hepatitis.

c. pallor.

d. jaundice.

ANS: D REF: p. 21| CAAHEP Competency (2015): V. OBJ: 11

48. A decrease in the amount of water in the body is known as

a. edema.

b. acidosis.

c. epistaxis.

d. dehydration.

ANS: D REF: p. 21| CAAHEP Competency (2015): V. OBJ: 11

49. What term is used to describe excessive perspiration?

a. Dehydration

b. Diaphoresis

c. Edema

d. Hyperemesis

ANS: B REF: p. 21| CAAHEP Competency (2015): V. OBJ: 11

50. What term is used to describe dizziness?

a. Epistaxis

b. Vertigo

c. Urticaria

d. Pruritus

ANS: B REF: p. 21| CAAHEP Competency (2015): V. OBJ: 11

Chapter 02: Medical Asepsis and the OSHA Standard

Bonewit-West: Clinical Procedures for Medical Assistants, 10th Edition

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. What is the name given to a tiny living plant or animal that cannot be seen with the naked

eye?

a. Pathogen

b. Microorganism

c. Nonpathogen

d. Microbiology

ANS: B REF: p. 26| CAAHEP Competency (2015): V. OBJ: 1

2. What term is used to describe a microorganism that produces disease?

a. Nonpathogen

b. Pathogen

c. Bacteria

d. Infection

ANS: B REF: p. 26| CAAHEP Competency (2015): V. OBJ: 2

3. Which of the following is not an example of a microorganism?

a. Pinworms

b. Bacteria

c. Virus

d. Protozoa

ANS: A REF: p. 26| CAAHEP Competency (2015): III. OBJ: 1

4. What term is used to describe a microorganism that does not produce disease?

a. Sterile

b. Aseptic

c. Nonpathogen

d. Pathogen

ANS: C REF: p. 26| CAAHEP Competency (2015): V. OBJ: 2

5. What may remain on an object that is medically aseptic?

a. Nonpathogens

b. Pathogens

c. Droplet infection

d. Anaerobes

ANS: A REF: p. 26| CAAHEP Competency (2015): III. OBJ: 3

6. All of the following are growth requirements for microorganisms except:

a. Darkness

b. Moisture

c. Nutrition

d. Acidic environment

ANS: D REF: pp. 22-23| CAAHEP Competency (2015): III. OBJ: 4

7. What is the name given to a microorganism that can exist only in the presence of oxygen?

a. Anaerobe

b. Oxygenophile

c. Aerobe

d. Heterotroph

ANS: C REF: pp. 22-23| CAAHEP Competency (2015): V. OBJ: 4

8. The optimal growth temperature is

a. 98.6° F (37° C), or body temperature.

b. the temperature at which a microorganism grows best.

c. room temperature.

d. the temperature that kills pathogens.

ANS: B REF: pp. 22-23| CAAHEP Competency (2015): 1V. OBJ: 4

9. Microorganisms can be transmitted through

a. droplet infection.

b. insects.

c. contaminated food.

d. contaminated equipment.

e. All of the above

ANS: E REF: p. 27| CAAHEP Competency (2015): III.2.d OBJ: 5

10. What is the name given to a person who cannot fight off a pathogen that has entered his or her

body?

a. Reservoir host

b. Resistant host

c. Contagious

d. Susceptible host

ANS: D REF: p. 27| CAAHEP Competency (2015): III.2.c OBJ: 5

11. All of the following makes a person less resistant to a pathogen except :

a. Poor nutrition

b. Immunizations

c. Poor hygiene

d. Stress

ANS: B REF: p. 27| CAAHEP Competency (2015): III.2.c OBJ: 6

12. Which of the following help prevent the entrance of microorganisms into the body?

a. Coughing and sneezing

b. Acidic nature of urine

c. Hydrochloric acid in the stomach

d. Mucus in the nose and respiratory tract

e. All of the above

ANS: E REF: pp. 27-28| CAAHEP Competency (2015): III.2.d OBJ: 6

13. Cilia remove pathogens from the body by

a. providing an acidic environment.

b. engulfing pathogens.

c. trapping microorganisms.

d. constantly beating toward the outside.

e. All of the above

ANS: D REF: pp. 27-28| CAAHEP Competency (2015): III. OBJ: 6

14. What term is used to describe practices that help to keep an object or area clean and free from

infection?

a. Medical asepsis

b. Surgical asepsis

c. Disinfection

d. Sterilization

ANS: A REF: p. 28| CAAHEP Competency (2015): III.3.a OBJ: 3

15. Which of the following are picked up in the course of daily activities, are attached loosely to

the skin, and are often pathogenic?

a. Transient flora

b. Normal flora

c. Opportunistic infections

d. Resident flora

ANS: A REF: p. 28| CAAHEP Competency (2015): V. OBJ: 7

16. Which of the following is the MOST important means of preventing the spread of

microorganisms in the medical office?

a. Disinfecting examining tables

b. Gloving

c. Hand hygiene

d. Immunizations

ANS: C REF: pp. 28-29| CAAHEP Competency (2015): III. OBJ: 8

17. The CDC recommends that washing the hands with soap and water be performed

a. after eating.

b. when the hands are visibly soiled.

c. before using the restroom.

d. after taking a patient’s blood pressure.

ANS: B REF: pp. 28-29| CAAHEP Competency (2015): III. OBJ: 10

18. All of the following are advantages of alcohol-based hand rubs except:

a. They do not require rinsing.

b. Less time is required to perform hand hygiene.

c. They remove all resident flora from the skin.

d. They contain emollients to prevent drying of the hands.

ANS: C REF: p. 29| CAAHEP Competency (2015): III. OBJ: 8

19. All of the following are good aseptic practices in the medical office except :

a. Keeping the medical office free of dirt and dust

b. Wearing jewelry

c. Avoiding coughs and sneezes of patients

d. Carefully disposing of wastes

ANS: B REF: pp. 29-30| CAAHEP Competency (2015): III. OBJ: 9

20. Which of the following is not a symptom of a mild allergy to latex gloves?

a. Shortness of breath

b. Redness of the skin

c. Itching

d. Urticaria

ANS: A REF: pp. 30, 25| CAAHEP Competency (2015): I. OBJ: 11

21. All of the following are guidelines for working with gloves except :

a. Wearing the correct size gloves

b. Keeping the fingernails short

c. Storing gloves away from extremes of temperature

d. Applying an oil-based hand lotion before gloving

ANS: D REF: p. 30| CAAHEP Competency (2015): I. OBJ: 11

22. The purpose of the OSHA Bloodborne Pathogens Standard is to

a. improve the quality of laboratory testing in the United States.

b. protect public health and the environment outside of the workplace.

c. reduce the risk to employees of exposure to infectious diseases.

d. prevent exposure of employees to bloodborne pathogens.

ANS: C REF: pp. 35-36| CAAHEP Competency (2015): III. OBJ: 12

23. Which of the following employees would be least likely to have occupational exposure?

a. Medical laboratory technician

b. Dental hygienist

c. Electrician

d. Law enforcement officer

ANS: C REF: pp. 35-36| CAAHEP Competency (2015): III. OBJ: 12

24. All of the following are examples of bloodborne pathogens except :

a. Hepatitis B virus

b. HIV

c. Hepatitis C

d. White blood cells

ANS: D REF: pp. 35-36| CAAHEP Competency (2015): III. OBJ: 12

25. Which of the following is not an example of a sharp?

a. Needle

b. Cotton-tipped applicator

c. Lancet

d. Glass capillary tube

ANS: B REF: p. 36| CAAHEP Competency (2015): III. OBJ: 13

26. Which of the following is not considered another potentially infectious material (OPIM)?

a. Any body fluid visibly contaminated with blood

b. Vaginal secretions

c. Tears and sweat

d. Semen

ANS: C REF: p. 36| CAAHEP Competency (2015): III. OBJ: 12

27. Which of the following is not an example of nonintact skin?

a. Skin with dermatitis

b. Burned skin

c. Bruised skin

d. Chapped skin

ANS: C REF: p. 36| CAAHEP Competency (2015): III. OBJ: 12

28. Which of the following is an example of an exposure incident?

a. Spilling blood on a laboratory worktable

b. Sticking yourself with the needle after drawing up an injectable medication

c. Getting blood onto your bare hands

d. Splashing blood into your eyes

e. All of the above

ANS: D REF: p. 36| CAAHEP Competency (2015): III. OBJ: 14

29. How often does OSHA require employers to review and update their Exposure Control Plan?

a. Every 6 months

b. Once each year

c. Every 2 years

d. Only when a new procedure is instituted

ANS: B REF: pp. 36-37| CAAHEP Competency (2015): III. OBJ: 14

30. A biohazard warning label must be attached to all of the following except :

a. Container of regulated waste

b. Refrigerator used to store blood

c. Cabinet used to store laboratory testing supplies

d. Plastic bag used to transport blood to the lab

ANS: C REF: pp. 37-38| CAAHEP Competency (2015): III. OBJ: 15

31. What term is used to describe all measures and devices that isolate or remove the bloodborne

pathogens hazard from the workplace?

a. Engineering control

b. Work practice control

c. Personal protective equipment

d. Universal precaution

ANS: A OBJ: 16

32. What term describes a device that makes an exposure incident involving a contaminated sharp

less likely to occur?

a. Postexposure prophylaxis

b. Decontamination

c. Personal protective equipment

d. Safer medical device

ANS: D REF: pp. 38-40 |CAAHEP Competency (2015): III. OBJ: 16

33. All of the following are examples of work practice controls except:

a. Sanitizing the hands after removing gloves

b. Placing a lancet in a biohazard sharps container

c. Picking up broken glassware with gloved hands

d. Bandaging a cut on the hands before gloving

ANS: C REF: pp. 38-40| CAAHEP Competency (2015): III. OBJ: 16

34. Which of the following is an example of personal protective equipment (PPE)?

a. Clean disposable gloves

b. Biohazard sharps container

c. Scrubs

d. Prescription eyeglasses

ANS: A REF: p. 40| CAAHEP Competency (2015): III. OBJ: 16

35. All of the following are guidelines that should be followed when using PPE except :

a. Decontaminate and reuse disposable gloves.

b. Remove all PPE before leaving the medical office.

c. Replace gloves that become torn or contaminated as soon as possible.

d. Remove a garment penetrated by blood as soon as possible.

ANS: A REF: pp. 40-41| CAAHEP Competency (2015): III. OBJ: 17

36. Which of the following is a violation of the OSHA standard?

a. Eating in the office laboratory

b. Storing the Exposure Control Plan on the computer

c. Recapping a needle after withdrawing medication from a vial

d. Refusing to get the hepatitis B vaccination

e. All of the above

ANS: A REF: pp. 39-40| CAAHEP Competency (2015): III. OBJ: 12

37. What is the first thing you should do if a cut on your bare hand accidentally comes in contact

with a patient’s blood?

a. Report the incident to the provider

b. Immediately wash your hands thoroughly with soap and water

c. Apply gloves

d. Obtain a hepatitis B vaccination

ANS: B REF: pp. 41-42| CAAHEP Competency (2015): III. OBJ: 12

38. Personal protective equipment must be used to

a. draw blood.

b. label a specimen container.

c. measure oral temperature.

d. perform a vision screening test.

e. All of the above

ANS: A REF: pp. 40-41| CAAHEP Competency (2015): III. OBJ: 17

39. Which of the following is a violation of the OSHA standard with respect to biohazard sharps

containers?

a. Locate the sharps container as close as possible to the area of use.

b. Maintain sharps containers in an upright position.

c. Only reach into a sharps container with a gloved hand.

d. Replace sharps containers when they are 3/4 full.

ANS: C REF: pp. 41-42| CAAHEP Competency (2015): XII.

OBJ: 13

40. The hepatitis B vaccine must be offered to a new medical office employee except when

a. the individual has previously received the vaccine.

b. antibody testing has revealed that the individual is immune to hepatitis B.

c. the vaccine is contraindicated for medical reasons.

d. All of the above

ANS: D REF: p. 310| CAAHEP Competency (2015): III. OBJ: 20

41. What must a medical office employee do if he or she declines the hepatitis B vaccine?

a. Perform ten push-ups.

b. Sign a hepatitis B waiver form.

c. Be tested for hepatitis B antibodies.

d. Double-glove when administering injections.

ANS: B REF: p. 43| CAAHEP Competency (2015): III. OBJ: 20

42. Which of the following used items is not an example of regulated medical waste?

a. Suture needle

b. Microbiological collection device

c. Gauze saturated with blood

d. Urine testing strip

ANS: D REF: p. 43| CAAHEP Competency (2015): III. OBJ: 18

43. Which of the following represents an error in technique when preparing and storing regulated

medical waste for disposal by an infectious waste service?

a. Closing the lid of a full sharps container in the examining room

b. Double-bagging regulated medical waste

c. Placing a biohazard bag in a cardboard box and sealing it

d. Storing a biohazard box in the front office for pickup by the medical waste service

ANS: D REF: pp. 43-45| CAAHEP Competency (2015): XII. OBJ: 19

44. What information is included on a regulated waste tracking form?

a. The type of waste

b. The quantity of waste in pounds

c. Where the waste is being sent

d. All of the above

ANS: D REF: pp. 43-45| CAAHEP Competency (2015): XII. OBJ: 19

45. The most likely means of contracting hepatitis B in the health care setting is through

a. contaminated food and water.

b. needlesticks and blood splashes.

c. handling contaminated equipment.

d. touching a patient infected with hepatitis B.

ANS: B REF: pp. 45-46| CAAHEP Competency (2015): I. OBJ: 20

46. What is the immunization schedule for the hepatitis B vaccine?

a. 0, 1 month, 2 months

b. 0, 2 months, 4 months

c. 0, 6 months, 12 months

d. 0, 1 month, 6 months

ANS: D REF: p. 44| CAAHEP Competency (2015): I. OBJ: 20

47. The most common side effect of the hepatitis B vaccine is

a. nausea.

b. hives.

c. irritability.

d. soreness at the injection site.

ANS: D REF: p. 44| CAAHEP Competency (2015): I. OBJ: 20

48. Patients with chronic hepatitis B face an increased risk of developing

a. liver cancer.

b. pancreatitis.

c. rheumatic heart disease.

d. gallstones.

ANS: A OBJ: 20

49. What is the most common means of transmission for hepatitis C?

a. Sharing needles for illegal injection drug use

b. Coughs and sneezes from an infected person

c. Sexual intercourse

d. Mosquitoes

ANS: A REF: p. 46| CAAHEP Competency (2015): I. OBJ: 20

50. What is the term for an infection that results from a defective immune system that cannot

defend itself from pathogens normally found in the environment?

a. Autoimmunity

b. Opportunistic

c. Contagious

d. Seropositive

ANS: B REF: pp. 46, 48| CAAHEP Competency (2015): I. OBJ: 22

51. Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome is caused by a

a. bacteria.

b. fungus.

c. parasite.

d. virus.

ANS: D REF: pp. 46, 48| CAAHEP Competency (2015): I. OBJ: 22

52. Treatment administered to an individual after exposure to an infectious disease to prevent the

disease is known as

a. immunization.

b. postexposure prophylaxis.

c. first aid measures.

d. antiviral drug therapy.

ANS: B REF: p. 46| CAAHEP Competency (2015): I. OBJ: 21

53. AIDS cannot be transmitted through

a. casual contact.

b. blood splashes.

c. sexual intercourse.

d. needlestick injuries.

ANS: A REF: p. 48| CAAHEP Competency (2015): I. OBJ: 22

MULTIPLE RESPONSE

1. When should clean disposable gloves to be used

a. When administering an injection

b. When performing a venipuncture

c. When performing a finger stick

d. When performing urinalysis

ANS: A, B, C, D REF: pp. 30, 35| CAAHEP Competency (2015): III. OBJ: 11

MATCHING

Directions: Match each word part meaning with its correct word part.

a. Aer/o

b. An-

c. Anti-

d. Enter/o

e. -gen

f. Micro-

g. Natal

h. Non-

i. Path/o

j. Peri-

k. Post-

l. Septic

1. After

2. Against

3. Air

4. Disease

5. Infection

6. Not

7. Pertaining to Birth

8. Producing

9. Small

10. Without

11. Intestine

1. ANS:

OBJ:

K

N/A

REF: p. 50| CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.9

2. ANS: C REF: p. 50| CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.9 OBJ: N/A
3. ANS: A REF: p. 50| CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.9 OBJ: N/A
4. ANS: I REF: p. 50| CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.9 OBJ: N/A
5. ANS: L REF: p. 316| CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.9 OBJ: N/A
6. ANS: H REF: p. 50| CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.9 OBJ: N/A
7. ANS: OBJ:

G

N/A

REF: p.^ 50|^ CAAHEP^ Competency^ (2015):^ V.9

8. ANS: E REF: p. 316| CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.9 OBJ: N/A
9. ANS: F REF: p. 50| CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.9 OBJ: N/A
10. ANS: B REF: p. 50| CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.9 OBJ: N/A
11. ANS: D REF: p. 50| CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.9 OBJ: N/A

Chapter 03: Sterilization and Disinfection

Bonewit-West: Clinical Procedures for Medical Assistants, 10th Edition

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Which of the following is used most often to sterilize articles in the medical office?

a. Dry heat oven

b. Ethylene oxide sterilizer

c. Autoclave

d. Chemical agents

ANS: C REF: p. 52| CAAHEP Competency (2015): III.4 OBJ: 11

2. The agent used to destroy microorganisms on an article depends on the

a. size of the article.

b. intended use of the article.

c. number of microorganisms present on the article.

d. weight of the article.

ANS: B REF: p. 52| CAAHEP Competency (2015): III.4 OBJ: 8

3. What is the term for an agent that kills disease-producing microorganisms and that usually is

applied to inanimate objects?

a. Disinfectant

b. Antiseptic

c. Fungicide

d. Detergent

ANS: A REF: p. 52| CAAHEP Competency (2015): III.4 OBJ: 7

4. Which of the following is a characteristic of bacterial spores?

a. They consist of a hard, thick-walled capsule.

b. They represent a resting and protective stage.

c. They are more resistant to heat.

d. They usually cannot be killed by disinfectants.

e. All of the above

ANS: E REF: p. 52| CAAHEP Competency (2015): III.1 OBJ: 7 | 11

5. Something that is sterile is free of

a. pathogens.

b. all living microorganisms.

c. all living microorganisms and spores.

d. nonpathogens.

ANS: C REF: pp. 52-53| CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.10 OBJ: 11

6. Which of the following is accomplished through sanitization?

a. Organic matter is removed from the article.

b. All microorganisms are removed from the article.

c. The article is sterilized.

d. Spores are killed.

ANS: A REF: p. 52| CAAHEP Competency (2015): III.8 OBJ: 4

7. The purpose of the Hazard Communications Standard (HCS) is to ensure that employees

a. do not come in contact with hazardous chemicals.

b. are protected from bloodborne pathogens in the workplace.

c. practice quality control when performing laboratory tests.

d. are informed of the hazards associated with chemicals in the workplace.

ANS: D REF: p. 53| CAAHEP Competency (2015): XII.6 OBJ: 1

8. According to the Hazard Communications Standard, which of the following must be included

on the label of a hazardous chemical?

a. Product identifier

b. Supplier identification

c. GHS signal word

d. GHS hazard statement

e. All of the above

ANS: E

OBJ: 1

9. Which of the following is true regarding the GHS?

a. It provides consistency in the classification and labeling of chemicals.

b. It classifies chemicals according to their health and physical hazards.

c. It enables employees to quickly obtain information regarding hazardous chemicals.

d. It is an international standard.

e. All of the above

ANS: E REF: p. 54| CAAHEP Competency (2015): III.5 OBJ: 2

10. All of the following are characteristics of GHS pictograms except :

a. They are standardized graphic symbols.

b. They allow for quick identification of hazards associated with chemicals.

c. They consist of eight different pictograms.

d. They identify the proper handling and storage of chemicals.

ANS: D REF: p. 54| CAAHEP Competency (2015): XII.1.b OBJ: 2

11. What is the term for a phrase that describes the recommended measures to be taken to

minimize or prevent adverse effects resulting from exposure to a hazardous chemical?

a. GHS hazard classification

OBJ: 6

b. GHS hazard statement

c. GHS precautionary statement

d. GHS signal word

ANS: C REF: p. 54| CAAHEP Competency (2015): XII.5 OBJ: 2

12. Which of the following is true regarding an SDS?

a. It provides information regarding hazardous chemicals.

b. It must be kept on file for each hazardous chemical stored in the workplace.

c. It must be readily available to employees.

d. It is available from the manufacturer of the hazardous chemical.

e. All of the above

ANS: E REF: pp. 55-59| CAAHEP Competency (2015): XII.5 OBJ: 3

13. Utility gloves over clean disposable gloves should be worn during the sanitization procedure

to protect the hands from

a. bloodborne pathogens.

b. infectious materials.

c. irritating chemicals.

d. All of the above

ANS: D REF: pp. 60-61| CAAHEP Competency (2015): III.6 OBJ: 6

14. Which of the following represents an error in technique during the sanitization procedure?

a. Using a low-sudsing detergent

b. Cleansing the grooves of hinged instruments using a wire brush

c. Using steel wool to remove stains from instruments

d. Checking instruments for proper working condition

ANS: C REF: pp. 60-61| CAAHEP Competency (2015): III.4 OBJ: 6

15. Why should a chemical not be used past its expiration date?

a. It may cause stains on an instrument.

b. It may lose its potency.

c. It may cause an instrument to malfunction

d. It may leave residue on an instrument

ANS: B REF: pp. 60-61| CAAHEP Competency (2015): I.12 OBJ: 6

16. What should be used when cleaning the surface of an instrument?

a. Antiseptic wipe

b. Nylon brush

c. Stainless-steel wire brush

d. Soft cloth

ANS: B REF: pp. 60-61| CAAHEP Competency (2015): III.4

ANS: D REF: pp. 66 - 67| CAAHEP Competency (2015): III.6

17. What is the purpose of lubricating an instrument?

a. It makes the instrument last longer and function better.

b. It prevents rusting of the instrument.

c. It assists in killing pathogens on the instrument.

d. It reduces the time needed to sterilize the instrument.

ANS: A REF: pp. 60-61| CAAHEP Competency (2015): I.12 OBJ: 6

18. High-level disinfection is a process that

a. destroys all pathogenic microorganisms.

b. destroys all microorganisms and spores.

c. destroys all microorganisms except tubercle bacilli.

d. destroys all microorganisms, but not spores.

ANS: D REF: p. 66| CAAHEP Competency (2015): III.4 OBJ: 7

19. Which of the following items requires high-level disinfection?

a. Stethoscope

b. Flexible fiberoptic sigmoidoscope

c. Surgical instruments

d. Examining table

ANS: B REF: p. 66| CAAHEP Competency (2015): III.4 OBJ: 7

20. Intermediate level disinfection inanctivates or kills all of the following except :

a. Tubercle bacilli

b. All vegetative bacteria

c. Bacterial spores

d. Most viruses

ANS: C REF: p. 66| CAAHEP Competency (2015): III.4 OBJ: 7

21. All of the following are examples of noncritical items except :

a. Percussion hammer

b. Nasal speculum

c. Stethoscope

d. Crutches

ANS: B REF: p. 66| CAAHEP Competency (2015): III.3 OBJ: 8

22. All of the following are guidelines for working with glutaraldehyde (Cidex) except:

a. When working in a well-ventilated area

b. When wearing safety goggles

c. When wearing utility gloves

d. When storing the glutaraldehyde container in a warm, dry area