Medical Terminology and Concepts, Exams of Nursing

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Alaska Medical Assistant Certification

Exam 2024 complete exam

requirement practice passed

questions and answers

What is something that people are commonly allergic to? - Correct answer Latex What does PASS stand for? - Correct answer P: Pull lock pin from its place A: Aim the nozzle at base of flames S: Squeeze handles together S: Sweep from side to side at base of flames How do you transfer a patient from bed to wheelchair? - Correct answer - Make sure wheelchair is placed close to the bed and locked

• Reach around patient's chest and lock hands behind the patient
• Bend your knees and keep back straight while you get the patient to stand up and have them pivot towards the chair. Keep your arms around them until the patient has sat down Which instruments are used to test range of motion? What is the difference between the 2? - Correct answer Goniometer & Inclinometer; Goniometer- measures less accurately and easily than an inclinometer; placed on both body parts between which the angle should be measured Inclinometer- Have numbers/ are digital & placed on the moving body part only How do you measure fat & where? - Correct answer - Use calipers
• Men: Measure fat at chest, abdominals, and thigh

• Women: Measure fat at triceps, suprailiac (about an inch above hip bone), and thigh Anthropometric measurements - Correct answer height, weight, BMI, body circumference How do you measure head circumference of child? - Correct answer put them in supine position and measure just above eyebrows & ears What is a Pap smear? - Correct answer swab cervix for cancerous cells (cytology); test for cervical cancer How do you pass a scalpel? - Correct answer Grasp the scalpel in the center od the handle with dominant hand. Firmly place the scalpel handle in the outstretched hand of assistant. What do you need for sutures? - Correct answer Needle holder, toothed forceps, and fine suturing scissors What is the compression-ventilation ratio in CPR for adults? For children? How many compressions per minute? - Correct answer Adults- 30: Children/ Infants- 15:2 (same for two-thumb technique) 100-120 compressions per minute Lithotomy position - Correct answer laying on back with feet in stirrups; Typically used for vaginal exams Supine position - Correct answer laying on back; Used for ECG Prone position - Correct answer lying face down; spine/ neck surgeries

Dorsal recumbent position - Correct answer lying on the back with the knees flexed; Examination of head, neck, lungs, breast, heart, etc. Sim's position - Correct answer have patient lie on their left side, left hip & lower extremity straight, & right hip & knee bent; Used for rectal exams Fowler's position - Correct answer patient is seated in semi-upright position; legs can be either bent or straight What is the best position for dyspnea? Why? - Correct answer Fowler's position; Facilitates the relaxing of tension of abdominal muscles, allowing for improved breathing What is Providine-Iodine? What is it derived from? - Correct answer AKA Betadine; used as antiseptic cleanser & found in contrast dyes for x-ray/ CT scanning. Derived from shellfish (possible allergen for those allergic to shellfish) What is the apical pulse? What does it represent? - Correct answer Measure of cardiac function that is completed by placing a stethoscope at apex of the heart & counting for 1 minute; Represents opening & closing of the valves in the heart. "Lub dub" - sound that makes up 1 heartbeat What is a pulse oximeter? - Correct answer Oximeter that measures the proportion of oxygenated hemoglobin in the blood in pulsating vessels, especially the capillaries of the finger or ear. What is the average BPM? - Correct answer 60-100 bpm What is the average respiration rate? - Correct answer 12-20 breaths per minute Which artery is used for BP? - Correct answer brachial artery

What is the name of the cuff used for BP? - Correct answer sphygmomanometer What is the normal BP range? - Correct answer less than 120/ 80 mmHg What is the hypotension range? - Correct answer systolic < 90, diastolic < 60 mmHg What is the elevated BP range? - Correct answer 120 to 129/ less than 80 mmHg What is the range for Stage 1 Hypertension? - Correct answer 130 to 139/ 80 to 89 mmHg What is the range for Stage 2 Hypertension? - Correct answer Equal to or greater than 140/ equal to or greater than 90 mmHg What is the range for a hypertensive crisis? - Correct answer greater than 180/ greater than 120 mmHg What do you do when a person is experiencing hypotension? - Correct answer put them in Trendelenburg position (inversion, returning blood to vital organs) What are Korotkoff sounds? How are they classified? - Correct answer - "Tapping" sounds heard with a stethoscope as the cuff is gradually deflated.

• Classified into 5 different phases: K-1 (tapping sound), K-2 (soft swishing sound), K-3 (crisp sound), K- 4 (blowing sound) & K-5 (silence) What is a tonometer? - Correct answer a tuning fork or other instrument for measuring the pitch of tones What is an otoscope used for? - Correct answer ear exam

What is an ophthalmoscope used for? - Correct answer eye exam What is a percussion hammer? - Correct answer Reflex hammer; used to test deep tendon reflexes What are forceps? - Correct answer Surgical tweezers used to grab tissue What is a curette? - Correct answer Scooping tool used to remove tissue What is curettage and electrodessication (C&E)? - Correct answer A procedure used to treat low-risk tumors & cancerous lesions; scrapes away cancerous tissue and destroys remaining cancer cells w/ electric needle What is dilation and curettage (D&C)? - Correct answer a surgical procedure often performed after a first-trimester miscarriage; dilation refers to opening up the cervix & curettage refers to removing the contents of the uterus What is the tray sterile field? - Correct answer 1" boundary to touch How do you wrap an ankle? - Correct answer Using an ACE bandage, go from the bottom up in a figure-8 pattern When and how do you remove sutures? - Correct answer Usually after 2 weeks; using forceps & stitch scissors What is cryosurgery? - Correct answer The use of extreme cold in surgery to destroy abnormal or diseased tissue (as by liquid nitrogen)

How do you carry out the process of ear irrigation/ ear syringing technique? What can happen if you do it incorrectly? - Correct answer - Position ear, pull back on pinna of ear to straighten ear canal

• Use warm water, body temperature
• Patient could experience vertigo as symptom of ear wax buildup or cold water used Eye irrigation - Correct answer 15 minutes flushing at eye station What is a sigmoidoscopy? - Correct answer minimally invasive exam of large intestine from the rectum to the nearest part of colon, sigmoid colon What is a colonoscopy? - Correct answer exam of entire colon Medication is inventoried by... - Correct answer expiration date Topical ROA - Correct answer administered externally to the skin; ex. lidocaine Enteral ROA - Correct answer system-wide effect, delivered through GI tract Parenteral ROA - Correct answer systemic action, routes other than GI tract Transdermal ROA (AKA?) - Correct answer delivered across or through the skin for systemic effects, typically by using an adhesive patch; AKA percutaneous administration Who puts out the vaccine/ immunization schedule? - Correct answer CDC What is naturally acquired passive immunity? - Correct answer occurs during pregnancy, in which certain antibodies are passed from the maternal blood into the fetal bloodstream in the form of IgG

What is passive immunity? - Correct answer found in human colostrum & milk of babies who are nursed, providing local protection against disease causing bacteria and viruses until the newborn can synthesize its own antibodies; can also be in the form of IgA and IgG What is naturally acquired active immunity? - Correct answer Occurs when the person is exposed to a live pathogen, develops the disease, and becomes immune because of the primary immune response What is artificially acquired active immunity? - Correct answer Can be induced by a vaccine, a substance that contains the antigen Needle gauges/ Angle of administration - Correct answer IM 18-21/ 90 degrees Subcut 21-25/ 45 degrees (insulin 90 degrees) ID 25-27/ 15 degrees Intramuscular (IM) Injection gauge, needle length, angle to skin & location - Correct answer Gauge: 18- Needle length: 1-1.5" Angle: 90degrees Location: deltoid if dosage < or = 1 ml or cc, ventrogluteal if dosage > 1 ml or cc, vastus lateralis (often pediatric dosage) What do you do if the dosage is 4 cc or greater? - Correct answer Consider splitting the dosage into 2 separate injections; separate injections by a few inches on same side and/ or administer contralaterally What does separating injections allow? - Correct answer Allows for an allergic reaction to be witnessed

Subcutaneous fat (Subcut) Injection gauge, needle length, angle to skin & location - Correct answer Gauge: 21- Needle length: 3/8-5/8" Angle: 45 degrees, 90 degrees only for insulin Location: side (or back) of upper arm, lower stomach/ abdomen, thigh Intradermal (ID) Injection gauge, needle length, angle to skin & location - Correct answer Gauge: 25- Needle length: 1/2" Angle: 10-15 degrees Location: forearm What is the goal of an ID injection? What happens if it flattens or bleeds out? - Correct answer To create a WHEAL (noticeable bleb) between the epidermis and dermis layers of the skin; repeat ID injection on opposite forearm if it flattens or bleeds out TB test administration - Correct answer AKA Mantoux test, TST, IPPD or PPD injection 0.1ml volume is placed between epidermis and dermis of skin Drug math (dosage) - Correct answer DO/ DA x mL (dose ordered/ dose available multiplied by amount of mL in vial) Conversion from lbs to kg - Correct answer lbs/2.2 = kg Conversion from kg to lbs - Correct answer 1 kg = 2.2 lbs Conversion from tsp to ml - Correct answer multiply tsp by 4.

What does HIPAA stand for? What does it do? - Correct answer Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act; patient confidentiality, keep personal info to yourself; regulates who has the right to one's medical records and sets standards on storing & transmitting records & must have signed consent to release records. What does ROI stand for? - Correct answer release of information Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) - Correct answer Under the ADA, employers are required to provide reasonable accommodations to qualified employees with disabilities, unless doing so would pose an undue hardship What does informed consent mean? - Correct answer informed of risks, outcomes, alternatives and patient has given permission. Patient can refuse at any time. What is fraud? - Correct answer Legal tort that involves deception with the intent to deprive another person of his rights What happens when a minor is "emancipated"? - Correct answer The minor assumes most adult responsibilities before reaching the age of majority (usually 18). Take responsibility for their own care. At what age can young patients be seen without a parent for a well visit? - Correct answer 16-18 years old Minors' access to sexually transmitted infection (STI) services - Correct answer All 5o states and DC explicitly allow minors to consent to STI services, although 11 states require a minor to be of a certain age (generally 12 or 14) before being allowed to consent What is battery? - Correct answer Touching a patient without patients consent

What are some forms of intentional tort? - Correct answer battery, assault, defamation of character (slander, verbal; libel, written), invasion of privacy, administering without consent 4 D's of Negligence - Correct answer - a DUTY existed

• there was DERELICTION of duty/ failure to fulfill obligations
• the misconduct was DIRECT CAUSE of injury
• DAMAGES (often substantial) occurred because of misconduct What is negligence? - Correct answer failing to do what a careful/ reasonable person would do (common tort in medical malpractice) What are the most common malpractice cases? - Correct answer misdiagnosis/ delayed diagnosis, childbirth injuries, medication errors, surgery errors, anesthesia errors What is a durable power of attorney? - Correct answer The document stays in effect if you become incapacitated and unable to handle matters on your own What are advanced directives? - Correct answer legal documents that allow you to spell out your decisions about end-of-life care ahead of time. They give you a way to tell your wishes to family, friends and health care professionals and avoid confusion later on What is a "palliative care plan"? - Correct answer Focused on providing relief from the symptoms and stress of a serious illness, often using analgesics (opiate meds, pain relievers) What is the most common critical mistake when it comes to testing and lab procedures? - Correct answer Patient misidentification What is a 'quality assurance'? - Correct answer A way of preventing mistakes or defects in the process, process oriented

What is a peak flow meter? - Correct answer A portable, inexpensive, hand-held device used to measure how air flows from your lungs in one "fast blast"; meter that measures your ability to push air out of your lungs What does spirometry measure? - Correct answer Forced Vital Capacity (FVC) and Forced Expiratory Volume (FEV1) What is forced vital capacity (FVC)? - Correct answer the largest amount of air that you can blow out after you take your biggest breath in What is forced expiratory volume (FEV1)? - Correct answer the amount of air you can blow out of your lungs in the first second What does an EEG show? - Correct answer electrical activity of the brain What is the snellen chart used for? - Correct answer distance vision What is classified as "visual impairment"? - Correct answer a visual acuity of 20/50 or worse in the better-seeing eye What do OD, OS and OU stand for? - Correct answer OD- right OS- left OU- both What is myopia? - Correct answer nearsightedness What is hyperopia? - Correct answer farsightedness

What is presbyopia? - Correct answer hardening of eye lens, difficulty focusing on close objects What is the Ishihara test? - Correct answer test for color blindness What is the order of specimens? - Correct answer Time-sensitive specimens first, then STAT test Tourniquet duration and location - Correct answer 1 minute, tied 3-4 inches above site of collection Pumping your fist during venipuncture can cause what? - Correct answer Inaccurate results, increased K+ potassium levels What do you do if the patient develops a hematoma during venipuncture? - Correct answer (bruise) release tourniquet, stop procedure, apply pressure and cold pack What needle is used when drawing blood on dorsum hand or elderly patient? - Correct answer winged-infusion set, aka butterfly needle What does SST stand for? - Correct answer serum separating tube (tiger top) What is the draw order of tubes? - Correct answer Yellow Light Blue Red Gold Tiger Green Lavender

Pink Navy Gray Yellow tube tests... - Correct answer blood culture Light blue tube additive and test - Correct answer Additive: Sodium Citrate Test: PT (prothrombin time) & PTT Lavender tube test & additive - Correct answer CBC; EDTA Navy tube tests... - Correct answer heavy metal What does BAL stand for? - Correct answer blood alcohol level What does hCG measure? - Correct answer pregnancy hormone What does ESR stand for? - Correct answer erythrocyte sedimentation rate; hematology test What does CBC stand for? - Correct answer complete blood count; measuring whole blood for WBC & RBC count (lavender tube) What is the hemoglobin A1c test for? What test tube is used? - Correct answer tells you your average level of blood sugar over the past 2 to 3 months; also used to diagnose diabetes; lavender What is Phenylketonuria (PKU)? - Correct answer an inborn error of metabolism that results in decreased metabolism of the amino acid phenylalanine

What is an International Normalized Ratio (INR)? What is considered a normal INR? - Correct answer a prothrombin time test, time taken for blood to clot; In healthy people an INR of 1.1 or below is considered normal What is C&S and what lab section is it included in? - Correct answer culture and sensitivity; microbiology What is FBG and what lab section is it included in? - Correct answer fasting blood glucose; chemistry What is WBC and what lab section is it included in? - Correct answer white blood cell; hematology Type and cross match is under what lab section? - Correct answer Blood banking Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA) - Correct answer apply to all clinical laboratory testing performed on humans in the U.S., except clinical trials and basic research POC testing includes - Correct answer bedside tests, immediate results Capillary sample draw order - Correct answer Blood gases, EDTA, other additives, serum-clot activator, non-additives How do you prep a finger for dermal test? - Correct answer Warm finger to increase blood flow, prick finger with lacet, wipe first blood What is hemolysis? - Correct answer rupture of blood cells, contamination of specimen with tissue fluids

Best way to get urine sample - Correct answer clean-catch midstream 24 hour urine is used for what? - Correct answer To detect kidney problems EKG speed - Correct answer 25 mm/ sec ECG paper measurements - Correct answer each small square is 1 mm and represents 0.04 seconds. Each larger square is 5 mm and represents 0.2 seconds 1500 method for EKG analysis - Correct answer Count the number of small squares between two consecutive R waves and divide 1500 by that number 6 second strip method for EKG analysis - Correct answer Count the number of R waves in a 6 second strip and multiply by 10 Tachycardia - Correct answer BPM > 100 Bradycardia - Correct answer BPM < 60 Order of ECG waveform - Correct answer P, QRS complex, T ECG interval ranges for P-R interval and QRS width - Correct answer P-R interval: 0.12-0.20 sec (3- small squares) QRS width: 0.08-0.12 sec (2-3 small squares) What are electrodes used for in ECG? - Correct answer to detect the electrical activity of the heart

Know your precordial lead placement - Correct answer V1: 4th intercostal space (ICS), RIGHT margin of the sternum. V2: 4th ICS along the LEFT margin of the sternum. V4: 5th ICS, mid-clavicular line. V3: midway between V2 and V4. V5: 5th ICS, anterior axillary line (same level as V4) V6: 5th ICS, mid-axillary line (same level as V4) Which is the ground lead for EKG? - Correct answer right leg What do you do if the patient is diaphoretic, sweating heavily during EKG? - Correct answer Dry skin when placing electrodes Somatic tremor is due to... - Correct answer body movement Wandering baseline is due to... - Correct answer impeded electrode What is ischemia? - Correct answer reduced blood flow supply to an organ Prolonged ischemia can cause what? - Correct answer Necrosis—localized death of tissue aka infarction related to heart attack (MI- myocardial infarction) Ambulatory EKG monitoring - Correct answer allows us to monitor a patient's HR, rhythm and QRST morphology during their normal daily activities

Holter monitor - Correct answer 3/5 lead EKG; usually worn for 24 hours; used to rule out intermittent arrhythmias; portable machine; records a continuous EKG on a magnetic tape *keep a diary of changes throughout the day Holter placement - Correct answer White right. Snow over grass. Brown ground. Smoke over fire Event monitoring - Correct answer Only records during symptoms that the patient feels; patient controls when recoding occurs When should you terminate a GXT, a graded exercise test? - Correct answer At the sign of any heart dysrhythmia How long does a Holter monitor record? - Correct answer 24-48 hours, leads go on chest and abdomen SA node is the.. - Correct answer pacemaker of the heart What does EMR/ EHR stand for? - Correct answer Electronic Medical Record/Electronic Health Record What does POMR stand for? - Correct answer problem-oriented medical record SOAP method of charting - Correct answer Subjective (chief concern, history of present illness, medical/surgical/family history) Objective (physical examination, lab and test data) Assessment Plan What is a tickler file? - Correct answer A chronological file used as a reminder

Clustering schedule - Correct answer booking based on subject, conditions Wave scheduling - Correct answer A certain # of patients are scheduled to arrive at the same time and are seen in which the order they arrive. Modified wave scheduling - Correct answer system where multiple patients are scheduled at the beginning of each hour, followed by single appointments every 10 to 20 minutes the rest of the hour Double booking - Correct answer Scheduling two patients to see the physician at the same time Appointment time intervals - Correct answer 15 min intervals for internal visit or Est patients 30 min intervals for new pt., external visit What is an Advance Beneficiary Notice (ABN) - Correct answer AKA waver of liability; a notice a provider should give you before you receive a service if, based on Medicare coverage rules, your provider has reason to believe Medicare will not pay for the service What happens if an ABN waiver is denied? - Correct answer Patient could be responsible for payment (out-of-pocket) What is the ICD-10? - Correct answer International Classification of Diseases; medical classification list that contains codes for diseases, signs and symptoms, abnormal findings, complaints, etc. What are the 2 parts of the ICD-10? - Correct answer First part: Index to Diseases and Injuries. Alphabetic Index provides index for diagnostic statement & disease descriptions found in second major part, Tabular List

What is Current Procedural Terminology (CPT)? - Correct answer A medical code set that is used to report medical, surgical, and diagnostic procedures and services to entities such as physicians, health insurance companies and accreditation organizations What are CPT modifiers? - Correct answer used to supplement information or adjust care descriptions to provide extra details concerning a procedure or service provided by a physician How does CPT define a new patient? - Correct answer One who has not received any professional services from the physician, or another physician of the same specialty who belongs to the same group practice within the past 3 years What is the extension of CPT including more products/ supplies/ services not included in CPT called? - Correct answer HCPCS (healthcare common procedure coding system) What is the CMS 1500? What are the two blocks? - Correct answer universal claim form for outpatient medical billing Block 1-13: patient and insurance block Block 14-33: Provider/ Supplier info What are the 2 common mistakes in coding? - Correct answer Unbundling codes: Using multiple codes when there is a single code available that captures payment for component parts of a procedure Upcoding: Billing for a certain service when you are providing less than what you billed for Standards for hospitals set by the Joint Commission - Correct answer Accreditation PPO insurance - Correct answer Preferred provider organization; no PCP referrals needed for specialists, more freedom

HMO insurance - Correct answer health maintenance organization; patient has PCP to send referrals to specialists when needed, some which may require immediate approval Who tests Arterial Blood Gas (ABG)? - Correct answer Nurse This test measures oxygen and carbon dioxide levels in your blood Lipemic blood - Correct answer Serum has milky appearance, high concentration of lipids in blood Hemolytic blood - Correct answer serum has bloody appearance, RBC are hemolyzed Cyanotic condition - Correct answer any condition causing lack of oxygen, causing skin to turn blue Ecchymosis - Correct answer discoloration of skin resulting from bleeding underneath, usually caused by bruising What does post prandial mean? - Correct answer after a meal What is edema? - Correct answer excessive fluid between tissues (swelling) Dysuria vs. Hematuria - Correct answer Dysuria- painful urine Hematuria- bloody urine What is alopecia? - Correct answer hair loss

The cause of a disease or condition - Correct answer etiology Hematemesis - Correct answer vomiting blood Air/ swallowing, goes to stomach and causing bloating/ belching/ pain - Correct answer aerophagia febrile vs afebrile - Correct answer fever vs no fever Dermatitis - Correct answer inflammation of the skin A red, itchy rash caused by direct contact with a substance or an allergic reaction to it - Correct answer contact dermatitis Bleeding from the nose - Correct answer epistaxis Softening of the bone - Correct answer Osteomalacia Weak & brittle bones is called.. - Correct answer osteoporosis What is cirrhosis? Who is mostly at risk? - Correct answer chronic liver damage; chronic alcohol abusers What is nephrolithiasis? - Correct answer kidney stones What is pyelonephritis? - Correct answer kidney infection

What is uremia? - Correct answer urea in the blood What is the axillary region? - Correct answer armpit What is CABG surgery and what happens during it? - Correct answer coronary artery bypass graft surgery; improves blood flow to the heart following coronary artery disease where fatty deposits restrict blood flow pericarditis - Correct answer inflammation of the pericardium What is a colostomy? - Correct answer A surgical procedure that brings one end of the large intestine out through the abdominal wall What is a colectomy? - Correct answer removal of the colon What is anaphylaxis? What are symptoms? - Correct answer severe allergy; symptoms include urticaria (hives), erythema (redness of skin), pruritus (itchy skin) and angioedema (swelling underneath skin) scler/o- - Correct answer hard thromb/o - Correct answer clot hem/o - Correct answer blood sten/o- - Correct answer narrowing

a/an - Correct answer without ambi - Correct answer both bi/di - Correct answer two brady- - Correct answer slow hemi - Correct answer half mega - Correct answer large micro - Correct answer small mono- - Correct answer one eu- - Correct answer normal hyper- - Correct answer more, increased hypo- - Correct answer less, decreased infra- - Correct answer below, beneath meta- - Correct answer change

supra- - Correct answer excessive, outside super- - Correct answer excessive, more ultra- - Correct answer excessive per- - Correct answer through post- - Correct answer after pre- - Correct answer before re- - Correct answer again, back retro- - Correct answer backward, behind multi- - Correct answer many olig- - Correct answer few pari- - Correct answer all poly- - Correct answer many

quadra/tetra- - Correct answer four semi- - Correct answer half tachy- - Correct answer fast tri- - Correct answer three uni- - Correct answer single/ one ab- - Correct answer away from ad- - Correct answer toward anti-/contra- - Correct answer against circum-/peri- - Correct answer around de- - Correct answer not/down dia- - Correct answer through, across epi- - Correct answer upon, above para- - Correct answer along, beside