Medical Terminology and Concepts, Exams of Nursing

Download Medical Terminology and Concepts and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! 1 / 33 NUR 631 Patho Questions with Correct Answers 1.An Increase in extracellular potassium ion from 4.0 to 6.0mEq/L would? A. Make it more difficult to reach threshold and produce an action potential B. Hypopolarize the resting membrane potential C. Alter the threshold potential D. Hyperpolarize the resting membrane potential: B. Hypopolarize the resting membrane potential 2.Glycolysis is the metabolic process of breaking down a glucose molecule to form? A. 30 ATP B. 2 ATP and 2 pyruvate C. CO2 and H20: B. 2 ATP and 2 pyruvate 3.Characteristics of smooth muscles include? A. Contraction being short-lived B. Veing under voluntary control C. Being found in blood vessels D. Having striations: C. Being found in blood vessels 4.Results of biochemical tests indicate an infant has PKU. The parents ask what PKU means. Which indicates the nurse needs to review this information? A. PKU results from a chromosome abnormality called nondisjunction B. PKU is an inborn error of metabolism C. PKU is transmitted as an autosomal-recessive disorder D. PKU is an anzyme deficiency resulting in the inability to metabolize pheny- lalanine: A. PKU results from a chromosome abnormality called nondisjunction 5.Which of the following correctly match intracellular organelles to their function? A. Lysosomes: Digest organic waste materials B. Mitochondria: Produce proteins: A. Lysosomes: Digest organic waste materials 6.Approximately what percentage of the human DNA chromosomes code 2 / 33 for proteins? A. 10% B. 1% C. 80% D. 50%: B. 1% 7.Your patient's red blood cell count is slightly elevated today. This might be explained by the following EXCEPT? A. Illness B. Normal variation C. Cultural variation: C. Cultural variation 8.The stage during which the patient functions normally, although the disease processes are well established, is referred to as? A. Convalescence B. Prodromal C. Subclinical D. Latent: C. Subclinical 9.Which tissue type is categorized as epithelial? A. Blood vessel endothelium B.Tendons and ligaments C. Blood cells D. Cartilage: A. Blood vessel endothelium 10.When a child inherits a disease that is autosomal recessive, it is inherited from? A. Father B. Mother C. Both parents D. Grandparents: C. Both parents 11.What process causes heat and redness to occur during the inflammatory process? A. Vasodilation of blood vessels B. Platelet aggregation C. Decreased capillary permeability D. Endothelial cell contraction: A. Vasodilation of blood vessels 12.Mr. K is a 66-year-old pigeon farmer who presents with fever, cough, 5 / 33 B. Alloimmune disease in which maternal and fetal blood are antigenically incompatible C. Autoimmune disease in immature nucleated cells that are released into the bloodstream: B. Alloimmune disease in which maternal and fetal blood are antigenically incompatible 19.Which HIV-positive patient should be given a diagnosis of AIDS? A. One who has a CD4 count of 300/µl B. One who has neuropathy C. One who has Mycobacterium tuberculosis D. One who has genital herpes: C. One who has Mycobacterium tuberculosis 20.The common hay fever allergy is expressed through a reaction that is mediated by which class of immunoglobulins? A. IgE B. IgG C. IgM: A. IgE 21.Fully compensated respiratory acidosis is demonstrated by? A. pH 7.36, PaCO2 55, HCO3- 36 B. pH 7.45, PaCO2 40, HCO3- 28 C. pH 7.26, PaCO2 60, HCO3- 26 D. pH 7.40, PaCO2 40, HCO3- 24: A. pH 7.36, PaCO2 55, HCO3- 36 22.Hypernatremia may be caused by? A. Excessive dietary potassium B. Decreased aldosterone secretion C. Compulsive water drinking D. Decreased antidiuretic hormone secretion: C. Compulsive water drinking 23.A patient has a serum sodium level of 165 mEq/L. The health care pro- fessional explains that the clinical manifestations of confusion, convulsions, cerebral hemorrhage, and coma are caused by what mechanism? A. High sodium in the blood vessels pulls water out of the brain into the blood vessels, causing brain cells to shrink. B. High sodium in the brain cells pulls water out of the blood vessels in the brain, causing them to swell. C. Low sodium in the blood vessels pulls potassium out of the brain 6 / 33 cells, which slows the synapses in the brain 7 / 33 D. Low sodium in the blood vessels draws chloride into brain cells followed by water, causing brain cells to swell: A. High sodium in the blood vessels pulls water out of the brain into the blood vessels, causing brain cells to shrink 24.In addition to osmosis, what force is involved in the movement of water between the plasma and interstitial fluid spaces? A. Oncotic pressure B. Buffering C. Net filtration D. Hydrostatic pressure: D. Hydrostatic pressure 25.Effects of hypernatremia on the central nervous system typically include? A. Confusion B. Excitation C. Insomnia D. Hallucinations: A. Confusion 26.Why are infants most susceptible to significant losses in total body water? A. Low body surface-to-body ration B. Slow metabolic rate C. Kidneys are not mature enough to counter fluid loss D. Inability to communicate adequately when he or she is thirsty: C. Kidneys are not mature enough to counter fluid loss 27.The electrolyte that has a higher concentration in the extracellular fluid than in the intracellular fluid is ions? A. Sodium B. Phosphate C. Magnesium D. Potassium: A. Sodium 28.Metabolic alkalosis is often accompanied by? A. Hypernatremia B. Hypokalemia C. Hyponatremia D. Hyperkalemia: B. Hypokalemia 29.The movement of fluid across the arterial end of capillary membranes 10 / 33 with? 11 / 33 A. DIC B. Hemophilia C. Liver dysfunction D.Thrombocytopenia: B. Hemophilia 36.Thalassemia may be confused with iron-deficiency anemia because they are both ? A. Responsive to bone marrow transplant B. Genetic C. Microcytic D. Hyperchromic: C. Microcytic 37.A laboratory test finding helpful in confirming the diagnosis of iron- defi- ciency anemia is? A. Positive direct or indirect coombs test B. Elevated MCHC and MCV C. Elevated total and indirect bilirubin D. Elevated total iron-binding capacity: D. Elevated total iron-binding capacity 38.A patient is preparing for treatment with CAR-T. What statement by the patient indicates good understanding if this process? A.This treatment uses genetically engineered immune system cells B. Like chemo, nausea and vomiting are common during treatment C. I will have bone marrow suppression caused by high-dose radiation D. I will receive treatment with specially designed monoclonal antibodies: A. This treatment uses genetically engineered immune system cells 39.Widespread activation of the clotting cascade secondary to massive trau- ma is called? A. Idopathic thrombocytopenia purpura B. Hageman disease C. Hemophilia B D. DIC: D. DIC 40.Breast cancer in women who have the breast cancer gene? A. Is more common than non-inherited breast cancer B. Occurs at an earlier age 12 / 33 C. Is more likely to be unilateral D. Is more responsive to treatment: B. Occurs at an earlier stage 41.Most endocrine hormones are water-soluble and exert their effects on target cells by? A. Binding to intracellular receptors B. Generating second messengers C. Stimulating action potentials D. Binding to nuclear receptors: B. Generating second messengers 42.Which hormone is regulated by releasing and inhibiting factors from the hypothalamus? A. Oxytocin B. Aldosterone C. Vasopressin D. ACTH: D. ACTH 43.An immobile patient should be treated with an extra g of protein daily? A. 2 to 4 B. 4 to 6 C. 7 to 9 D. 10 to 15: D. 10 to 15 44.Growth hormone has several effects on the body, including? A. Increasing lean body mass B. Depressing immune function C. Decreasing plasma glucose level D. Enhancing deposit of fat: A. Increasing lean body mass 45.The nutritional effects of cancer can be severe and result in? A. Cachexia B. Malnutrition C. Anorexia D. Catabolism: A. Cachexia 46.What indicator is most helpful in evaluating long-term blood glucose man- agement in patients with DM? A. Clinical manifestations of hyperglycemia 15 / 33 58.The language center in most individuals is located in the? A. Right hemisphere 16 / 33 B. Left hemisphere C. Limbic area D. Frontal lobe: B. Left hemisphere 59.Which statement is true about the incidence of multiple sclerosis? A.There is a higher rate of MS in African Americans B.There is higher incidence of MS in military veterans C.The age of onset ranges from 20-40 years D. MS is more common in men than women: C. The age of onset ranges from 20-40 years 60.A tool used to assess levels of consciousness is? A. Glasgow Coma Scale (GSW) B. Central perfusion pressure (CPP) C. Intracranial pressure (ICP) monitoring D. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI): A. Glasgow Coma Scale (GSW) 61.Which statement is true about the incidence of mental illness? A.There are minimal differences in how culture view mental health B. Men are more likely to suffer from depression and anxiety than women are C. Mood disorders are not likely to occur after the age of 65 D.Women have twice the risk of experiencing anxiety disorders than men: D. Women have twice the risk of experiencing anxiety disorders than men 62.It is true that panic disorders? A. Are diagnosed more often in men B. Generally occur after age 45 C. Are diagnosed more often in women D. Are common in the elderly: C. Are diagnosed more often in women 63.The action of most antidepressants currently available is to? A. Improve brain norepinephrine and serotonin activity B. Inhibit norepinephrine and serotonin activity C. Convert into catecholamines in the brain D. Block D2 receptors in the brain: A. Improve brain norepinephrine and serotonin activity 64.Persistent, intrusive, uncontrollable thoughts that an individual recognizes as a product of his or her own mind are called? 17 / 33 A. Compulsions B. Hallucinations C. Delusions D. Obsessions: D. Obsessions 65.A mild form of hyperactivity in which social functioning is not significantly impaired is called? A. Dysthymia B. Anhedonia C. Dysphoria D. Hypomania: D. Hypomania 66.The gate control theory of pain transmission predicts the activity in touch receptors will? A. Enhance perception of pain B. Decrease pain signal in the spinal cord C. Increase secretion of substance P in the spinal cord D. Activate opioid receptors in the CNS: B. Decrease pain signal in the spinal cord 67.The usual age of onset for schizophrenia in men is? A. Before puberty B. After 65 years C. 40 to 65 years D. 15 to 25 years: D. 15 to 25 years 68.When a client is diagnosed with schizophrenia and asks what could have caused the disorder, the following statement could serve as a basis for an- swering EXCEPT: A. Symptoms of schizophrenia may be associated with smoking B. Schizophrenia often develops in the absence of family psychopathology C. Schizophrenia may be related to abnormal cerebral structure D. Chronic prolonged stress may contribute to development of schizophrenia- : A. Symptoms of schizophrenia may be associated with smoking 69.Early treatment of panic anxiety disorder focuses on? A. Cognitive-behavioral therapy B. Dopamine antagonistic medications C.The use of sedative agents 20 / 33 D. Coronary veins: B. Pulmonary veins 21 / 33 76.Which causes vasoconstriction? A. Norepinephrine B. Calcium channel blocker C. Alpha-Adrenergic antagonist D. Acetylcholine: A. Norepinephrine 77.The presence of a patent foramen ovale in a fetus allows what to occur? A. Right to left blood shunting B. Left to right blood shunting C. Blood flow from the umbilical cord D. Blood flow to the lungs: A. Right to left blood shunting 78.What period follows depolarization of the myocardium and represents a period during which no new cardiac potential can be propagated? A. Refractory/resting B. Hyperpolarization C. Threshold D. Sinoatrial: A. Refractory/resting 79.Which chamber of the heart endures the highest pressures? A. Right atrium B. Left atrium C. Left D. Right ventricle: C. Left ventricle 80.Which statement best describes thromboangitis obliterans (Burerger dis- ease)? A. Inflammatory disorder of small and medium size arteries in the feet and sometimes in the hands B.Vasospastic disorder of the small arteries and arterioles of the fingers and, less commonly, of the toes C. Autoimmune disorder of the large arteries and veins of the uppers and lower extremities D. neoplastic disorder of the lining of the arteries and veins of the upper extreq: A. Inflammatory disorder of small and medium size arteries in the feet and sometimes in the hands 81.Which bacterium grows in the intestines after prolonged antibiotic thera- py? 22 / 33 A. Lactobacillus B. Candida albicans C. C-Diff D. H. Pylori: C. C-diff 82.Celiac sprue is a malabsorptive disorder associated with? A. Ulceration of the distal colon and rectum B. Megacolon at regions of autonomic denervation C. Inflammatory reaction to gluten-containing foods D. Deficient production of pancreatic enzymes: C. Inflammatory reaction to gluten-containing foods 83.Acute pain at McBurney's point is indicative of? A. Appendicitis B. Peritonitis C. Cholecystitis D> Gastritis: A. Appendicitis 84.The propulsive movement of the GI tract is called? A. Peristalsis B. Contraction C. Transmission D. Constriction: A> Peristalsis 85.Congenital aganglionic megacolon (Hirschsprung disease) involves inad- equate motility of the colon caused by neural malformation of which nervous system? A. Central B. Parasympathetic C. Sympathetic D. Somatic: B. Parasympathetic 86.The most common clinical manifestation of portal hypertension is what type of bleeding? A. Rectal B. Duodenal C. Esophageal D. Intestinal: C. Esophageal 25 / 33 93.Croup is characterized by? A. A productive cough B. A barking cough C. An inability to cough D. Drooling, sore throat, and difficulty swallowing: B. Barking cough 94.A health care professional is educating a community parent group and informs them that which type of croup is most common? A. Bacterial B. Viral C. Fungal: B. Viral 95.Virchow's triad can result in? A. Bronchoconstriction B. Alveolar Collapse C. Decreased pulmonary arterial pressure D. Pulmonary embolus: D. Pulmonary embolus 96.The learner asks a professor to explain how TB can remain dormant in some people. What explanation by the professor is best? A. It does not remain dormant, but some host defenses can kill the bacteria B.The bacilli can become isolated within tubercles in the lungs C. Macrophages attack and phagocytize new areas of infection D.Virulence factors in the bacilli weaken over time leading to apoptosis: B. The bacilli can become isolated within tubercles in the lungs 97.What medical term is used for a condition that results from pulmonary hypertension, creating chronic pressure overload in the right ventricle? A. Hypoxemia B. Hypoxia C. Bronchiectasis D. Cor pulmonale: D. Cor pulmonale 98.Which immunoglobin (Ig) may contribute to the pathophysiologic charac- teristics of asthma? A. IgA B. IgE 26 / 33 C. IgG D. IgM: B. IgE 99.A patient has been diagnosed with pneumoconiosis and asks the health care professional to explain this disease. What descriptions by the profession- al is best? A. A pneumococci bacteria B. Inhalation of inorganic dust particles C. Exposure to asbestos D. Inhalation of cigarette smoke: B. Inhalation of inorganic dust particles 100. What is FALSE about epiglottitis? A. Is characterized by pain with swallowing B. Generally, resolves without intervention C. Is usually caused by H. influenza type B D. Can be caused by bacterial infection: B. Generally resolves without interven- tion 101. The condition associated with end-stage chronic renal disease that is the most immediately life threatening is? A. Hyperkalemia B. Increased creatinine C. Hypertension D. Azotemia: A. Hyperkalemia 102. Which group is at the highest for UTI? A. Adult males B. Patients taking diuretics C. Sexually active women D. Infants and children: C. Sexually active women 103. It is true that glucose reabsorption in the tubule? A. Occurs in the proximal convoluted tubule B. Is unlimited C. Occurs passively D. Simply does not occur: A. Occurs in the proximal convoluted tubule 104. The microorganism that causes the vast majority of UTIs is? A. Herpes simplex virus 27 / 33 B. Klebsiella C. Candida albicans D. E. Coli: D. E. Coli 105. Gastrointestinal drainage, perioperative and postoperative hypotension, and hemorrhage may all contribute to renal failure by causing? A. Acute tubular necrosis B. Renal inflammation C. Hydronephrosis D. Nephrosis: A. Acute tubular necrosis 106. Prerenal acute kidney injury may be caused by? A. Severe hypotension B. Glomerulonephritis C. Bilateral kidney stones D. Acute tubular necrosis: Severe hypotension 107. Glomerular disorders include? A. Nephrotic syndrome B. Obstructive uropathy C. Interstitial cystitis D. Pyelonephritis: A. Nephrotic syndrome 108. Which condition is caused by a genetic defect? A. Polycystic kidney disease B. Incontinence C. Acute pyelonephritis D. Hydroureter: A. Polycystic kidney disease 109. The infection frequently associated with development of postinfectious acute glomerulonephritis is? A.Throat infection B. Endocarditis C. Pneumonia D. UTI: A. Throat infection 110. The patient most at risk for postrenal acute kidney injury is a(n)? A. Elderly patient with hypertrophy of the prostate 30 / 33 A. Immune mechanisms leading to widespread joint inflammation 31 / 33 B. Loss of articular cartilage in weight bearing joints C. Excessive bone remodeling leading to soft bone D. Inflammation, stiffness, and fusion of spinal joints: D. Inflammation, stiffness, and fusion of spinal joints 117. Complete healing of a bone fracture occurs when? A.The fracture site and surrounding soft tissue are pain free B. No movement of the break is detectable C.The callus has been completely replaced with mature bone D. A cast is no longer required to stabilize the break: C. The callus has been completely replaced with mature bone 118. The most common symptom of multiple myeloma is? A. Bone pain B. Osteomyelitis C. Fever D> Rash: A. Bone pain 119. The disorder characterized by softening and then enlargement of bones is referred to as ? A. Osteoporosis B. Rickets C. Osteomyelitis D. Paget Disease: D. Paget Disease 120. A unique characteristic feature of fibromyalgia is the presence of? A. Head pain B.Tender joint pain C. Contractures D. Muscle atrophy: B. Tender joint pain 121. A post infective painful neuralgia can occur as a complication of? A. shingles. B. herpes simplex. C. impetigo. D. verrucae: A. Shingles 122. Which finding is characteristic of oral candidiasis? A. Itching, oozing rash 32 / 33 B.Thickened, discolored nails C. Whitish coating on the tongue D. Silvery plaques on the skin: C. Whitish coating on the tongue 123. Which indicates a need for further evaluation of a nevus mole? A. Variation in color within the nevus B.The presence of light pigmentation C. Diameter less than 2mm D.Very dark coloration of the mole E.Tinea: A. Variation in color within the nevus 124. Which skin disorder is thought to be caused by an auto immune reaction and is characterized by bullous eruptions? A. Pityriasis rosea B. Lichen planus C. Pemphigus D. Psoriasis: C. Pemphigus 125. Atopic dermatitis (eczema) is caused by? A. Contact with skin allergens B. Parasitic infestation of the skin C. Superficial staphylococcal infection D. Superficial fungal infection: A. Contact with skin allergens 126. Manifestations of herpes zoster include? A. Red, itchy palms and soles of feet B. Multiple fluid-filled vesicles on the lips, tongue, and hands C. Generalized painful maculopapular rash D. A dermatomal distribution of lesions and pain: D. A dermatomal distribution of lesions and pain 127. At puberty when sebaceous gland secretion increases, follicle obstruc- tion and infection may occur, resulting in? A. psoriasis. B. eczema. C. acne vulgaris. D. pemphigus.: C. Acne vulgaris 128. The cancer considered to be the most malignant is?