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Medical Terminology and Concepts, Exams of Nursing

A wide range of medical terminology and concepts, including topics related to anatomy, physiology, medical procedures, and healthcare practices. It provides definitions and explanations for various medical terms, as well as multiple-choice questions to test the reader's understanding. The content covers a broad spectrum of medical knowledge, making it a valuable resource for healthcare professionals, students, or anyone interested in expanding their medical vocabulary and comprehension. The document delves into topics such as sharps control, handwashing, lab coats, body fluid handling, vitamin sources, endoscopes, shock, urine characteristics, nutrition, physical examination instruments, drug inventory records, myocardial infarction symptoms, urine chemical examination, and more. This comprehensive coverage of medical terminology and concepts can be useful for study notes, lecture materials, exam preparation, or general reference purposes.

Typology: Exams

2023/2024

Available from 08/26/2024

Prof_Edward
Prof_Edward 🇬🇧

58 documents

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Download Medical Terminology and Concepts and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! CMA CLINICAL CLINICAL EXAM 2024 Details regarding the health status of the patient's parents and siblings are known as the; A.Cheif complaint B.Social history C.Past medical history D.Occupational history E.Family history (FHX) - ANSWER E. Family history All of the following are methods of disinfection EXCEPT; A.Alcohol B.Boiling C.Antiseptics D.Acids E.Dessication - ANSWER C. Antiseptics All of the following may be consulted for drug information EXCEPT; A.PDR B.Medical dictionary C.Product insert D.USP/NF E.Desk reference for nonprescription drugs - ANSWER B. Medical dictionary All of the following are common causes of breathing emergencies EXCEPT; A.Choking B.Obstruction C.Strains D.Asthma E.Allergic reactions - ANSWER C. Strains Which of the following illustrates an engineering control? A.Sharps control B.Handwashing C.Lab coat D.Treating all body fluids as potentially infectious E.All of the above - ANSWER A. Sharps container The best source of vitamin D is; A.Beef B.Green vegtables C.Cheese D. Fruits E.Cereals - ANSWER C. Cheese All of the following are endoscopes EXCEPT; A.Stethoscope B.Sigmoidoscope C.Bronchoscope D.Protoscope E.Laparoscope - ANSWER A. Stethoscope A bipolar limb lead is; A.V2 B.I C.aVR D.aVL E.Administered - ANSWER D. Subscribed All of the following are common signs or symptoms of shock EXCEPT; A.Nausea B.Polyphagia C.Tachycardia D.Cool, moist skin E.Unconsicious - ANSWER B. Polyphagia The term hemopoiesis is best associated with; A. Hematology B.Bacteriology C.Microbiology D.Serology E.Parasitology - ANSWER A. Hematology Schedule II drug inventories must be made every; A.Year B.2 Years C.3 Years D.4 Years E.5 Years - ANSWER B. 2 years (Records must be retained an additional 2 years) Neisseria gonorrhoeae is morphologically described as; A.GPC B.GNC C.GNR D.GPR E.None of the above - ANSWER B. GNC (Gram negative [diplo] cocci) Nutritional elements that are concentrated sources of energy that add satiety to foods are; A.Carbohydrates B.Minerals C.Fats D.Vitamins E.Proteins - ANSWER C. Fats All of the following instruments are commonly used during a routine physical examination EXCEPT; A.Stethoscope B.Otoscope C.Percussion hammer D.Opthalmoscope E.Thumb forceps - ANSWER E. Thumb forceps Drug inventory records must include the following information EXCEPT; A.Healthcare provider's name B.DEA registration number C.Date of inventory D.Signature of person who has taken inventory E.Signature of patients who accepted drug - ANSWER E. Signature of patients who accepted drug Common signs and symptoms of myocardial infarction include; A.Diaphoresis B.Angina pectoris C.Dyspnea D.Nausea E.All of the above - ANSWER All of the above All of the following are included in the chemical examination of urine EXCEPT; A.Ketones B.Urobilinogen C.Specific gravity D.Glucose E.Nitrite - ANSWER C.Specific gravity Nutritional elements that serve as catalysts for efficient metabolism are; A.Carbohydrates B.Minerals C.Fats D.Vitamins E.Proteins - ANSWER D.Vitamins E.Personal history - ANSWER B. Demographics A surgical wound that becomes infected and must be reopened is a; A.First intention wound B.Second intention wound C.Third intention wound D.Fourth intention wound E.Fifth intention wound - ANSWER C. Third intention wound The Rx symbol is classified as the; A.Prescription B.Subscription C.Signature D.Inscription E.Superscription - ANSWER E. Superscription According to the rule of Nines, the amount of body surface represented by the head and neck is; A. 1% B. 4.5% C. 9 % D. 18% E. 36% - ANSWER C. 9% The species of bacteria that commonly causes food poisoning is; A. Escherichia coli B. Streptococcus pyogenes C. Salmonella typhi D. Staphylococcus aureus E. Klebsiella pneumoniae - ANSWER C. Salmonella typhi Initial examination of the breasts is usually performed when the patient is in which of the following portions?; A. Lithotomy B. Trendelenberg C. Sitting D. Dorsal recumbent E. Prone - ANSWER C. Sitting The social factor having the most negative impact on adolescent nutrition is; A. Peer pressure B. Emphasis on slimness C. Teen pregnancy D. Drug abuse E. Commercialism - ANSWER B. Emphasis on slimness The sterile cover placed over a wound to prevent contamination is the; A. Dressing B. Wrap C. Band-Aid D. Cast E. Bandage - ANSWER A. Dressing The acronym p.c. means; A. After meal B. As needed C. With meals D. As desired E. Before meals - ANSWER A. After meals The specific gravity testing method requiring the least amount of urine is by; A. Reagent strip B. Microscopy C. Refractometer D. Litmus paper E. Urinometer - ANSWER A. Reagent strip Dry, hot, red skin is characteristic of; A. Hyperthermia B. Heat exhaustion C. Heat cramps D. Heat stroke E. Hypothermia - ANSWER D. Heat stroke The metabolic disorder characterized by the lack of the enzyme needed to B. Hypoglycemia C. Polyuria D. Hypoxia E. Polycrotism - ANSWER C. Polyuria Purulent discharge is; A. Straw colored B. Bloody C. Mixed with blood and pus D. Suppurative pus E. Copious - ANSWER D. Suppurative pus Erythropoiesis is; A. Red blood cell generation B. Red blood cell destruction C. White blood cell generation D. White blood cell destruction E. None of the above - ANSWER A. Red blood cell generation What plane divides the head and torso into left and right parts (NOT HALVES) and is parallel to the median plane? A. Coronal B. Frontal C. Transverse D. Sagittal E. Cross - ANSWER D. Sagittal Where does the shaft of the bone broaden into the epiphysis (weakest point)? A. Diaphysis B. Metaphysis C. Epiphysis - ANSWER B. Metaphysis What is the thin shaft between two larger ends or epiphysis? A. Diaphysis B. Metaphysis C. Periosteum - ANSWER A. Diaphysis What is located at the END of the bones and consists of spongy bone plates (growth plates) and is the site of longitudinal growth in children? A. Metaphysis B. Diaphysis C. Epihysis - ANSWER Epiphysis Atrophy is; A. Decreased size of muscle cells B. Muscle twitch C. Herniated disc - ANSWER A. Decreased size of muscle cells Tetany is; A. A membrane around the bone B. Muscle twitch C. Decreased size of muscle tissue - ANSWER B. Muscle twitch Cartilage that connects the pubic bone is called the; A. Chondr/o B. Symphysis C. Mandible - ANSWER B. Symphysis What view is the orbit (eye socket)? A. Sagittal B. Inferior C. Anterior - ANSWER C. Anterior What lobe is responsible for sight? A. Cerebellum B. Frontal C. Occipital - ANSWER C. Occipital What lobe is responsible for memory? A. Temporal B. Frontal C. Parietal - ANSWER B. Frontal What lobe is responsible for reading and language processing; A. Occipital C. Applying water hot as tolerated D. Applying ice E. Applying amonia - ANSWER A. Applying a paste of baking soda and water A drug's generic name is best illustrated by which one of the following? A. Tyleno B. Aspirin C. Achromycin D. Salicylic Acid E. Ibuprofen - ANSWER D. Salcylic Acid An instrument used to grasp or clamp down on an object is a(n)/ A. Scapel B. Bandage scissor C. Obturator D. Forceps E. Retractor - ANSWER D. Forceps The Ishihara test is associated with which of the following examinations? A. Otological B. Ophthalmological C. Gynecological D. Orthopedic E. Dermatological - ANSWER B. Opthalmological A diet of plant foods supplemented with dairy products and eggs is called; A. Lacto-ovo vegetarian B. Vegan C. Lacto-vegetarian D. Vegetarian E. Regular - ANSWER A. Lacto-ovo vegetarian A common liquid culture media is; A. BAP B. MAC C. PEA D. TSB E. TM - ANSWER D. TSB Trypticase soy broth is the only liquid medium listed Which of the folllowing is NOT appropriate for the treatment of shock? A. Elevate the legs 12 inches B. Keep the victim warm C. Activate EMS D. Give the victim water E. Monitor the ABCs - ANSWER D. Give the victim water The plane that divides the body into superior and inferior portion is the A. sagittal plane B. transverse plane C. oblique plane D. frontal plane - ANSWER B. Transverse The plane divides the body into right and left halves. A. transverse B. sagittal C. coronal D. oblique E. para-sagittal - ANSWER B. Sagittal The mediastinum is found in the cavity. A. Dorsal B. Thoracic C. Both of the above D. Neither of the above - ANSWER B. Thoracic The abdominopelvic cavity is to the diaphragm. A. Superior B. Inferior C. Contralateral D. Ipsilateral - ANSWER B. Inferior The cranial cavity contains the A. Spinal cord Under Medicare Part B, patients are not permitted to A) remain in the hospital for more than 90 days. B) receive medical care at home. C) purchase private insurance. D) submit their own claims for reimbursement. - ANSWER D) submit their own claims for reimbursement. The appropriate way to file a Medicare form for a patient who cannot sign a claim form is to A) have the physician sign the claim form. B) submit the patient's signature on a Lifetime Beneficiary Claim Authorization and Information Release. C) ask a family member to sign the claim form. D) submit the claim form with no signature. - ANSWER B) submit the patient's signature on a Lifetime Beneficiary Claim Authorization and Information Release. The payment system used by Medicare is based on A) prevailing rates in the region. This is the correct answer. B) resources. C) the value of the service rendered. D) fee for service. - ANSWER B) resources. The amount Medicare pays the physician or health care provider after the $100 annual deductible is met is A) 20%. B) 50% C) 80%. D) 100%. - ANSWER C) 80%. A patient who has been hospitalized up to 90 days for each benefit period is covered under A) Medicare Part A. B) CHAMPUS. C) Medicare Part B. D) CHAMPVA. - ANSWER A) Medicare Part A. Medicare's new fee schedule regulating payment for all services and procedures provided by doctors is based on A) CMS's Common Procedures Coding System. B) the geographic practice cost index (GPI) called "gypsy," which takes regional differences into account. C) Medigap, to reduce the gap in coverage. D) the fact that patients may now be billed for any services not covered by Medicare. - ANSWER B) the geographic practice cost index (GPI) called "gypsy," which takes regional differences into account. A benefit period for Medicare begins the day a patient goes into the hospital and ends when that patient has not been hospitalized for days. A) 30 B) 60 C) 90 D) 120 - ANSWER B) 60 The Alphabetic Index is organized by A) the part of the body involved. B) symptoms the patient displays. C) codes found in the Tabular list. D) the condition - ANSWER D) the condition The use of ICD-9 codes is mandated by A) HIPAA. B) HMO's. C) NIH. D) AMA. - ANSWER A) HIPAA. Having a medical practice compliance plan in place A) eliminates the risk of an audit. B) assures that there will be adherence to state regulations. C) shows that there is a "good-faith" effort to be compliant with coding regulations. D) simplifies the tasks of the medical assistant. - ANSWER C) shows that there is a "good-faith" effort to be compliant with coding regulations. The codes are the most important of the CPT codes. A) modifier B) E/M or 1% of the practice's net worth Business checks with stubs attached are checks. A) counter B) voucher C) limited D) traveler's - ANSWER B) voucher Which of the following shows how much cash is available to cover expenses to invest, or to take as profit? A) statement of income and expense B) trial balance C) cash flow statement D) tracking - ANSWER C) cash flow statement A physician may periodically review which of the following to ensure that the books balance? A) accounts receivable B) trial balance C) statement of income and expense D) cash flow statement - ANSWER B) trial balance What kind of checks are printed in $10, $20, $50, and $100 denominations and must be purchased and signed at the bank? A) voucher B) limited C) traveler's D) certified - ANSWER C) traveler's An employee payroll information sheet should include A) a completed I-9 form and verification of U.S. citizenship or legally admitted alien. B) the employee's work history, including salary requirements. C) all current and previous performance evaluations. D) the beneficiary in case of death. - ANSWER A) a completed I-9 form and verification of U.S. citizenship or legally admitted alien. An infection by microorganisms that can cause disease only when a host's resistance is low is a(n) infection. A) endogenous B) opportunistic C) exogenous D) nosocomial - ANSWER B) opportunistic Which of the following physicians demonstrated that puerperal fever, a disease that was responsible for the death of women in childbirth, was carried from patient to patient by doctors? A) Joseph Lister B) Louis Pasteur C) Ignaz Semmelweis D) Oliver Wendell Holmes - ANSWER D) Oliver Wendell Holmes Factors related to the host's susceptibility are A) age and nutritional status. B) the number and concentration of pathogens. C) living conditions of the host and exposure to hazardous substances. D) the virulence of the pathogen and point of entry. - ANSWER A) age and nutritional status. Which of the following physicians concluded that puerperal fever was a communicable disease? A) Oliver Wendell Holmes B) Ignaz Semmelweis C) Joseph Lister D) Louis Pasteur - ANSWER B) Ignaz Semmelweis The condition in which pathogens are absent or controlled is A) immunity. B) the normal flora. C) a subclinical case. D) asepsis. - ANSWER D) asepsis. Which of the following is used to disinfect surfaces and soak rubber equipment before sanitization? A) bleach B) alcohol C) iodine D) boiling water - ANSWER A) bleach C) morphology. D) hemolysis. - ANSWER A) coagulation. Which of the following play a vital role in the exchange of gases between blood and body cells? A) leukocytes B) platelets C) monocytes D) erythrocytes - ANSWER D) erythrocytes Which blood type is considered the universal recipient because it will not react with donated blood from any blood group? A) Type A positive B) Type B positive C) Type AB positive D) Type O positive - ANSWER C) Type AB positive Which of the following refers to the rupturing of red blood cells, which release hemoglobin that can cause kidney failure and death after an incompatible blood transfusion? A) capillary puncture B) hemolysis C) coagulation D) pyrogen - ANSWER B) hemolysis Which blood type carries both the A and B antigens but neither the anti-A or anti-B antibodies? A) Type A B) Type B C) Type AB D) Type O - ANSWER C) Type AB Which cardiovascular disease is the inability of the heart to pump blood effectively, causing fluid to build up in the tissues and lungs? A) endocarditis B) cardiomyopathy C) atherosclerosis D) congestive heart failure - ANSWER D) congestive heart failure Cretinism in children and myxedema in adults is caused by A) increased activity of the thyroid gland. B) an abnormally low blood glucose level. C) decreased activity of the thyroid gland. D) overproduction of hormones by the adrenal cortex - ANSWER C) decreased activity of the thyroid gland. Another name for the supine position is the position. A) lithotomy B) Sims' C) knee-chest D) recumbent - ANSWER D. Recumbent A patient is supine on a tilted table with the head lower than the legs in a position. A) prone B) Fowler's C) Trendelenburg D) lithotomy - ANSWER C) Trendelenburg In which position does the patient lie flat on the examination table, facedown, with the head turned to one side and the arms placed at the sides or bent at the elbows? A) supine B) Fowler's C) prone D) Trendelenburg - ANSWER C) prone In which examination position does the patient lie on his back with his knees drawn up and his feet flat on the table? A) prone B) dorsal recumbent C) Fowler's C) where the esophagus passes through the diaphragm. D) the upper section of the esophagus. - ANSWER C) where the esophagus passes through the diaphragm. Saliva contains an enzyme called A) amylase. B) tryptin. C) chyme. D) pepsin - ANSWER A) amylase. An increased respiratory rate will lead to A) increased carbon dioxide. B) decreased carbon dioxide. C) decreased oxygen. D) increased pH. - ANSWER A) increased carbon dioxide. Bacteria and viruses are destroyed by A) eosinophils. B) neutrophils. C) basophils. D) lymphocytes - ANSWER B) neutrophils. Blood pressure is greatest A) when the heart is between contraction and relaxation. B) when the atria pump. C) when the ventricles pump. D) when the patient is standing up. Blood pressure is greatest - ANSWER C) when the ventricles pump. The volume number of RBC's is controlled by which hormone? A) thyroxin B) oxyhemaglobin C) cortisol D) erythropoietin - ANSWER D) erythropoietin When you take a person's blood pressure, it is a reflection of A) lymphatic pressure. B) arterial pressure. C) osmotic pressure. D) venous pressure. - ANSWER B) arterial pressure. A person can consciously inhibit a reflex because A) the reflex occurs exclusively in the spinal cord B) all body responses are under voluntary control C) the impulse goes to the cerebral cortex D) repolarization occurs in an upward direction. - ANSWER C) the impulse goes to the cerebral cortex The cervical enlargement of the spinal cord contains A) a viscous liquid B) sensory neurons C) motor neurons D) muscle fibers - ANSWER C) motor neurons The spinal cord ends at which vertebral level? A) first lumbar B) first sacral C) twelfth thoracic D) coccyx - ANSWER A) first lumbar The fingers are to the elbow. A) distal B) superior C) inferior