Medical Terminology and Concepts, Exams of Advanced Education

Download Medical Terminology and Concepts and more Exams Advanced Education in PDF only on Docsity! Pathophysiology Exam 1 With 100% Correct Answers 2023 Disease - Correct Answer-An aberration of structure and/or function from what is considered normal anatomy and physiology. It may or may not be perceptible or measureable. Symptom - Correct Answer-A complaint reported by a patient; subjective Sign - Correct Answer-Observation made by examiner, measurable or observable on medical tests; objective Diagnosis - Correct Answer-Name given to the patients disease or ailment Syndrome - Correct Answer-Constellation of signs, symptoms and data - may be caused by more than one diseases Acute - Correct Answer-Rapid onset, short duration Chronic - Correct Answer-slow onset, long duration, slow progression Latent period - Correct Answer-Subclinical state of the disease with no observable problems; incubation period of an infectious disease Prodromal period - Correct Answer-Initial state of disease, minor, non-specific signs and symptoms Exacerbation - Correct Answer-Worsening of a disease Complication - Correct Answer-Adverse consequences of a disease Sequelae - Correct Answer-advert outcome of a disease that usually happens later in time Remission - Correct Answer-Quiet period of a chronic disease Recurrence - Correct Answer-Reappearance of a chronic disease after a period of remission Lesion - Correct Answer-Anatomic location of abnormality of the disease Etiogy - Correct Answer-Cause of the disease Pathogenesis - Correct Answer-Process of production and development of the disease Pathophysiology - Correct Answer-Process by which disease affects and changes normal function Idiopathic - Correct Answer-Unknown etiology Iatrogenic - Correct Answer-Caused by medical intervention or treatment Nosocomial - Correct Answer-Acquired during a hospital stay Incidence - Correct Answer-Number of new cases of disease in a year Prevalence - Correct Answer-Number of people with the disease at a given time Risk factors - Correct Answer-Factors that may increase a persons chance of developing a particular disease Prognosis - Correct Answer-Forecasting of the possible future outcomes of a particular disease 5-year survival - Correct Answer-% of patients with a particular disease expected to be alive at the end of a five year period Monogenic disease - Correct Answer-Disease caused by a mutation of a single gene Polygenic disease - Correct Answer-Disease caused by a mutation of several genes Multifactorial disease - Correct Answer-Disease caused by multiple factors which may be genetic or environmental Determinants of health - Correct Answer-Factors that can influence the development and progression of disease including economic, social, political, environmental and personal Autoposy - Correct Answer-Post mortem dissection of a body to determine the cause of death and other information related to it Biopsy - Correct Answer-Microscopic examination of tissue sample taken from a patient for the purpose of diagnostic treatment Normal range - Correct Answer-Range of usual results among presumably healthy people using statistical formulas to determine an average mean and standard deviation. 95% of the results fall within +/- 2 standard deviations of the mean A useful blood marker of inflammation is an acute reactant protein called ________________________. - Correct Answer-C-reactive protein Mr. Roper has experienced a(n) ____________________ viral illness with a rapid onset lasting only a few days. - Correct Answer-Acute Kinins, complement and coagulation proteins are plasma-derived inflammatory mediators that may lead to accumulation of fluid in tissues knows as ________________. - Correct Answer-Edema The supporting connective tissue of an organ that acts as the framework for functional cells is called _______________. - Correct Answer-Stroma The ___________________ are capable of producing collagen and other components of the extracellular matrix, as well as contracting to bring the opposing edges of a wound closer together. - Correct Answer-Myofibroblasts The only complaint Jack had before his cancer suddenly made him ill was mild abdominal pain. the stage of his disease during which he had no symptoms other than the mild abdominal pain is called the _______________ period. - Correct Answer- Prodromal __________________ tissue is a fragile, easy-to-bleed tissue that is made of brand new capillaries and fibroblasts. - Correct Answer-Granulation One of the __________________ of chronic hepatitis B or C infection is liver cancer. - Correct Answer-sequelae Chrissy has been suffering from multiple sclerosis for years. In the last two months, however, she has been almost entirely free of symptoms. Her disease is in ___________________. - Correct Answer-remission A broad wound with its opposing edges far apart will heal by a process called _____________________. - Correct Answer-Second intention A highly ___________________ test tends to have a high degree of false positive. - Correct Answer-sensitive The process by which disease affects and changes normal function is termed ____________________ of disease. - Correct Answer-Pathophysiology A disease of an unknown cause is said to be _________________. - Correct Answer- idiopathic The first step in the process of angiogenesis is the dissolution of the _____________________ of a parent capillary close to the site of injury. - Correct Answer-basement membrane Larry developed pericarditis as a direct result of a procedure performed by his doctor. Larry's pericarditis is ____________________. - Correct Answer-Iatrogenic A clean surgical incision will repair by a healing process called ____________________. - Correct Answer-First intention Ms Roper was hospitalized for a serious bone fracture. On the third day of her hospital stay, she developed bacterial pneumonia. This is referred to as __________________ pneumonia. - Correct Answer-nosocomial In 2009, the ___________________ of new prostate cancers in American men was approximately 192,000. - Correct Answer-incidence ___________________ tissues have a high number of stem cells and a rapid rate of mitosis. - Correct Answer-Labile Candy has 3 ____________________ for developing Type II diabetes. She is obese, has a very sedentary lifestyle, and both of her grandparents are diabetic. - Correct Answer-Risk factors Forecasting of the possible future outcomes of a particular disease is called ________________. - Correct Answer-Prognosis An increase in the size of an organ due to a rise in the number of cells is called ____________________. - Correct Answer-Hyperplasia In a study of 200 patients with advanced prostate cancer, only 56 were alive after 5 years since they were diagnosed. The ____________________ for advanced prostate cancer is therefore 28%. - Correct Answer-5-year survival ___________________ is fatty changes in cells in response to repeated stress or injury. - Correct Answer-Steatosis The postmortem dissection of a body to determine the cause of death and other related information is called _________________. - Correct Answer-Autopsy A __________________ result with a highly sensitive test has a high predictive value. - Correct Answer-negative Death of tissue accompanied by fibrin deposition is the hallmark of ___________________ necrosis. - Correct Answer-coagulative The zygote is a ________ stem cell, whereas the hematopoietic stem cell is a __________ stem cell. - Correct Answer-1) totipotent 2) multipotent Programmed cell death is accomplished by apoptosis . Pathological cell death is termed necrosis . - Correct Answer-1) apoptosis 2) necrosis There are few stem cells in the organs whose ______ cells are permanent. Since these cells can not regenerate, repair of injured tissue is accomplished by scar formation, which is relatively bloodless, dense fibrous tissue. - Correct Answer-1) Parenchymal ___ change is the most common type of change seen in cells in response to acute mild injury or stress. Hypoxia lowers the activity of the sodium-potassium pump, which causes an increase in the intracellular concentration of sodium, which attracts water into the cells. - Correct Answer-1) hydropic Distortion and disorganization of cells in a tissue, especially in epithelial tissue, is called dysplasia and can sometimes be a precursor to neoplasia. . - Correct Answer-1) dysplasia 2) neoplasia The cells of inflammation are the ______ and ________ - Correct Answer-1) Lymphocytes and 2) Macrophages Janet's blood test reveals that she is acutely infected with the hepatitis B virus, but she has no sighs and symptoms. This is called _______ of ______ period of the illnes - Correct Answer-1) Latent 2) Incubation ______ produce the protein fibers of the extracellular matrix and the ________ - Correct Answer-1) fibroblasts 2) basement membrane _____are the first cells to migrate to a site of injury. The ____ produced by these cells stimulate the migration and proliferation of ______. - Correct Answer-1) leukocytes/neotrophils 2) cytokines, 3) fibroblasts A highly _____ test tends to have a high number of false negatives - Correct Answer-1) specific The rate at which red blood cells settle in an undisturbed and anticoagulated test tube is a great test for assessing ______ in the body and is called ______. - Correct Answer-1) Inflammation 2) erythrocyte sedimentation rate Monkey organ transplants into humans are called ______________________________. These are poorly tolerated except for avascular tissues. - Correct Answer-xenografts Chronic transplant rejection is mainly the result of __________________________________________________. - Correct Answer- Prolonged T cell attack The wheezing in asthma is caused by Broncoconstriction , which is due to Immediate hypersensitivity . - Correct Answer-1) bronchoconstriction and 2) immediate hypersensitivity Poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis is caused by Streptococcal infection and can be a complication of Immune complex hypersensitivity - Correct Answer-1) streptococcal infection 2) immune complex hypersensitivity Type O blood is the universal blood donor because it lacks A or B antigens on donor RBCs. - Correct Answer-1) O 2) A or B antigens AIDS is defined by the presence of Opportunistic infections and malignancies , which is often accompanied with a helper T cell count of Less than 200 per microliter . - Correct Answer-1) opportunistic infections 2) less than 200 per microliter temic small vessel thrombosis and simultaneous bleeding can occur in Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) which can be a major complication of Major transfusion reactions . - Correct Answer-1) disseminated intravascular coagulation 2) major transfusion reactions Atopic asthma is a(n) Immediate hypersensitivity reaction, which is mediated by production of lgE type immunoglobulins that will bind the surface of Mast cells and cause the release of Histamine . - Correct Answer-1) immediate hypersensitivity 2) IGE 3) mast cells 4) histamine The muscle weakness in Myasthenia gravis is caused by autoantibodies binding Acetylcholine receptors on NMJ. - Correct Answer-1) Myasthenia gravis 2) acetylcholine Inflammation and destruction of lacrimal and salivary glands is seen in Sjogren syndrome and it is often accompanied with other systemic autoimmune diseases such as Rheumatoid arthritis . - Correct Answer-1) sjogren syndrome 2) rheumatoid arthritis Bruton disease is seen mainly in Boys because it is a(n) X-linked condition. It is also known as X-linked agammaglobulinemia . - Correct Answer-1) boys 2) x-linked 3) x-linked agammaglobulinemia The presence of Rheumatoid Factor (RF) is not necessary for diagnosis of Rheumatoid arthritis because it is also commonly found in Sjogren syndrome and other autoimmune diseases. - Correct Answer-1) RA 2) Sjogren syndrome Replacement of normal connective tissue with collagenous fibers is known as Fibrosis and is the hallmark of Scleroderma (systemic sclerosis) , which could cause complete immobility of the hands and face. - Correct Answer-1) fibrosis 2) systemic sclerosis Patients who get coldness, blanching, numbness and pain in their fingers and toes have the Raynaud phenomenon , which is due to Scleroderma (systemic sclerosis) . - Correct Answer-1) Raynaud phenomenon 2) small blood vessel spasm In Ankylosis , joint destruction leads to "welding" of the bones and the joint becomes completely immovable. This can be a major complication of Rheumatoid arthritis . - Correct Answer-1) Ankylosis 2) RA Hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN) is caused by Anti-Rh antibodies crossing the placenta and causing the Agglutination and hemolysis of Fetal RBCs . - Correct Answer-1) anti-RH antibodies 2) agglutination 3) hemolysis An Rh negative woman who might have experienced a spontaneous abortion should receive rhogam in order to prevent the formation of Maternal anti-Rh antibodies . - Correct Answer-1) rhogam 2) maternal anti-RH antibodies Following multiple blood transfusions over the years, a self-limiting rash that may be accompanied with a fever and chills is considered a(n) Minor transfusion reaction , which may be due to production of antibodies by the recipient to Donor plasma proteins. - Correct Answer-1) minor transfusion reaction 2) donor plasma Kaposi sarcoma manifests as red-purple plaques on the skin. It is a very rare skin cancer except in AIDS . - Correct Answer-1) Kaposi sarcoma 2) AIDs The universal blood recipient is type AB blood. The plasma of this blood type lacks Anti-A or anti-B antibodies . - Correct Answer-1) AB 2) Anti-A or Anti-B antibodies In graft versus host disease (GVHD), the Donor lymphocytes attack the host cells . - Correct Answer-1) donor lymphocytes 2) host cells Name two pathognomonic signs of rheumatoid arthritis. - Correct Answer-1) Z deformity 2) Rheumatoid nodule Some sources recommend cervical cancer screening to start about 3 years after the onset of sexual activity . Others recommend all women 25 years and older to have the screening test done once a year. - Correct Answer-1) sexual activity 2) 25 A woman in the general population without a mutation in the BRCA1 or BRCA2 gene would have a 7% chance of getting breast cancer by age 70. In contrast, 50% of women with a BRCA mutation would develop breast cancer by the time they are 70. - Correct Answer-1) 7% 2) 50% Grading a tumor determines how malignant a tumor is. - Correct Answer-malignant Most metastatic cancers that spread to the liver do so by hematogenous spread. - Correct Answer-Hematogenous spread The prefix "-onc" means tumor . - Correct Answer-Tumor The lower the Gleason score, the better the prognosis. - Correct Answer-Better A malignant tumor of cartilage is called - Correct Answer-Chondrosarcoma A mutated protooncogene is called an - Correct Answer-Oncogene A poorly differentiated cancer gets a - Correct Answer-higher grade Epithelium with abnormally large and dark nuclei is termed - Correct Answer-Dysplasia Epstein Barr virus is strongly associated with several different types of - Correct Answer-Lymphoma Precancer and cancer cells are detected and destroyed by the immune cells. This function of the immune system is called immune - Correct Answer-surveillance TNM stands for - Correct Answer-Tumor Node Metastasis A BRCA mutation would increase the chances of a woman developing ovarian cancer from less than 1% to 30%. - Correct Answer-BRCA All neoplasms are initially monoclonal in that they arise from a single cell. - Correct Answer-Monoclonal The mutations of P53 gene are observed in about half of all cancers. - Correct Answer-P53 Radiofrequency ablation destroys a tumor by applying heat generated by an electrical current. - Correct Answer-Heat In some cases, chromosomal translocations can create a hybrid gene. Bcr-Abl is such a gene. - Correct Answer-Hybrid Most dysplasia spontaneously revert back to normal. - Correct Answer-Dysplasia The screening test for cervical cancer is the pap smear test which involves collecting a thin smear of epithelial cells and observing them under the microscope. - Correct Answer-1) Cervical cancer 2) Pap smear The most common initial treatment for solid tumors is - Correct Answer-surgery A malignant cancer is one that is capable of causing death by spreading to distant organs and tissues. - Correct Answer-Malignant involves delivering an internal source of radiation to the tumor using planted radioactive seeds or thin needles placed inside the tumor. - Correct Answer-Brachytherapy gene is a normal gene that codes for a protein whose normal function is regulation of cell division and differentiation. - Correct Answer-Tumor supressor A virus that causes mutations in human DNA that lead to cancer is called an - Correct Answer-Oncogenic virus Injection of radioactive I-131 is a common treatment for - Correct Answer-Thyroid cancer The normal protein product of _____ promotes _______, if the cell contains damaged DNA that can not be repaired. - Correct Answer-1) P53 2) Apoptosis An abnormal growth of new cells is called..... - Correct Answer-neoplasia An antimetabolite acts as a competitive inhibitor of a normal compound vital to the normal function of the cell. - Correct Answer-1) Antimetabolite is a malignant tumor of glands. - Correct Answer-Adenocarcinoma Skin-to-skin genital contact with an infected sexual partner is sufficient for transmission of - Correct Answer-HPV Most cancers metastasize via the - Correct Answer-lymphatic system 5-FU is an analogue to - Correct Answer-thymine and uracil In order for a carcinoma to spread, it must first break through the epithelial - Correct Answer-basement membrane The virus that is associated with nasopharyngeal carcinoma is - Correct Answer-Epstein Barr Virus A hemangioma is a - Correct Answer-benign tumor of the blood vessels Cancer that is contained within the epithelial layer with an intact basement membrane is called - Correct Answer-carcinoma-in-situ Antineoplastic drugs may cause ________ suppression which can lead to increased susceptibility of the patients to bleeding and infection. - Correct Answer-1) bone marrow apical membrane of the cells that line the proximal convoluted tubules and the intestinal mucosa. Na+/K+ ATPase is found on the - Correct Answer-basolateral membrane of the same cells Blood glucose level above which glucose is spilled in the urine is known as - Correct Answer-renal glucose threshold Alkalosis is less common than acidosis because protons are a normal byproduct of metabolism. - Correct Answer-1) Alkalosis 2) protons Rapid deep breathing is known as - Correct Answer-Kussmal breathing The three lines of defense against acidosis are the blood buffer systems, the - Correct Answer-1) respiratory 2) renal system Chronic severe congestion in the liver can lead to development of - Correct Answer- Varicose veins Hydroperitoneum is more commonly known as - Correct Answer-ascites ______ edema can be caused by lower than normal blood oncotic pressure. _____edema is due to inflammatory processes. - Correct Answer-1) Transudate 2) exudate highly sensitive test - Correct Answer-When ordering multiple tests in sequence, it is best to start with a True - Correct Answer-All sick people have abnormal test results. Nosocomial transmission - Correct Answer-A 72-year-old Caucasian female was admitted to the hospital for treatment of pneumonia. During a physical exam several days after her admission, you notice a patch of small red boils. Culture of the boils demonstrates methicillin-resistant staphylococcus aureus, a bacteria commonly acquired by hospital patients. What is this type of infection an example of? Prodromal period - Correct Answer-A 10-year-old Hispanic male is brought to the pediatrician's office by his mother. He tells you that he "sort of hurts all over," but denies specific symptoms including diarrhea, sore throat, runny nose, and/or vomiting. His mother reports that he has been eating less and sleeping more. What phase of illness is he most likely in? True - Correct Answer-The more specific a test, the more likely it is to produce false negatives. Sequelae - Correct Answer-The adverse outcome of a disease that usually appears later in time Remission - Correct Answer-The quiet period of a chronic disease multipotent - Correct Answer-Adult stem cells are hydropic change - Correct Answer-Diminished efficiency of the sodium potassium pump due to hypoxia may be associated with fat - Correct Answer-A commonly seen reaction to injury in hepatocytes due to alcohol abuse is accumulation of dysplasia - Correct Answer-A change in tissue structure that may be premalignant is bradykinin. - Correct Answer-Plasma-derived mediators of inflammation include complement proteins - Correct Answer-All of the following are cytokines released by activated leukocytes EXCEPT? lymphocytes - Correct Answer-The cells of acute inflammation include all of the following EXCEPT flooding of injured tissue with blood. - Correct Answer-Hyperemia refers to suppurative exudate - Correct Answer-A creamy exudate made of large amounts of necrotic debris and extremely high number of neutrophils is called activation of neutrophils - Correct Answer-Persistent cellular injury that is not too severe to cause cell death is associated with all EXCEPT polycythemia - Correct Answer-All of the following may be associated with high erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) EXCEPT the extent of regeneration of parenchymal tissue vs. scarring will determine the long- term consequences. - Correct Answer-In chronic hepatitis, None of the above - Correct Answer-Which of the following statements is FALSE about myofibroblasts? They are contractile cells and aid in wound contraction. They can produce and deposit collagen in the extracellular matrix. They can be produced by differentiation of a number of different mesenchymal cell types. They provide stromal framework that allows further tissue repair to take place. macrophages - Correct Answer-A granuloma is a small inflammatory nodule made of activated Lymphadenopathy - Correct Answer-The clinical term for enlarged lymph nodes is which one of the following? cell migration - Correct Answer-After inflammation, which one of the following occurs first in fibrous repair? second intention - Correct Answer-A 20-year-old college student in a motorcycle accident has severe "road rash" (deep ulceration/erosion of the skin) following a 20 yard skid across wet asphalt. You tell him that the injury will unfortunately result in a large scar as it will heal by True - Correct Answer-Granulation tissue is composed mainly of capillaries and fibroblasts. IgM antibodies - Correct Answer-Anaphylaxis is associated with all of the following EXCEPT type 1 hypersensitivity - Correct Answer-A harsh audible sound that signals airway obstruction may be associated with allergic rhinitis, dermatitis and asthma. - Correct Answer-Atopic triad refers to cytotoxic hypersensitivity - Correct Answer-Pathogenesis of immune thrombocytopenia involves acetylcholine receptors on NMJ. - Correct Answer-In myasthenia gravis, autoantibodies bind vasculitis - Correct Answer-Which of the following shares a similar pathogenesis with poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis? Type 2 diabetes - Correct Answer-All of the following share a similar pathogenesis EXCEPT Binding "self" antigens Causing autoimmune disease Carcinoma-in situ - Correct Answer-A pap smear reveals abnormally large cells with dark nuclei that have completely lost their orderly arrangement above a completely intact epithelial basement membrane. The most accurate descriptive term for this is are recommended for sexually active men and women. - Correct Answer-HPV vaccines Proto-oncogenes - Correct Answer-Stimulation of normal cell division and differentiation is the function of any of the above - Correct Answer-A proto-oncogene can become an oncogene by chromosomal translocation. gene amplification. point mutation. any of the above. It is an example of a tumor suppressor gene. - Correct Answer-All of the following statements regarding the "Bcr-Abl" hybrid gene are correct EXCEPT: It is constitutively active. It is called the philadelphia chromosome. It is produced by the translocation between chromosomes 9 and 22. It is an example of a tumor suppressor gene. `` is always on without the need for a growth factor. - Correct Answer-The protein product of a mutated RAS gene tumor suppressor genes. - Correct Answer-If a cell cannot repair its damaged DNA, it undergoes programmed cell death. The genes that code for proteins involved in this function are HPV - Correct Answer-Dysplasia or carcinoma of the cervix is related to which one of the following? False - Correct Answer-Tumors that are well differentiated are more likely to be aggressive than poorly differentiated ones. True - Correct Answer-All neoplasms are initially monoclonal, but as tumors grow they acquire mutations resulting in tumor cell heterogeneity. Fibroma - Correct Answer-Benign tumor of fibrous tissue chondroma - Correct Answer-Benign tumor of cartilage leiomyosarcoma - Correct Answer-Malignant tumor of smooth muscle Rhabdomyosarcoma - Correct Answer-Malignant tumor of skeletal muscle True - Correct Answer-A useful parameter in determining the cause of metabolic disturbances is calculating the difference between cations (sodium and potassium) and anions (chloride and bicarbonate). All of the above - Correct Answer-Hypokalemia is associated with which of the following? Diarrhea Diuretics Chronic renal disease All of the above False - Correct Answer-Metabolic alkalosis is far more common than metabolic acidosis. falls - Correct Answer-In end-stage liver disease, blood oncotic pressure transudate - Correct Answer-The fluid that leaves the blood vessels and causes edema in end-stage liver disease is called peritoneal effusion. - Correct Answer-Ascites refers to All of the above - Correct Answer-What do esophageal and anorectal varices have in common? They are both complications of end-stage liver disease. They are both caused by portal hypertension. They are both produced when the liver is unable to let blood pass through it normally. All of the above are correct. fast and deep breaths - Correct Answer-Kussmaul breathing is characterized by 180 - Correct Answer-Renal plasma threshold for glucose is about enter the cells in exchange for potassium. - Correct Answer-In acidosis, protons found on the apical membrane of cells lining the PCT. - Correct Answer-Sodium/glucose symporters are hypertension - Correct Answer-Severe hyponatremia can be associated with all of the following EXCEPT hypovolemic shock. increased intracranial pressure. seizures. hypertension. Metabolic acidosis - Correct Answer-Which of the following acid-base anomalies is the result of repeated episodes of diarrhea? It is associated with hemorrhagic tendencies. - Correct Answer-Which one of the following is true about disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)? Immune thrombocytopenia purpura - Correct Answer-A 7-year-old male presents to the clinic for treatment of a nosebleed that "just won't stop bleeding." On examination, blood is present in the right nares and he has several rather large bruises. His mother reports he recently had a bad viral illness but had been doing much better the last several days. You draw labs, which demonstrate markedly decreased platelets and the presence of platelet antibodies. What is your diagnosis? Metabolic acidosis - Correct Answer-A 63-year-old African American male, with a past medial history of diabetes, is found unresponsive by his daughter. A blood gas demonstrates a pH of 7.25 as well as a markedly decreased blood bicarbonate. What acid-base balance is he experiencing? True - Correct Answer-Congestion is passive; hyperemia is active. True - Correct Answer-Petechial hemorrhage is usually associated with low platelet count. Chronic inflammation is due to persist ant mild to moderate tissue injury. It's cellular mediators are macrophages and lymphocytes. It's systemic signs are fever, general feelings of illness and the blood markets are an increased levels in the erythrocyte sedimentation rate C-reactive protein test. - Correct Answer-Briefly discuss chronic inflammation, its causes, its cellular mediators, its systemic signs and blood markers? A proto-oncogene is a normal gene whose mutation results in excessive production of a protein that may lead to cancer when the cells divide out of control and break the basement membrane. A tumor suppressor gene codes for a protein who regulates cell division, therefore, when mutation of this protein occurs regulation is unable to happen. - Correct Answer-Briefly discuss how mutations in proto-oncogenes and tumor suppressor genes may lead to cancer.