Medical Terminology and Concepts, Exams of Nursing

Download Medical Terminology and Concepts and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! COPR PCP EXAM 2023 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS. A. negligence B. gross negligence Answer - A. Deviation from accepted standards of care recognized by law for protection of others against unreasonable risk of harm - Failure to provide the same care that a person with the same level of training would provide B. willful or reckless disregard for a duty or standard of care Define patient rights Answer - legal and ethical issues in the provider-patient relationship, including a person's right to privacy, quality medical care, to make informed decisions about care and treatment options, and refuse treatment professional development Answer - learning to earn or maintain professional credentials dignity Answer - the quality of being worthy of esteem or respect evidence based practice Answer - an organized method for clinical decision making to provide the most effective care to patients. A careful and systematic investigation in some field of knowledge, undertaken to establish facts or principles Answer - academic research scope of practice. Answer - the legal range of services that professionals in a given field can provide, the setting in which those services can be provided, and the guidelines or parameters that must be followed Components of a Negligence Claim Answer - -duty to act -breach of duty -actual damages -proximate cause A. Acts of Omission B. Commission C. Demission Answer - A. Failure to perform an act B. Performing an act that results in some harm C. Withdrawing a treatment Defenses to Charges of Negligence Answer - -Good Samaritan laws -gov't immunity -statute of limitations -contributory or comparative negligence A. Empathy B. Sympathy C. Compassion Answer - A. A process where in an individual is able to see beyond outward behavior and sense accurately another's inner experience at a given point in time. B. feelings of concern or sorrow for another's plight C. Ability to understand pt suffering, caring, and attempt to ease suffering diplomacy Answer - the process of making decisions through discussion Tact Answer - the ability to deal with others without creating offense. discretion Answer - the quality of behaving or speaking in such a way as to avoid causing offense or revealing private information conflict Answer - A struggle between two opposing forces A. Define stress B. stress disorder Answer - A. the reaction of the body and mind to everyday challenges and demands B. conscious or unconscious psychological feeling or physical condition resulting from physical or mental 'positive or negative pressure' that overwhelms adaptive capacities When obtaining a pt's medication profile, ensure you ask if the pt has been ________ with their meds. Answer - Compliant A. What is a primary assessment? B. Secondary? Answer - A. the first element in a patient assessment in which you focus exclusively on life threats. B. head-to-toe exam of the patient to treat injuries or illness not found during the primary assessment Normal temperature range Answer - 36-38 C parameters used to assess: A. (4) skin condition B. (3) pupils Answer - A. -color, condition, temperature, turgor B. size, symmetry, reactivity Mainstream ETCO2 Answer - -sample cell inserted directly in airway between breathing circuit and ET tube -reflects real-time ETCO2 -suitable for neonatess and peds Microstream ETCO2 Answer - -uses low aspiration flow rates -can be used with intubated pts and non-intubated pts -can be used with neonates -a form of sidestream capnometer -extension -rotation -lateral bending -axial loading -distraction -hemorrhage or edema -penetrating/blunt trauma A. closed reduction B. why would you need to do a closed reduction? Answer - A. nonsurgical realignment of broken bone ends and splinting of bone B. -re-perfuse limb, if you can't transport them the way the limb is Medication Distribution Answer - movement of a drug to and from the blood and tissues of the body and relative proportions of drug in the tissues Medication Elimination Answer - Removal of drugs from the body Ways to name a drug Answer - -chemical -generic -trade -official iatrogenic illness Answer - an unfavorable response due to prescribed medical treatment Aneurysm Answer - Excessive localized enlargement of an artery caused by a weakening of artery wall. Peripheral Vascular Disease Answer - -slow and progressive circulation disorder manifests as insufficient tissue perfusion initiated by existing atherosclerosis - Narrowing, blockage, or spasms in a blood vessel can cause PVD - may affect any blood vessel outside of the heart including the arteries, veins, or lymphatic vessels Infarction Answer - Obstruction of blood supply to organ or region of tissue, typically by thrombus or embolus, causing local death of tissue Non-STEMI Answer - Non-ST-elevation myocardial infarction Cardiomyopathies Answer - Heart muscle diseases of unknown origin Lethal Arrhythmias Answer - -vtach -vfib -torsade de pointes -asystole Generalized Seizures Answer - -affect both cerebral hemispheres -produce loss of consciousness -grand mal -petite mal -status epilepticus -febrile Stages to Tonic-clonic Seizure (grand mal) Answer - - aura - stiffening (tonic) - contraction (clonic) - relaxation - postictal Partial Seizures Answer - -focal -involve one body area -can progress to generalized seizure -simple or complex Structural causes for AMS Answer - -tumors -brain hemorrhage -stroke ALS Answer - -amyotrophic lateral sclerosis -progressive neurodegenerative disease that affects nerve cells in brain and spinal cord - motor neuron disease can involve the CNS and PNS -stumbling, stiffness, awkward movement affecting mouth, throat and spreading to limbs -slurred speech, facial weakens, dysphagia, dysarthria Cerebral Palsy Answer - Condition marked by impaired muscle coordination, impaired voluntary movement or posture resulting from malformation from prenatal development - damage to brain before or at birth - non progressive MS Answer - -multiple sclerosis -chronic, typically progressive disease involving damage to sheaths of nerve cells in brain and spinal cord -numbness -speech impairment + muscle cooridnation -blurred vision -severe fatigue Parkinson's Disease Answer - -progressive disease of NS marked by tremor, muscular rigidity, and slow imprecise movement -degeneration of basal ganglia of brain and deficiency of neurotransmitter dopamine A. Poliomyelitis B. Encephalitis Answer - A. Infectious viral disease that affects CNS and can cause temp or permanent paralysis B. Inflammation of brain caused by infection or allergic reaction GBS Answer - -Guillain-Barre Syndrome -acute, rapidly progressive inflammatory polyneuropathy (damage of multiple nerves) caused by an autoimmune disorder -often preceded by resp infection, weakness, paralysis of limbs Vascular Tumor Answer - Type of tumor that forms from cells that make blood vessels or lymph vessels A. Epidural Hematoma B. Subdural Hematoma C. Subarachnoid Hemorrhage D. Intracerebral Hemorrhage Answer - A.-arterial bleed between skull and dura mater (above dura) -increasing ICP, unresponsiveness, brain herniation B. venous bleed beneath dura mater and within subarachnoid space -slow AMS, increasing ICP takes longer C.- Arterial bleeding into subarachnoid space between arachnoid space and pia mater -severe headache or rapid onset (thunderclap), vomiting, decreased LOC, fever, sometimes seizures D. bleeding around/within brain itself -CVA-like symptoms, direct cerebral irritation Cerebral Contusion Answer - -intraparenchymal (tissue of the brain) hemorrhage -capillary bleeding -confusion, neurological deficit, personality changes DAI Answer - -diffuse axonal injury -spread out over a large area due to blow to head -concussion -moderate DAI -severe DAI Moderate DAI Answer - -unconsciousness -persistent confusion -disorientation -retrograde and anterograde amnesia -visual and sensory disturbances -mood or personality changes -commonly occurs w/basilar skull # Severe DAI Answer - -brainstem injury -prolonged unconsciousness -Cushing's triad -decorticate or decerebrate posturing Pleural Effusion Answer - -build up of excess fluid between layers of pleura outside lungs Neurogenic Shock Answer - hypoperfusion due to nerve paralysis (sometimes caused by spinal cord injuries) resulting in the dilation of blood vessels that increases the volume of the circulatory system beyond the point where it can be filled. 4 T's of emergency care Answer - Triage Treatment Transport Transfer Brain Resus is not effective after X length time Answer - 4 mins to BLS CPR and 8 Mins to ALS / Defib Fixed wing transport Distance Answer - Greater than 320 km A. Tertiary Trauma Centre B. Distract Trauma Centre C. Primary Trauma Centre Answer - A. Provincially Funded with Regional Referral, 24 hour available trauma response team B. Functions in smaller communities, with 24hour trauma response team C. Smaller rural medical centre that performs initial triage. QA and CQI Answer - Quality Assurance and Continued Quality Improvement Professionalism Answer - The conduct or qualities that optimally characterize a practitioner in a particular field or occupation Incubation period Answer - the time between contact with a disease organism and the appearance of the first symptoms. Min BSI available on-car Answer - Gloves, masks + eyewear, HEPA and N95 Respirators, Gowns, disposable resusc equip for ventilation AIDS (acquired immune deficiency syndrome) Answer - Transmission: aids or HIV effected blood, semen or vaginal fluids, blood transfusions, mothers may pass to unborn children. Incubation months to years Tuberculosis - what is it - symptoms - transmission - tx Answer - what it is: progressive bacterial infection - prone if pre-existing immune compromising disease present- infection of the respiratory tract symptoms: productive cough, fever, weight loss, malaise transmission: Respiratory Secretions, airborne or on contaminated objects -2-6 weeks tx: antimicrobial drugs for 6 months Meningitis Answer - bacterial and viral - oral, nasal secretions. Pneumonia Answer - bacterial and viral - oral and nasal secretions, incubation several days staphylococcal skin infections Answer - contact with open wounds or sores or objects, incubation = several days chicken pox (varicella) Answer - airborne droplets or open sores German Measles (Rubella) Answer - airborne droplets whooping cough (pertussis) Answer - respiratory secretions or airborne droplets SARS (severe acute respiratory syndrome) Answer - body fluids or droplets, incubation = 3-7 days protocols Answer - lists of steps, such as assessments and interventions, to be taken in different situations. Protocols are developed by the Medical Director of an EMS system directives Answer - documentation that provides guidance as to scope of treatment for patients in particular situations (ie. MOST form) Treatment Guidelines Answer - Common protocols for treatment or therapy that are developed using data provided by healthcare providers. ie. BCAS particular TG's Four Principals of ethics Answer - Respect for self autonomy, Non-maleficence, Benevolence and justice TEMS Answer - tactical emergency medical services teams - specially trained units for on site medical support to law enforcement When safety begins with relative to Crime Scenes Answer - On dispatch Crime Scene Considerations Answer - Documented danger = can legally leave pt. behind. Stand to sides of doors, be alert. Only approach when deemed safe. Map out intended retreat. A. Liabilty B. Protection from liability Answer - A. legal responsibility B. Perform a systemic patient assessment, provide appropriate medical care and maintain accurate and complete documentation of all incidents in accordance with what a reasonable prudent paramedic would do in similar circumstances Civil Rights Answer - A patient may sue for violation of civil rights if a medic chooses to withold care for discriminatory reason. Consent types Answer - Informed, Expressed, Implied or voluntary Competency Answer - patients ability to make informed decision - no definitive test but consider mental status, apparent mental status, influence of drugs or alcohol, and shock . Radio Terminology: A. LZ B. mobile status Answer - A. landing zone B. on the air - driving around PSAP Answer - Public Safety Answering Point (911 connects to this) priority dispatching Answer - pre-determined questions that a dispatcher asks to determine level of priority for a call echo procedure Answer - immediately repeating each transmission received during radio communications. ISBAR Answer - Identify Situation Background Assessment Recommendation Charting: PH Answer - past history CHS Answer - current health status EDC Answer - estimated date of confinement IMP Answer - impression A Answer - Asian B Answer - black NAD Answer - no apparent distress Sh Answer - social history OH Answer - occupational history sscp Answer - substernal chest pain pn Answer - pain HEENT Answer - head eyes ears nose and throat VA Answer - visual acuity ASHD Answer - atherosclerotic heart disease Vehicle striking pedestrian >30 km Falls > 3m Motorcycle passenger ejected > 30 km multiple victims Time and Distance Factors for Autolaunch Answer - Wilderness Access, Ambulance impeded by road conditions/weather or traffic, >15 mins transport by ground ambulance extrication > 20 mins transport would induce loss of ground ambulance for local population unified command system Answer - A command system used in larger incidents in which there is a multiagency response or multiple jurisdictions are involved. difference between open (unsustained) and closed (sustained) incident Answer - likelihood to generate more patients / continue to grow in size. MCI incident priorities Answer - 1- Life safety (crew first) 2- Incident stabilization 3- Property destruction Emergency Response guidebook Answer - shows safe distances to park from hazmat situations as well as Types of contamination Answer - Primary (direct contact) Secondary (haz material transfer) Types of effects to consider with WHMIS Answer - acute, delayed, local, systemic Biotransformation Answer - the chemical alteration that a drug undergoes in the body, usually in the liver Synergism Answer - combination of two drugs causes an effect that is greater than the sum of the individual effects of each drug alone Pesticide Toxicity may cause.. Answer - SLUDGE: salivation, lacrimation, urination, diarrhea, gastrointestinal distress, and emisis . Caused by blocking of AChE (an enzyme that stopes the action of acetylcholine, therefor overstimulation of muscarinic receptors) carbon monoxide poisoning Answer - -carbon monoxide binds with hemoglobin and reduces oxygen supply to tissues -cannot be seen. smelled, or tasted -s/s include: nausea, vomiting, headache, weakness, and unconsciousness -definitive treatment with oxygen therapy -remove contaminated clothing protecting the airway. -possible to require hyperbaric 02 chamber HAZMAT Classifications Answer - corrosives, pulmonary irritants, chemical asphyxiants, hydrocarbon solvents Methods of decontamination Answer - Dilution, Absorption, Neutralization, Isolation/disposal Match: 1. dilution 2. absorption 3. neutralization A. usage of towels/pads B. apply large quantities of water C. using one substance to reduce toxicity of another Answer - 1. B 2. A 3. C RPM (in MCI) Answer - Respirations ( over 30) Perfusion (present or absent) Mentation (follows commands) Start procedure Answer - Call for everyone who can walk to come to treatment zone. Check airway of patients on ground. No breathing = one reposition then black, move on. RR over 30 or under 10? = Red, Pulse present? Yes = Red No = Control bleeding or Dead. Can follow commands = Green and Cannot follow = Red Types of Leaders at MCI Answer - Triage, Treatment, Transport and IC Introduction of allergens Answer - injection, inhalation, oral, skin H's and T's Answer - Hypovolemia, Hypoxia, Hydrogen ion acidosis, Hypoglycemia, Hypo/Hyperkalemia, hypothermia Tension PTX, Tamponade, Toxins, PE, MI Possible treatable causes of Cardiac Arrest Cardiac Arrest Primary Survey Answer - Pt. Unresponsive? = CAB Responsive = ABC CAB = Delegate Compressions AED immediately. What to check after discontinue CPR Answer - Check for carotid pulse auscultate heart sounds check for signs of breathing abduction adduction Answer - Movement away from the midline of the body Movement toward the midline of the body abortion Answer - expulsion of the fetus from any cause before the 20th week of gestation abscess Answer - a collection of pus in a sac, formed by necrotic tissues and an accumulation of white blood cells absolute refractory period Answer - early phase of cardiac repolarization, wherein the heart muscle cannot be stimulated to depolarize acetabulum Answer - large socket in the pelvic bone for the head of the femur Acetylcholine (ACh) Answer - enables muscle action, learning, and memory acholic stools Answer - Light, clay-colored stools indicative of liver failure. Acrocyanosis Answer - blueness of the extremities Acromion Answer - Outward extension of the shoulder blade forming the point of the shoulder. adenoids Answer - lymphatic tissues location on the posterior nasopharyngeal wall that filter bacteria adhesion Answer - the attachment of PMNs to endothelial cells, mediated by selectins and integrins adrenal cortex adrenal medulla Answer - the outer portion of the adrenal glands that produces corticosteroids inner portion of adrenal glands that synthesize, store and release epi and norepinephrine Epinephrine norepinephrine Answer - Neurotransmitter secreted by the adrenal medulla in response to stress. Also known as adrenaline. - acts primarily on beta neurotransmitter involved in arousal, learning and mood regulation - acts on vessels and involved in vasoconstriction as primary response Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) Answer - Stimulates adrenal cortex to secrete glucocorticoids such as cortisol (stimulates catecholamine release) adventitious Answer - abnormal breath sound that occurs in addition to the normal breath sounds, ie: crackles and wheezes affect Answer - outward expression of a person's mood affinity Answer - an attraction to Agnosia Answer - the inability to recognize familiar objects. somatic nervous system Answer - the division of the peripheral nervous system that controls the body's skeletal muscles; voluntary enteric nervous system Answer - The nervous system of the gastrointestinal tract. It controls secretion and motility within the Gi tract; involuntary A. Cardiac Output (CO) B. stroke volume Answer - A. normal CO is 5-6L per minute; CO = SV x HR B. The amount of blood ejected from the heart in one contraction.; normally 60- 100ml Simple Face Mask Nonrebreather BVM Answer - 6-10LPM 34-46% 10-15LPM 60-95% 10-15LPM 60-100% Becks Triad Cushing's triad Answer - A. Cardiac tamponade -Hypotension, JVD, muffled heart sounds B. Increased ICP - Hypertension, Bradycardia, cheyenne-stokes START triage Answer - Simple Triage And Rapid Transport Step 1: ability to walk - move walking wounded (green) Step 2: resp effort -Check pt's that have not moved; estimate RR. If >30 or <10, mark red. If not breathing, open airway. If still not breathing, mark black. If breathing returns, mark red. Step 3: pulse/perfusion - check radial pulse. If absent, mark red. If present, move on to step 4 Step 4: neurological status. If pt can follow simple commands, mark yellow. If not, mark red. Brown-Sequards Answer - Affects 1 side. Sensory and motor lost to affected side. Pain and temp lost to opposite side Simple Pneumothorax Answer - C.P on inspiration Diminished breath sounds on affected side Tachypnea Open pneumothorax Answer - Sucking Chest wound Frothy blood @ site Dyspnea Flail chest Answer - When 3+ ribs are broken in 2+ places ARDS s/s Answer - Dyspnea Confusion Crackles Cyanosis Tachypnea Croup Answer - Edema of subglottic region Viral infection Slow onset Low grade fever 37.7-38.3 Barking cough with stridor Epiglottitis Answer - Infection and inflammation of Epiglottitis Bacterial infection Rapid onset High fever 38.8-40 Drooling Cardiomyopathy - s/s Answer - Disease of cardiac muscle Fatigue Crackles JVD Edema Shock Tracheostomy tube care Answer - Maintain airway Suction Position of comfort Oxygen Ventilations Transport Alzheimer's Answer - Degenerative brain disorder Muscular dystrophy Answer - Diseases of muscle weakness and degeneration of skeletal or voluntary muscle fibres Multiple sclerosis Answer - inflammation of nerve cells and destruction of myelin sheath Brain abcess and s/s Answer - Collection of pus in the brain Headache Fever N/v Seizures Bells palsy Answer - Facial paralysis Glands of the endocrine system Answer - Hypothalamus, Thalamus, Pituitary, Pancreas, Thyroid Parathyroid, Adrenals, Gonads Myexdema Answer - Thickening connective tissue Decreased appetite but increased weight gain Cool doughy skin Addisons Answer - Weight loss Weakness Hypothermia: levels and associated S/S Answer - Mild hypothermia: 32-35 celsius; alert, shivering, high RR and HR, peripheral cyanosis Severe hypothermia: <32 celsius; shivering stops, central cyanosis, cold, cardiac arrest Sellicks Manoeuvre Answer - Prevents regurgitation and gastric distention .... maneuver for to help paramedics intubate? Peds ET tube sizing Answer - Size=age+16\4 6Ps Answer - Pallor Pain Pulse Paralysis Paresthesia .... - Placenta previa - abruptio placentae Answer - A. Placenta implants on lower half of uterus. Bright red bleeding, painless, soft uterus B. Premature abruption from wall severe bleeding and a lot of paine Ethics and Morals Answer - Ethic: decisions based upon individual character, and the more subjective understanding of right and wrong by individuals Moral: widely-shared communal or societal norms about right and wrong - guides societies behavior as a whole Beneficence Answer - Doing good for your patient Autonomy Answer - Patient decides what happens - pt decides for one self, self governance Impartiality test Answer - Would you like this? Universalizability Answer - Would you do this action again? Indications for air transport Answer - Trauma score<12 Position and part of Shoulder injury Answer - Anterior is brought to the chest Posterior is away from the chest Inferior arm is above head Mannitol Answer - Large glucose molecule. Draws water into blood, takes water and salt out of the body A. Mononeuropathy B. Polyneuropathy Answer - A. 1 nerve involved, Caused by localized conditions B. multiple nerves involved, degeneration of peripheral nerves Upper GI diseases Answer - Esophageal varices Acute gastroenteritis Chronic gastroenteritis Peptic ulcers Lower GI diseases Answer - Ulcerative colitis Crohn's disease Diverticulitis Haemorrhoids Bowel obstruction A. Leukopenia B. leukocytosis Answer - A. Too little WBC B. too many WBC Neutropeni Answer - Decreased neurophils A. Thrombocytosis B. thrombocytopenia Answer - A. Increased platelets B. decreased platelets Blow by O2 Answer - 1/2" 80% 1" 60% 2" 40% How is child's anatomy different than an adult's Answer - Tongues are larger Diaphragmatic breathers Trachea is softer Floppy epiglottis Smaller o2 reserves Smaller absolute volume Larger circulating blood volume GCS Answer - Mild 13-15 Moderate 9-12 Severe <8 When suctioning the oropharynx, how long should a paramedic limit each attempt to? a) 5 seconds b) 10 seconds c) 15 seconds d) 20 seconds Answer - B Paramedics have been dispatched to a home of 49-year-old female who has attempted suicide. On arrival, police direct them to the patient sitting at the kitchen table. The pt. is crying and has superficial lacerations to both forearms. After assessment, paramedics suggest to the pt. that she be transported to the hospital for further evaluation, but she refuses to go. What is the most appropriate action for the paramedics to take? a) Accept her refusal of care, provided she is not in any danger b) Call the local mental health crisis unit to seek further direction c) Have police place the pt. in custody and transport to the hospital d) Provide her with a form for refusal of care after bandaging her wounds Answer - C When obtaining a patient's blood pressure by auscultation which of the following steps would be considered to be the correct method? I-Place the arm is a slightly flexed position, palm up, fingers relaxed II-Use a cuff with a width of two-thirds the circumference of the patients' arm III-Place the lower edge of the cuff one inch above the antecubital space IV-Place stethoscope over the brachial artery pressing down firmly V-Slowly deflate cuff, and listen for Korotkoff sounds while watching manometer VI-Of unable to obtain a reading, wait at least 60 seconds before inflating the cuff a) I, II, V b) I, III, V c) II, III, VI d) IV, V, VI Answer - B Use the following information to answer question 20 to 24: The paramedic is dispatched to an apartment for a female in labour. Upon arrival, the paramedic is presented with a woman approximately 35 years of age who is lying on the couch in the living room. The patient states that she is 36 weeks pregnant, this is her 3rd child and the contractions are coming fast and strong. Her husband took the children for a day trip and is not back for hours. She tells you that she is scared and does not want to have the baby at home. Which of the following pieces of information should be obtained immediately when assessing the patient on labour? I-Length of gestation II-Gravidity and parity III-Expected complications with the delivery IV-If the mother has a history of caesarean section V-If the mother has the urge to push a) I,II,V b) II,III,IV c) I,II,III,V d) I,III,IV,V Answer - C What is the earliest gestational age at which a fetus is considered to be "full term" ? a) 32 weeks b) 34 weeks c) 38 weeks d) 40 weeks Answer - C Upon assessment the paramedic notes that the baby is crowning and birth is imminent. What is the first priority for the paramedic to do when the infant is born? a) Immediately clamp and cut the umbilical cord b) Immediately administer blow by oxygen to the baby c) Immediately make sure the infants temp remains stable d) Immediately suction the airway if required and dry the baby Answer - D Which of the following solutions should the paramedic use to clean and disinfect equipment that has been exposed to bodily substances? a) Soap and water b) Bleach diluted 1:10 in water c) Antibacterial soap diluted 1:1 in water d) Hydrogen peroxide diluted 1:15 in water Answer - B When taking the patients history what information would be important to obtain? I-recent history of head trauma II-recent history of fever, headache, of stiff neck III-history of diabetes IV- history of alcohol and or drug use a) I,II,III b) I,II,IV c) I,II,III,IV d) II,III,IV Answer - D Which of the following nerves controls pupil size? a) Optic b) Facial c) Trigeminal d) Oculomotor Answer - D In the pediatric patient, which of the following sites provides the most accurate temperature measurement? a. Oral a. Administer oral glucose b. Administer 3mg glucagon IM c. Provide oxygen via nasal cannula d. No treatment needed, transport to hospital Answer - A The paramedic arrives on scene to an eight mouth old patient with febrile seizures. What is the most appropriate treatment? A. Remove excess clothing B. Put the patient in an ice bath C. Insert and OPA and begin ventilations D. Turn on air conditioning in ambulance Answer - A The paramedic is preparing a patient for air transport to a local stroke centre. In her left arm, the patient has an 18g IV running normal saline TKO. Which of the following courses of action should the paramedic consider prior to loading the patient in the airplane. A. Discontinue the IV B. Take no further action C. Open roller clamp to provide extra fluid D.Place any IV bags in a pressure infused cuff Answer - D Which of the following statements would be MOST appropriate to make to the family member of a patient who has just died? A. Things will get better in time. B. You're not the only one who suffers. C. This must be hard for you to accept. D. I know exactly what you are experiencing. Answer - C Warning signs of stress include which of the following? A. Indecisiveness B. Increased appetite C. Increased sexual drive D. Willingness to work extra shifts Answer - A You are dispatched for a young male who, according to witnesses, is "not acting right." The patient is found sitting on the ground outside of a grocery store, rocking back and forth. He has blood on his arm from an apparent wound to his wrist. You should: A. quickly make contact with him and control the bleeding from his wrist. B. talk to him as you approach him, but be prepared for him to turn violent. C. ask the patient to stand up so you can assess his balance and coordination. D. recognize that his movements are purposeful and do not suggest violence. Answer - B A critical incident stress debriefing (CISD) should ideally be held within how many hours after the incident? A. 2-3 hoursB. 6-12 hoursC. 12-24 hoursD. 24-72 hours Answer - D Which of the following scenarios is an example of exposure via indirect contact? A. HIV is transmitted to from one person to another through sexual contact. B. A patient coughs up droplets of blood into the practitioner's eyes and mouth. C. a practitioner is stuck with a needle that she used to start an IV on a patient. D. An injured patient bleeds into an uncovered cut on the practitioner's forearm. Answer - C You arrive at the scene of a 34-year-old woman with abdominal pain. As you begin talking to the patient, she extends her arm to allow your partner to take her blood pressure. What type of consent is this patient's action consistent with? A. Implied consent B. Informed consent C. Passive consent D. Expressed consent Answer - D When transporting a patient who is secured to a backboard, it is important to: A. Place deceleration straps over the patient's shoulders. B. Place a folded towel or blanket under his or her head. C. Routinely elevate the head of the backboard 12". D. Use at least eight straps to secure the patient to the board. Answer - A A typical fixed ambulance oxygen delivery system consists of all the following EXCEPT: a. 800,000 litre replacement cylinder b. 3,000 litre reservoirc. C two stage regulatord. D reducing valve and yoke Answer - A A disposable oxygen humidifier should be considered for ambulance services that often transport patients on runs longer than: A. 2 hours.B. 3 hours.C. 4 hours.D. 1 hour. Answer - D When working at the scene of a motor vehicle crash at night, you should NOT use: A. intermittent flashing devices. B. reflective vests. C. portable floodlights. D. road flares. Answer - D When transporting a patient to the hospital, you should: A. secure the patient to the ambulance stretcher with at least two straps. B. generally exceed the posted speed limit by 10 to 20 mph. C. place the patient on a long backboard, even if no trauma is involved. D. be safe and get the patient to the hospital in the shortest practical time. Answer - D Trench collapses usually involve large areas of falling dirt that weigh approximately _______ per cubic foot. A. 50 lb B. 100 lb C. 150 lb D. 200 lb Answer - B Disentanglement involves: A. removing a patient from a dangerous position. B. the use of simple access tools such as a pry bar. C. extrication techniques that practitioners are trained in. D. gaining access to a patient in a crashed vehicle. Answer - A A disease vector is defined as: A. the spectrum of signs that define a disease. B. any agent that acts as a carrier or transporter. C. the period of time between exposure and illness. D. the ability of a virus or bacterium to be spread. Answer - B According to the Department of Homeland Security Advisory System, the color orange indicates a _______ risk of terrorist attacks. A. lowB. highC. severeD. general Answer - B After eating at a local restaurant, a 20-year-old male complains of blurred vision, difficulty speaking, and difficulty breathing. He is conscious; however, his respirations are profoundly labored and producing minimal tidal volume. You should: A. apply oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. B. position him supine and elevate his legs. C. request a paramedic to administer atropine. D. assist his ventilations with 100% oxygen. Answer - D At present, the likelihood of a nuclear attack against the United States is very low because: A. terrorist nations do not have the ability to deliver a nuclear weapon via missile or bomb. B. the United States has an effective early warning system to detect an incoming nuclear missile. C. other than the United States, no other countries are currently in possession of nuclear weapons. D. all nuclear devices or weapons that different countries are in possession of are currently accounted for Answer - A The means by which a terrorist will spread a particular agent is called: A. incubation.B. aerosolization.C. weaponization.D. dissemination. Answer - D The primary route of exposure of vesicant agents is the: A. skin.B. nervous system.C. vascular system.D. respiratory tract. Answer - A When introduced into the body, ricin causes: A. intestinal obstruction and severe sepsis. B. enlarged lymph nodes and extreme pain. C. pulmonary edema and circulatory failure. D. necrosis of muscle tissue and cell destruction. Answer - C C. Steel utility drums are used to contain acids, bases, and other corrosive chemicals and substances. D. The Emergency Response Guidebook tells you the type and color of container used to store hazardous materials. Answer - B You and your partner are the first to arrive at the scene of a motor vehicle accident. As you approach the scene, you can see multiple patients, some walking and others who are still in their vehicles. You should: A. establish an incident command post until you are relieved of your duties. B. declare a mass-casualty incident and request additional resources. C. begin rapidly triaging all patients before requesting additional help. D. immediately move all ambulatory patients to a designated area. Answer - B You and your partner arrive at the scene where a truck has crashed into a small building, injuring eight people. You immediately request additional ambulances and begin the triage process. The first patient that you triage is a young female who is unconscious and apneic. She has an open head injury and her pulse is weak and thready. You should: A. assess the severity of her open head injury. B. place a red tag on her and continue triaging. C. begin ventilating her with a bag-mask device. D. assign her a low priority and continue triaging. Answer - D As the first-arriving senior AEMT at the scene of an incident, you should perform a scene size-up and then: A. establish command. B. begin the triage process. C. call for additional resources. D. quickly identify the walking wounded. Answer - A The process of removing or neutralizing and properly disposing of a hazardous material is called: A. neutralization. B. decontamination. C. antidotal treatment. D. chemical containment. Answer - B The reference used as a base for your initial actions at a HazMat incident is/are: A. the bill of lading. B. your local EMS protocols. C. the material safety data sheet (MSDS). D. the Emergency Response Guidebook. Answer - D In preparing for a disaster, EMS systems should have enough supplies for at least a ______ period of self-sufficiency. A. 24-hour B. 48-hour C. 72-hour D. 96-hour Answer - C Quality control in EMS system is the ultimate responsibility of the: A.Paramedic B. Lead PCPC. Medical DirectorD. EMS administrator Answer - C Placards are used on: A. Buildings.B. Individual packages.C. Storage lockers.D. Storage papers. Answer - A Hypernatremia: 1. What is it 2. S/S Answer - 1. high levels of sodium 2. S - skin flushed A - agitation L - low grade fever T - thirst salbutamol sulfate 1. trade name 2. class 3. MOA 4. Indication 5. Contraindication 6. Precautions 7. Side Effects 8. Dose Answer - 1. Ventolin 2. sympathomimetic, beta-agonist 3. sympathomimetic selective to stimulate B2 adrenergic receptors; relaxes smooth muscle of bronchi and peripheral vasculature 4.Bronchospasm, anaphylaxis w/ bronchospasm, hyperkalemia 5. hypersensitivity 6. cardiac arrhythmia's assoc w/ tachycardia; if paradoxical bronchospasm, stop immediately 7. may cause hypokalemia and hyperglycemia, headache, N/V, dizziness, tremors, arrhythmia's, palpitations, tachycardia, muscle cramp 8. - Adult: 2.5 - 5mg nebulized q 5-10 min5-10 puffs (500-1000mcg) 5-10 min no max (MDI) - Ped: <20kg: 2.5 mg nebulized q 20 min>20kg: 2.5-5mg neb q 20 min4-8 puffs w/ MDI and spacer not intubated subjective v objective Answer - subjective: information told to you but cannot be seen, i.e from bystanders and symptoms stand by patient objective: information you observe and is measurable; i.e pt's BP and that they are yelling at you Classification of pediatric burns Answer - Minor: partial thickness burn involving less than 10% BSA Moderate: partial-thickness involving 10 to 20% of BSA Critical: any full-thickness, any partial-thickness involving more than 20%, any burn to hand, feet, face, airway, genitalia jumpSTART triage steps Answer - Step 1: move walking wounded Step 2: take any pediatric patient not developed enough to follow commands to staging area for treatment. Step 3: check for respiratory arrest. If in respiratory arrest, check carotid pulse. If pulse is not present, mark black. If present, adjust airway. If still in respiratory arrest, deliver 5 rescue breaths. If still in respiratory arrest, mark black. Step 4: If RR <15 or >45, mark red Step 5: check distal pulse. If present, go to the next step. If not present, mark red. Step 6: Unresponsive, responsive to pain with posturing, incomprehensible sounds, or unable to localize pain mark red. Mark as yellow with localization it withdrawing from pain stimulation Sector's of ICS: what is each's role? Answer - A. Medical Branch: Supervise the primary roles of medical branch - triage, treatment, transportation B. Triage: counting and prioritizing patients, don't begin till all patient's triaged C. Treatment: Set tx area with tier for ea. priority, communicate with medical branch director to request sufficient quantities of supplies D. Transportation: Coordinate transportation and distribution of patients to appropriate facilities E. Staging: EMS vehicles must have permission from the staging office to enter the scene. Plans for efficient access to and exit from disaster site F. Physician: Can provide on-scene medical direction for PCP's and provide medical are in the tx area as appropriate G. Rehab: Establishes an area that provides protection for responders from elements and situations should be located away from crowds and out of view of the scene itself. H. Extrication and special rescue: Will be appointed if a situation requires search and rescue or extrication of patients. Types of blast injuries Answer - Primary - Seen in the hollow organs. Lungs, intestines, inner ears. Direct effects of pressure waves (blast lung) Secondary - Penetrating or non penetrating injuries from flying debris, set in motion be the explosion Tertiary - Injury that results from whole body displacement and or traumatic impact with environment objects. Quaternary - Any other injury caused by a blast, toxic inhalation of combustible gases, crush injuries. Quinary - Injuries caused by exposure to toxic materials associated with radiation. 3. Bicuspid valve (mitral) - Separates the left atrium from the left ventricle (atrio- ventricular valves) 4. Aortic valve - One-way valve between the left ventricle and the aorta, keeps blood from flowing back into the left ventricle (semi-lunar valve) Einthoven's triangle Answer - Black: LA; Neutral White: RA; Negative Red: LL; Positive Green: RL; Ground Lead I: RA (-) → LA (+) Lead II: RA (-) → LL (+) Lead III: LA (-) → LL (+) S/S of superficial, partial thickness, full thickness Answer - Superficial: Only epidermis, skin is red but no blisters or burning through, painful Partial thickness: some dermis, but do not destroy entire thickness of skin. Skin is mottled, white to red, blistered, extremely painful Full thickness: extend through all layers of skin and can go as deep to the bone. Dry, leathery, white or charred, no pain in these areas What is the IE ratio Answer - IE (inspiration to expiration ratio): normal 1:3 King LT LMA sizes Answer - (retroglottic) Fits neonates, peds and adults: - Size 3: Yellow, people between 4-5 ft. - Size 4: Red, people between 5-6 ft. - Size 5: Purple, people over 6 ft. (I-Gel is the same sizing): - Size 3: yellow, people 30-60kg - Size 4: green, people 50-90kg - Size 5: Orange, people >90kg R.O.M.A.N R.O.D.S D.O.P.E Answer - a. (difficulty with BVM) radiation/restriction, obesity/obstruction, mallampati/male, age 55+, no teeth b. (difficulty with extraglottic devices) restricted opening, obstruction/obesity, distorted/disrupted, stiff lungs c. (difficulty with airway) Dislodged/displaced/disposition, obstruction/obesity, pneumothorax, equipment When do you stop BLS? Answer - S - starts breathing and has pulse T - transferred care O - out of strength P - physician directs to discontinue Normal VS for adult, child, infant and newborn Answer - Adult: 60-100, 12-20, 90- 140 systolic Child: 60-150, 12-30, low: 2xage in yrs +70 / high: 2xage in yrs + 90 Infant: 100-160, 25-50 , 70-95 systolic Newborn: 100-180, 30-60, 50-70 systolic Rule of nines Answer - Infant: Head: 18; Whole Torso: 18; Whole Back: 18; Arms: 9; Legs: 13.5; Genitalia: 1 Child: Head: 12; Whole Torso: 18; Whole Back: 18; Arms: 9; Legs: 16.5 Genitalia: 1 Adult/Adolescent: Head: 9; Whole Torso: 18; Whole Back: 18; Arms: 9; Legs: 18 Genitalia: 1 What are the 5 body cavities? Answer - Cranial, Spinal, Thoracic, Abdominal, Pelvic CPR: A. Adult breathing rate B. adult compressions C. CPR ratio with one person and two D. Child breathing rateE. Child compressions F. CPR ratio one person and two G. Infant breathing rate H. Infant compressions I. CPR ratio J. Neonate compression ratio Answer - A. 1 breath q5-6seconds or about 10-12 breaths/min B. 2 inches (5cm), 100-120/min C. 30 compressions to 2 breaths (30:2) D. 1 breath q 3-5seconds or about 12-20 breaths/min E. ⅓ the depth of the chest (2 inch-5cm), 100-120/min F. 1 rescuer 30:2; 2 rescuers 15:2 G. 1 breath q3-5seconds or about 12-20 breaths/min H. ⅓ the depth of the chest (1 ½ inch-4cm), 100-120/min I. 1 rescuer 30:2, 2 rescuers 15:2 J. 3:1 Atmospheric pressure and Intra-alveolar pressure Answer - A. Atmospheric pressure = 760mmHg B. Intra-alveolar pressure on inspiration = 757mmHg C. Intra-alveolar pressure on expiration = 763mmHg CNS breathing control: give the location and function A. Dorsal Respiratory Group B. Ventral Respiratory Group C. Pneumotaxic center D. Apneustic Center E. Hering-Breuer Reflex (stretch) F. Hering-Breuer Reflex (deflation) Answer - A. medulla; causes inspiration when stimulated B. medulla; causes forced expiration or inspiration C. pons; inhibits the DRG; increases speed and depth of respirations D. pons; excites the DRG; prolongs inspiration; decreases rate E. chest; detects lung expansion to point, tells VRG and pneumotaxic and apneustic centers to stop F. chest; Detects potential lung collapse, tells VRG and pneumotaxic and apneustic centers to stop Oxygen tank life calculation Answer - Cylinder factor x (Total psi-safe residual pressure)/flow rate (lpm) = time - Safe residual pressure: 200 psi - Cylinder Factor: D = 0.16; Jumbo D = 0.28; E = 0.28; M = 1.56; H = 3.14 Formula's: A. 3:1 rule B. Fluid resuscitation C. IV drip rate Answer - A. 3ml of crystalloid solution is required per 1ml of blood loss B. 20ml/kg to max of 3 liters or titrate to radial pulse C. gtt's/min= total volume x drop set Time (min) Ex: 250ml/hr x 10gtt/ml / 60min/hr = 42gtt/min define: A. dysarthria B. dysphasia C. dysphagia D. aphasia Answer - A. difficulty speaking - slurred speech due to loss of muscle control B. impaired ability to understand or use the spoken word due to lesion or brain disfunction C. difficulty swallowing D. full loss of language, and ability to speak - typically from head injury or stroke What is each system responsible for? A. Circulatory B. lymphatic system C. Nervous system D. endocrine Answer - A. (aka cardiovascular system) - tubes connected to one another and to a pump. Includes the heart, arteries, arterioles, veins, venules, capillaries. - systemic and pulmonary circulation B. lymph vessels travel close to the major arteries and veins. Lymph nodes filter lymph of debris and bacteria. - In major loss of fluid - collect fluid and return it to central venous circulation C. Composed of brain and spinal cord. System allows the body to communicate and function. Responsible for memory, thought, understanding. S/S of an air embolism? Answer - blurred vision, headache, dyspnea, blotching skin, froth at the mouth and nose, localized pleuritic chest pain, dysphasia, difficulty with vision, paralysis, irregular pulse or cardiac arrest What is work? kinetic energy? potential energy? Answer - a. force acting over a distance b. energy of a moving object c. product of weight, gravity, height what is newtons law? Answer - objects at rest stay at rest, objects in motion stay in motion unless acted on by an outside force what causing a sucking chest wound? Answer - open wound to the chest allows air to enter the pleural space common gases produced from fires that may cause gas inhalation burns/poisoning? Answer - carbon monoxide, cyanide where does the face receive its blood supply from? Answer - internal and external carotid arteries What is barotitis? Answer - Middle ear problems due to changing atmospheric pressures What are the most commonly injured structures in the neck? Answer - blood vessels how should you place a patient with a suspected esophageal tear and why? Answer - semi-fowler's position to prevent reflux of gastric contents what are the categories of brain injuries? Answer - - mild and moderate diffuse axonal injury - diffuse axonal injury - focal injury what is the paper-bag effect? Answer - pneumothorax that occurs when a person takes a deep breath and holds it just before an automobile collision. Air trapped inside causes the lung to rupture, like a paper bag What is traumatic asphyxia? Answer - severe crushing injury to the chest and abdomen how much blood can each side of the thorax hold? Answer - 2-3L how should you place a patient with abdominal injuries? Answer - supine with knees bent types of fx Answer - greenstick - bend, break, splinter spiral - occurs when a rotating force is applied along the axis of a bone; when the body is in motion while one extremity is planted transverse - break is at a R angle to the long plane of a bone; most often occur from strong force applied perpendicular to the long axis of a bone comminuted - break or splinter of the bone into more than two fragments; common after high velocity injuries compression - fx or break in the vertebrae oblique - complete break, typically at an angle, of the plane of a long bone What causes the third space in femur fx and what is it? Answer - strong muscles in the thighs cause fractured bone ends to override in which bleeding can occur leading to hemorrhagic shock What are the quadrants of the abdomen? What organs are in each quadrants? Answer - right upper: R lobe of liver, R kidney, gallbladder, pancreas, bile duct, portion of small and large intestine left upper: spleen, stomach, L lobe of liver, L kidney, portion of pancreas, portion of small and large intestine right lower: Portion of small and large intestine, R ovary, fallopian tube, ureter, appendix, left lower: portion of small and large intestine, L ovary and fallopian tube, L ureter What is viscus a general term for? What is the most common viscus organ to rupture? Answer - - Hollow organ - duodenum due to a peptic ulcer what is the term for a kidney infection? Answer - pyelonephritis what is the usual dose of NS or LR for a pt experiencing abdominal pain and appearing dehydrated or hypotensive? Answer - 500-1000ml IV as rapidly as possible how much fluid can an abdominal cavity hold up to before showing signs of distention? Answer - 1.5L what does insulin work with to regulate blood sugar levels? Answer - epinephrine and glucagon Where is insulin made and by what cells? Answer - pancreas, beta cells prolonged hypoglycemia may lead to permanent brain cell damage, how long is this approximately? Answer - greater than 20-30 minutes how long should you hold an epi-pen against the leg? Answer - 10 seconds routes of infectious diseases Answer - vector, indirect contact, direct contact, airborne, food borne reversible causes of cardiac arrest Answer - hypovolemia, hypothermia, hydrogen, hydrogen ions, hypo/hyperkalemia toxins, cardiac tamponade, tension pneumo, pulmonary thrombosis, cardiac thrombosis APGAR Score Answer - standard scoring system used to assess the status of a newborn; *calculated 1 min - 5 min after birth A: Activity (muscle tone) 0=Absent, 1=Flexed arms/legs 2=Active P: Pulse; 0=Absent, 1=Below 100b/min, 2=Over 100b/min G: Grimace (reflex irritability); 0=Floppy, 1=Min response to stimulus, 2=Prompt response to stimulus A: Appearance (skin colour) 0=Blue; pale, 1=Pink body, blue extremities; 2=Pink R: Respiration; 0=Absent, 1=Slow and irregular, 2=Vigorous cry Condition and Location of Pain: A. Appendicitis: B. Cholecystitis: C. Duodenal ulcer: D. Diverticulitis: E. Aortic aneurysm: F. Cystitis (inflammation of urinary bladder): G. Kidney infection (Pyelonephritis) H. Kidney stones I. Pelvic inflammation (women) J. Pancreatitis Answer - A. referred around navel, direct in RLQ B. referred right shoulder; direct in RUQ C. upper midabdomen or upper back area D. LLQ E. Tearing interscapular, substernal / Direct upper abdo, radiates to the back F. Lower midabdomen (retropubic) G. Costovertebral angle H. R or L flank, radiating/referred to genitalia I. RLQ and LLQ J. RUQ and LUQ and radiates to back trauma triad of death Answer - coagulopathy, hypothermia, acidosis Emergency management phases of FEMA Answer - 1. Mitigation phase: 2. Preparedness phase: 3. Response phase: 4. Recovery phase: SVT and tachycardia for infant and child Answer - Infant: SVT=>220, ST=<220 Child: SVT=>180, ST=<180 How are chemoreceptors stimulated? Answer - PaCO2 change Approx how much of the body's weight is water? Answer - 60% What is the aretynoid cartilage? Answer - pyramid like cartilaginous structure used to hold vocal cords in place and produces variation in voice tones. Lies posterior of trachea, proximal of cricoid cartilage, behind thyroid cartilage How do you find MAP? Answer - DP + 1/3(SP - DP) Pt's with hypokalemia might experience what? Answer - decreased skeletal muscle function, GI disturbances, alterations in cardiac function What is perfusion? What is shock? Answer - a. adequate amount of O2 to meet cellular need B. LACK OF PERFUSION- state of collapse and failure of cardiovascular system leading to inadequate circulation Auto transfusion effect Answer - State of shock where overall response of initial compensatory mechanism to increase preload, SV, HR, increase CO Number one cause of pump failure? Answer - cardiogenic shock What are the three major arteries arising from aortic arch? Answer - Brachiocephalic, L common carotid, L subclavian What is prinzmetal's angina? What is it caused by? Answer - caused by coronary vasospasm; prinzmetal's angina is angina that almost always occurs at night when person is at rest between midnight and early morning Hypertensive crisis is considered a true emergency when? Answer - signs of CNS dysfunction are present Approx two-thirds of the myocardium lies within: Answer - mediastinum Blood enters the right atrium through what? Answer - Vena cavae and coronary sinus Definitive treatment to reduce acute respiratory distress in a patient with a pleural effusion involves: Answer - fluid thoracentesis S/S of internal bleeding Answer - hematemesis, hemoptysis, melena, hematochezia (bright red blood in stool), referred pain over R shoulder for liver and L shoulder for spleen, pain, swelling, distention, bruising, hematoma What is Waddell's Triad? Answer - Represents emergency for pediatric patient due to high incidence of injuries associated with femur fracture - 3 distinct features seen in pediatric pedestrians with blunt force trauma (usually via MVC)- ipislateral femoral shaft fx, ipsilateral intra-thoracic or intra-abdominal injury, contralateral head injury Roles of cerebrum and cerebellum Answer - A. cerebrum: (divided into R and L hemispheres) - frontal lobe: motor movement, personality, emotion/thought - parietal: sensory and sensory interpretation - temporal: hearing - occipital: sight B. cerebellum: little brain, fine motor movement What is cystic fibrosis? Answer - genetic disorder of endocrine system that primarily targets respiratory and digestive systems - usually fatal- affects the cells that produce mucus, sweat and digestive juices. The secreted fluids normally thin and slippery. But in people with CF, a defective gene causes the secretions to become sticky and thick. Instead of acting as lubricants, the secretions plug up tubes, ducts and passageways what is the melanin layer? Answer - basil cell layer in epidermis that produces skin color and pigment zones of burns Answer - Zone of coagulation: greatest damage, closest to heat source; zone of stasis: decreased blood flow due to inflammation which can go under tissue necrosis 24-48 hrs after injury; zone of hyperemia: least affected by thermal injury, cells typically recover within 7 to 10 days Classification of burn severity a. major b. moderate c. minor Answer - a. Involving hands, feet, major joints, genitalia or circumferential; full thickness >10%, partial thickness of >25%, respiratory injury, any fx or trauma, high voltage, any chemical, any burn younger than 5 older than 55 that would be mild on adult b. Full thickness from 2-10% BSA, partial thickness 15-25%, superficial over 50%, low voltage c. Full thickness less than 2%, partial thickness of 15% and 10%, superficial burns less than 50% TBSA What is pharmacokinetics? Answer - the study of drug movement throughout the body What is pulsus paradoxus? What patient would you test it and why does it occur? Answer - abnormally large decrease in stroke volume, systolic blood pressure during inspiration; more than 10 mmHgTest on COPD patient - due to air trapping, their lungs are already filled with air, so on inhalation - intrathoracic pressure is so high, when they take a breath in, it obstructs their heart Cardiac Tamponade patient's as well The heart rhythms that have no pulse Answer - PEA, Vtach, Vfib, asystole What is cor pulmonale? Answer - right sided heart failure secondary to left sided heart failure What is the most common reason for adult seizures? Answer - non compliance with medications Healthy adult normally breathes in what amount of air? Answer - 500 mL Anions vs Cations and the major electrolytes of each Answer - Anions are negatively charged ions (bicarbonate, chloride, phosphorus) - Cations are positively charged ions (sodium, potassium, calcium) Residual Volume: 1. Vital Capacity: Answer - 1. Air remaining in lungs after maximal expiration - approx 150cc 1. Amount of air that can be forcible expelled from lungs after breathing in as deeply as possible Vocal cords Answer - Thin white band of tough muscular tissue that are lateral borders of glottis and primary center for speech production Major roles of: a. Sodium b. Potassium c. Calcium d. Chloride e. Bicarbonate f. phosphate Answer - a. Extracellular cation: fluid balance, conduction of nerve impulses and muscle contraction, myocardial depolarization b. Intracellular cation: growth, conduction of nerve impulses, muscle contraction, acid/base regulation, myocardial repolarization c. Most abundant Cation: blood clotting, bone growth, metabolism, normal cardiac function, muscle contraction d. Extracellular anion: maintains fluid balance e. Major buffer: maintains acid base balance f. anion: bone growth calculation for BP Answer - CO x Peripheral Vascular Resistance x HR Describes amount of gas in air or dissolved in fluid, such as blood Answer - partial pressure a. For every degree of body temp lost = how much loss of clotting ability? b. 100% Fatality rate if core temp drops below what? Answer - 10% 32 degrees