Download Medical Terminology and Concepts and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! PCP review for COPR Questions And Answers Rated 100% Correct!! What is the Parkland formula? Answer- Fluids for first 24hrs : 4ml x pt weight in kg x %BSA= 50% over first 8hrs 50% over next 16hrs Hemothorax and S/S Answer- A hemothorax is an accumulation of up to 1,500mL of blood within the pleural space S/S: Flat neck veins, decreased lung sounds on the affected side, increased RR, increased HR, hypotension first, hyporresonant, loss of blood, hypoxia Pneumothorax Answer- Air in pleural cavity (also known as pleural space) S/S: JVD, decreased lung sounds on affected side, increased RR, increased HR, SOB first, hyperressonant, can lead to tension pneumo and tracheal deviation, hypoxia 4 M's of pregnancy Answer- - Multiplicity (multiple babies) - Maturity - Medication - Meconium Definition of libel Answer- written defamation (Making a false statement in written form that injures a person's good name) Definition of Slander Answer- spoken defamation (Making a false verbal statement that injures a person's good name) What is diffusion Answer- The movement of particles/solute from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration. What is osmosis Answer- movement of solvent (water) from area of lower solute concentration to higher concentration What is filtration? Answer- passage through filter or through material prevents passage of certain molecules What is a hypotonic solution Answer- solution has less osmotic pressure than body fluids - "hippo" - solvent concentration inside cell higher, larger cell eventually bursts Negligence Answer- Failure to provide the same care that a person with similar training would provide in the same or similar situation Gross negligence Answer- Conduct that constitutes a willful or reckless disregard for a duty or standard of care Malfeasance Answer- Occurs if you perform an act that you are not authorized to do Misfeasance Answer- Occurs if you perform an act that you are legally permitted to do but you do so in an improper manner Nonfeasance Answer- Occurs if you fail to perform an act that you are required to expected to perform What 4 elements must be present for negligence to apply Answer- 1. Duty 2. Breach of duty 3. Damages 4. Proximate cause Duty Answer- Is an obligation to provide patient care in a manner that is consistent with the standard of care established by training and local protocols Breach of duty Answer- Occurs when the person accused of negligence failed to act as another person with similar training would have acted under the same circumstances Damages Answer- When a patient is physically or psychologically harmed in some noticeable way Proximate cause Answer- Legal term, essentially considers whether the alleged harm to the patient would have occurred "but for" the negligent act Abandonment Answer- Form of negligence that involves the termination of emergency medical care without the patients consent Assult Answer- Threatening a person or causing a person fear or immediate bodily harm without the persons consent - regardless of whether the threat or harm is actually carried out Battery Answer- unlawful touching of another person without consent Kidnapping Answer- The seizing, confining, abducting, or carrying away of a person by force, including transporting a competent adult for medical treatment without his or her consent. False Imprisonment Answer- unauthorized confinement of a person that lasts for an appreciable period of time Slander Answer- false verbal statements about others that harm their reputation Libel Answer- false written statement that harms a persons reputation Cultural imposition Answer- When one person imposes or forces his or her beliefs, values, and practices on another because he or she believe his or her ideals are superior Enhanced 9-1-1 Answer- An emergency response system in which much of the call information, such as the phone number and location of the caller, is recorded automatically and viewed by the dispatcher on a computer screen Objective Answer- Signs that you observe and record such as blood pressure Subjective Answer- Information that is told to you but can't be seen (symptoms, degree of pain) Oamosis Answer- Passive movement of a solvent from an area of low solute concentration to and area of higher solute concentration through permeable membrane Tendon Answer- Connects muscle to bone Ligament Answer- Connects bone to bone Cartilage Answer- Cushion between bones Joint Answer- Where ever 2 long bones come in contact ball and socket joint Answer- shoulder and hip (flexion, extension, abduction, adduction, rotation, circumduction) hinge joint Answer- Joint between bones (as at the elbow or knee) that permits motion in only one plane axial skeleton Answer- skull, rib cage, and vertebral column appendicular skeleton Answer- Arms, legs, pelvis, shoulder How many bones are in the body? Answer- 206 Spinal column has how many vertebrae? Answer- 33 How many vertebrae are in the cervical spine Answer- 7 (C1-C7) How many vertebrae are in the thoracic spine Answer- 12 (T1-T12) How many vertebrae are in the lumbar spine Answer- 5 (L1-L5) How many vertebrae are in the sacrum Answer- 5 fused vertebrae How many vertebrae are in the coccyx Answer- 4 fused vertebrae Smooth muscle Answer- Involuntary muscle found inside many internal organs of the body Cardiac muscle Answer- Muscle of the heart skeletal muscle Answer- A muscle that is attached to the bones of the skeleton and provides the force that moves the bones. voluntary muscle Answer- A muscle that is under conscious control Upper airway Answer- nose, mouth, nasopharynx, oropharynx, pharynx, larynx, epiglottis Lower airway Answer- trachea, bronchi, bronchioles, alveoli Ventilation Answer- Process of moving of air in and out of the lungs Respiration Answer- exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide Acidosis Answer- pH below 7.35 Low pH means high H+ ion concentration Alkalosis Answer- pH above 7.45 High pH mean low H+ ion concentration tidal volume Answer- Amount of air that moves in and out of the lungs during a single breath (approx. 500ml) inspiratory reserve volume Answer- The deepest breath you can take after a normal breath (3,000ml) expiratory reserve volume Answer- Max amount of air that you can forcibly breathe out after a normal breath (1,200ml) residual volume Answer- Amount of air remaining in the lungs after a forced exhalation (1,200ml) dead space Answer- Portion of the respiratory system that has no alveoli therefore little or no exchange of gas between air and blood occurs Minute volume calculation Answer- Resp rate X tidal volume Chronotropic Answer- Rate of contraction Dromotropic Answer- rate of electrical conduction Inotropic Answer- strength of contraction Cardiac output equation Answer- CO = HR x SV Normal stroke volume Answer- 70 mL What is the largest part of the braun Answer- Cerebrum Adult GCS Answer- Eye Opening: Spontaneous - 4 To verbal stimuli - 3 To painful stimuli - 2 No response - 1 Verbal: Oriented - 5 Confused - 4 Inappropriate words - 3 Incomprehensible sounds - 2 No response - 1 Motor: Obeys commands - 6 Localizes pain - 5 Withdrawals from pain - 4 Abnormal flexion (decorticate) - 3 Abnormal extension (decerebrate) - 2 No response - 1 Child GCS Answer- Eye Opening: Spontaneous - 4 To verbal stimuli - 3 To painful stimuli - 2 No response - 1 Verbal: Oriented - 5 Confused - 4 Cries - 3 Moans - 2 No response - 1 Motor: Obeys commands - 6 Localizes pain - 5 Withdrawals from pain - 4 Abnormal flexion (decorticate) - 3 Abnormal extension (decerebrate) - 2 No response - 1 Infant GCS Answer- Eye Opening: Spontaneous - 4 To verbal stimuli - 3 To painful stimuli - 2 No response - 1 Verbal: Coos, Babbles - 5 Irritable cry - 4 - Depending on strength in the legs, may need a wheelchair and may also walk with braces Spinal injury (S1-S5) Answer- - Injuries generally result in some loss of function in the hips and legs - Little or no voluntary control of bowel or bladder - Most likely will be able to walk - S1 nerves affect the hips and the groin area. - S2 nerves affect the backs of the thighs. - S3 nerves affect the medial buttock area. - S4 nerves affect the perineal area. What does the RUQ contain? Answer- - Right lobe of liver - Right kidney - Gallbladder - Portion of pancreas - Portions of small and large intestines What does the LUQ contain? Answer- - Left lobe of liver - Spleen - Left kidney - Stomach - Portion pf pancreas - Portions of small and large intestines What does the LLQ contain? Answer- - Portions of small and large intestines - Left ovary and fallopian tube - Left ureter What does the RLQ contain? Answer- - Portions of small and large intestines - Right ovary and fallopian tube - Right ureter - Appendix 5 links in chain of survival Answer- 1. Recognition and activation of EMS 2. Immediate high quality CPR 3. Rapid defibrillation 4. BLS and ALS care 5. Advanced life support and post-arrest care Adult chest compression rate Answer- 100-120/min Adult chest compression depth Answer- 2 inches (5cm) Adult CPR Answer- 1 or 2 rescuer - 30:2 Children and infant CPR Answer- 1 rescuer - 30:2 2 rescuer - 15:2 Child CPR chest compression depth Answer- 2 inches (5cm) Infant CPR chest compression depth Answer- 1.5 inches (4cm) Rate of ventilation during CPR with an advanced airway Answer- 1 breath every 6 seconds (10/min) with continuous chest compressions Stages of labour Answer- 1: Onset of contractions to effacement and/or complete dilation of cervix 2: Crowning to delivery of newborn 3: Delivery of newborn to delivery of placenta Normal vital signs for a child Answer- HR: 60-150 RR: 12-30 BP: low: 2xage + 70, high 2xage + 90 Normal vital signs for an adult Answer- HR: 60-100 RR: 12-20 BP: 90-140 systolic Normal vital signs for an infant Answer- HR: 100-160 RR: 25-50 BP:70-95 systolic Normal vital signs for a newborn Answer- HR: 100-180 RR: 30-60 BP: 50-70 APGAR Answer- Appearance 2: Pink 1: Pink body, blue extremities 0: Blue Pulse 2: Over 100 1: Under 100 0: Absent Grimace 2: Prompt response to stimulus 1: Slow response to stimulus 0: Floppy Activity 2: Active 1: Flexed arms/legs 0: Absent/limp Respirations 2: Strong cry 1: Weak cry 0: Absent Rule of nines for infants Answer- Head: 18 Whole Torso: 18 Whole Back: 18 Arms: 9 Legs: 13.5 Genitalia: 1 Rule of nines for a child Answer- Head: 12 Whole Torso: 18 Whole Back: 18 Arms: 9 Legs: 16.5 Genitalia: 1 Rule of nines for adults Answer- Head: 9 Whole Torso: 18 Whole Back: 18 Arms: 9 Legs: 18 Genitalia: 1 4 levels of HAZMAT gear Answer- Level A: highest level, reps&splash protection for unknown substanceLevel B: full resp protection, chemically resistantLevel C: air purifying respirator, eye and hand protectionLevel D: firefighter gear, not suitable for HAZMAT 4 Levels of Decontamination Answer- ... 3 stages of shock Answer- -Compensated -Decompensated -Irreversible compensated shock Answer- ... What are the lateral leads? Answer- I, aVL, V5, V6 What are the anterior leads? Answer- V3, V4 What are the inferior leads? Answer- II, III, aVF What are the septal leads? Answer- V1, V2 King Tube Sizes Answer- Size 3: Under 5ft (Yellow) Size 4: 5ft-6ft (Red) Size 5: Over 6ft (Purple) LMA and Igel sizes Answer- Size 3: 30-60kg (Yellow) Size 4: 50-90kg (Green) Size 5: 90+kg (Orange) What are the 3 breaches of duty? Answer- - Malfeasance - Misfeasance What are the S/S of inferior ACS and why? NOT DONE* Answer- - Hypotension: Due to the blockage of the RV it will pump less blood being sent to the heart and rest of the body - Tachycardia: Because there's a decrease in CO the HR increases to try and compensate - Bradycardia: If the block in the RCA is directly in front of the SA node or high enough to affect it you will see bradycardia as a result - Crushing chest pain: - SOB: - Peripheral Edema: TX for Inferior ACS Answer- - ASA 160mg - IV with isotonic fluids 250-50ml then reassess - Nitro (At ACP level ONLY) Which 12 leads are Lateral? Answer- 1, V5, V6, aVL Which 12 leads are inferior? Answer- II,III,aVF Which 12 leads are septal? Answer- VI, V2 Which 12 leads are anterior? Answer- V3, V4 START Triage Red (immediate) requirements Answer- - Resps >30 or <10 - Absent radial pulse - Unresponsive or can't follow commands - Cap refil >2sec START Triage Yellow (Delyed) requirements Answer- - Resps <30 and >10 - Present radial pulse - Follows commands - Cap refill <2sec START Triage Green (Minor) requirements Answer- - Walking wounded - Minor fractures - Minor soft-tissue injuries START Trige Black (Dead) requirements Answer- - Obvious death - Resp arrest - Cardiac arrest - Open head injury (visible brain matter) Empathy Answer- ability to identify and understand what someone is feeling Simplex transmitter Answer- Single frequency radio, can occur in either direction but not both simultaneously Duplex transmitter Answer- Ability to transmit and receive simultaneously Cellular telephone Answer- Low powered portable radio communicates through an interconnected series of repeat stations Important aspects of radio communication Answer- - Keep transmissions clear and brief - Ensure clear frequency - Standard formating - Hold microphone 2-3' away from mouth - Use clear, calm and monotone voice - Clear text, be professional - Avoid using slang/abbreviations - Patient confidentiality and privacy Beta 1 receptors Answer- -Heart -Increases HR (chromotropic), contractility (inotropic), and conductivity (dromotropic) Beta 2 receptors Answer- - Lungs - Vasodilates bronchioles alpha receptors Answer- peripheral vasoconstriction Sympathetic nervous system Answer- - "Fight or flight" - Increases altertness - Increases HR Parasympathetic nervous system Answer- - "Rest and DIgest" - Conserves energy - Slows HR - Increases intestinal and gland activity - Relaxes sphincter muscles and Gi tract Definition of infancy Answer- The first year of life What is a newborn age Answer- First month of life 0-2 month old characteristics Answer- - Spend most time sleeping or eating - Respond mainly to physical stimuli - Have limited head control - Predisposed to hypothermia - Express themselves largely through crying - Are not able to tell the difference between parents and strangers - Nose breathers 2-6 month old characteristics Answer- - More active and social - Recognize caregivers - May follow bright light or object with eyes - 4 months of age: able to hold their heads up - increase awareness of surroundings - persistent crying, irritability, lack of eye contact: can be sign of significant illness, depressed mental status, delay in development - 3-4 months start to breath through mouth 6-12 month old characteristics Answer- - Can sit unsupported - Reach for objects - Become more mobile - More aware of surroundings - Explore own bodies - Begin teething and putting things in mouth - Babbling is common What age is a toddler? Answer- 1-3 years 12-18 month old characteristics Answer- - Begin to walk and explore - Imitate behaviours of older children and parents - May not be able to fully chew food 18-24 month old characteristics Answer- - Minds develop rapidly - Begin to understand cause and effect - Balance and gait improve rapidly - Running and climbing develop - Ten to cling to parent/caregiver or special object Preschool age range Answer- 3-6 years 3-6 year old characteristics Answer- - Can understand directions - Much more specific in describing their sensations - Identify painful areas when asked School age range Answer- 6-12 years 6-12 year old characteristics Answer- - Beginning to act more like adults - Thinks in concrete terms - Responds sensibly to direct questions - Helps take care of themselves Adolescent age range Answer- 12-18 years 12-18 year old characteristics Answer- - Can think abstractly and participate in decision making - Puberty begins - Struggling with issues of independence, body image, sexuality, and peer pressure A child's head differs from an adults how? Answer- It is proportionally larger than an adults A child's airway differs from an adults how? Answer- - Tongue takes up more room - Larynx is higher and more anterior - Airways is narrower - Neck and trachea are shorter