Medical Terminology and Concepts, Exams of Nursing

Download Medical Terminology and Concepts and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! CPN Study Questions 1-100 Exam 100 Questions with Verified Answers A 6-week-old male infant is brought into the ED by his mother. He has a weeklong history of progressively worsening emesis that is projectile in nature. What is his most likely diagnosis? A. Intussusception. B. Appendicitis. C. Pyloric stenosis. D. Pancreatitis. - CORRECT ANSWER C: Projectile vomiting in a 6 week-old male is the classic presentation for pyloric stenosis, obstruction of the pyloric sphincter between the gastric pylorus and the small intestine, caused by hypertrophy and hyperplasia of the circular muscle of the pylorus, which obstructs the sphincter. An 8-year-old male has contracted chicken pox (varicella virus). With which of the following family members can the child have contact? A. 20-year-old aunt on chemotherapy. B. 35-year-old uncle with HIV. C. 95-year-old grandfather on long-term steroid therapy. D. 2-year-old brother who has never had varicella but has had the vaccine - CORRECT ANSWER D: The 2-year-old brother, who has had the vaccine, is likely immune to varicella, so contact is safe. All of the other relatives have some form of immunosuppression from infection (HIV) or medications (chemotherapy and steroids) and should avoid contact with the patient A 5-year-old girl has a fever, headache, and complaints of a stiff neck. The physician suspects bacterial meningitis. What is the best test culture site to detect the bacteria? A. Lumbar puncture. B. Clean catch urine. C. Blood culture. D. Nasal swab. - CORRECT ANSWER A: Lumbar puncture is the method of choice for detecting the bacteria causing bacterial meningitis and sending a sample for culture, as meningitis infects the meninges and bacteria is present in the cerebrospinal fluid. A 2-year-old child has severe dental caries in the upper and lower front teeth, posterior aspects. What is the most likely cause for this type of caries? A. Lack of fluoridation in the water. B. Sleeping with water in a nighttime bottle. C. Low carbohydrate diet. D. Sleeping with sugared liquid in nighttime bottle - CORRECT ANSWER D: Caries in the posterior front teeth is a sign of sleeping with sugared drinks in the nighttime bottle (such as juice) because fluid pools in the mouth when the child falls to sleep. ***Which of the following patients will likely need surgical correction of his/her fracture?*** A. 10-year-old with humeral head fracture. B. 5-year-old with tuft fracture of the distal phalanx. C. 4-year-old with tuft fracture of the toe. D. 16-year-old with radial head fracture. - CORRECT ANSWER A: Humeral head fractures usually need open reduction and internal fixation to maintain proper future functioning. Distal phalanx and toe fractures are treated with splints and fracture of the radial head with a sling. An infant with a chronic respiratory condition should be offered all of the following vaccines EXCEPT: A. Hepatitis A. B. Hepatitis B. C. Hepatitis C. nurse is admitting a 16-year-old female to the mental health unit with a diagnosis of bulimia and anorexia. What OTC medications should the client's belongings be screened for as they may interfere with treatment? A. Imodium. B. Acetaminophen (Tylenol). C. Laxatives. D. Ibuprofen (Motrin). - CORRECT ANSWER C: People with eating disorders, such as bulimia and anorexia, often use laxatives as well as diuretics to control weight. New patients should be checked for these items. Bulimics may purge by vomiting after eating. 10-year-old is accidentally shot in the forearm by a small caliber firearm. The wound enters the dorsum of the forearm and exits on the ventral side. The patient is ambulatory and has minor pain at the site. What test is likely needed for evaluation of the injury? A. Arteriogram. B. CT of arm. C. MRI of arm. D. Ultrasound of arm - CORRECT ANSWER A: An arteriogram is needed to assess the vascular supply in the arm after a gunshot wound to ensure that no injury to the ulnar and radial artery has occurred. A 17-year-old female with severe acne wants treatment for her condition. What form of treatment requires the patient use 2 forms of contraception and sign a consent form? A. Benzoyl peroxide cream. B. Tetracycline (Sumycin) pills. C. Isotretinoin (Accutane) pills. D. Ultraviolet light treatment. - CORRECT ANSWER C: Accutane is a vitamin A derivative and can lead to severe birth defects if given to pregnant females. Two forms of contraception and a lengthy consent form are needed. Benzoyl peroxide and ultraviolet light treatment pose no risks to the fetus. Tetracycline has a low risk during the first trimester of pregnancy but can cause discoloration of the child's teeth if taken during the second trimester. An 8-year-old with suspected appendicitis is evaluated. The physician asks the child to lie on his left side and extend the hip, eliciting pain in the RLQ. What is this test called? A. Rovsing's sign. B. Psoas sign. C. Kernig's sign. D. Brudzinski's sign. - CORRECT ANSWER B: The Psoas sign consists of extension of the thigh while lying on the left side and causes pain with a posterior pointing appendix. Rovsing's sign also assesses for appendicitis and elicits referred pain in the right lower quadrant with palpation in the left lower quadrant. Kernig's sign and Brudzinski's sign are used to assess for meningitis. In order to collect proper blood culture samples, which of the following actions should the nurse take? A. Sterilize the antecubital fossa with iodine. B. Draw sample from femoral site. C. Cleanse the site with alcohol. D. Shave collection site. - CORRECT ANSWER A: In order to minimize contaminants, blood cultures are taken from the antecubital fossa after sterilizing with iodine and wearing sterile gloves. Alcohol cleansing does not sterilize, and shaving can break the skin, increasing the chance of contamination. Samples are not routinely drawn from the femoral site. The child of a celebrity client is admitted to a nursing floor, and the nurse taking care of this patient notices a medical assistant not involved in the care of the patient looking at her chart. What would be the most appropriate course of action? A. Confront medical assistant and make her apologize. B. Notify nursing supervisor of HIPAA violation. C. Place chart in locked cabinet. D. Place chart at end of client's bed. - CORRECT ANSWER B: An unauthorized person's looking at any patient's chart is a clear HIPAA violation and must be reported to the supervisor in charge so that appropriate disciplinary action can be taken. A 7-year-old female is newly diagnosed with celiac disease. What is the best choice for a carbohydrate food source for this patient? A. Baked potato. B. Pasta. C. Bread. D. Saltine crackers. - CORRECT ANSWER A: Only the potato is a suitable source of carbohydrate for a person with celiac disease. Celiac disease is an allergic sensitivity to gluten in wheat products. Pasta, bread, and saltine crackers are all made with flour, which contains gluten. The parents of a newborn male ask you about the benefits of circumcision. It is appropriate to inform them that circumcision seems to decrease the risk of transmission of which of the following sexually transmitted diseases? A. Human papillomavirus (HPV). B. Syphilis. C. HIV. D. Hepatitis C. - CORRECT ANSWER C: Circumcision has been shown to decrease the rates of transmission of HIV but does not affect rates of syphilis, HPV, or hepatitis C. A. Restrained on papoose board. B. Restrained by parent on gurney. C. Under sedation in an operative room. D. Held on a parent's lap - CORRECT ANSWER D: Difficult examinations should be initially attempted while the child is sitting on a parent's lap. This will allow examination while under the calming care of the parent. Restraints are psychologically traumatic and should be used as a last resort only. Sedation in the operating room is not necessary Following a diagnosis of cystic fibrosis in their infant child, the parents should be educated in all of the following EXCEPT: A. Genetic counseling. B. Sign language. C. Home chest percussions. D. Dietary modifications. - CORRECT ANSWER B: CF is not directly associated with deafness, so education in sign language is not indicated although repeated treatment with antibiotics (aminoglycosides) can cause sensorineural hearing deficit. Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive disease and the parents should receive genetic counseling about the risk of the disease in future offspring. CF has both pulmonary and pancreatic manifestations so chest percussions and dietary modifications would be appropriate. Which of the following medications has been linked to the development of Reye's syndrome when given to febrile children? A. Acetaminophen (Tylenol). B. Naprosyn (Aleve). C. Aspirin. D. Ibuprofen (Motrin). - CORRECT ANSWER C: Use of aspirin in febrile children has been linked to the development of Reye's syndrome, a severe respiratory condition. Therefore, aspirin is not recommended for use in children. Fever in children is usually treated with acetaminophen or ibuprofen. A newborn with jaundice is treated with outpatient ultraviolet light therapy. What blood test is tested to ensure that the jaundice is clearing? A. Bilirubin. B. CBC. C. AST. D. Amylase. - CORRECT ANSWER A: Jaundice is caused by an elevation of bilirubin, which is monitored to ensure treatment success. As red blood cells break down, bilirubin forms and is excreted through the liver, but the infant's liver may be immature and unable to remove bilirubin fast enough, so bilirubin levels in the blood rise. Ultraviolet light helps to break down bilirubin. A 2-month-old male is being evaluated for gastroesophageal reflux. What is the best test to confirm this diagnosis? A. CT scan. B. Barium enema. C. Upper GI barium series D. Night-time Ph probe - CORRECT ANSWER D: A nighttime Ph probe requires a special monitoring device be inserted through the nose and down the esophagus to assess for acid reflux into the esophagus, confirming the diagnosis. A 16-year-old female is undergoing an evaluation for possible juvenile rheumatoid arthritis. What lab test serves as a marker for general inflammation? A. Monospot. B. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate. C. White blood count (WBC). D. Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) - CORRECT ANSWER B:The erythrocyte sedimentation rate is a non-specific marker for inflammation and would be elevated with rheumatoid arthritis. Monospot tests for the Epstein-Barr virus, which causes mononucleosis. WBC tests for infection, and MCV assesses the average volume of red blood cells. A 7-year-old female is evaluated for possible leukemia. She is scheduled for a bone marrow biopsy the next morning. What part of the body should be listed on the consent form for the biopsy? A. Radius. B. Skull. C. Posterior pelvis. D. Calcaneus (heel). - CORRECT ANSWER C: The posterior superior pelvic area is the preferred choice for bone marrow biopsy site because it is a large flat bone. The skull is too thin and the radius and calcaneus too small. While performing trauma resuscitation on a 5-year-old male, neither peripheral nor central IV access can be obtained. The physician orders an intraosseous line. What is the best site on the body for this line? A. Radius. B. Proximal anterior tibia. C. Skull. D. Medial malleolus. - CORRECT ANSWER B: An intraosseous line is inserted into the proximal anterior tibia in infants and children to 5 years old for rapid infusion of fluids and medications if another IV site is not accessible. The medial malleolus is used for older children and adults. Other possible sites include the distal femur, clavicle, humerus, and ileum. A 5-year-old is diagnosed with probable "Fifth's disease" caused by Parvovirus B19 although she does not yet have a rash. Which of the following should the child avoid? 5 stages assess maturity of both males and females based on direct observation of breasts and genitals. Females are evaluated on breast development, onset of menses, and pubic hair distribution. Males are evaluation on penis and testes development and pubic hair distribution Apocrine sweat glands develop during onset of puberty. In which part of the body are these glands most commonly located? A. Scalp. B. Feet. C. Hands. D. Axilla - CORRECT ANSWER D: Apocrine sweat glands develop with the increase in hormones during the onset of puberty and are located primarily in the axilla and pubic area, opening into hair follicles. These sweat glands cause body odor. A 16-year-old male has hearing loss at the 4000-Hertz range on audiogram. What is the most common cause for such a hearing deficit? A. Cerumen in the ear canal. B. Prolonged exposure to noises over 100 decibels. C. Medulla oblongata tumor. D. Ruptured tympanic membrane. - CORRECT ANSWER B: Prolonged exposure to loud noises (music, power tools, firearms) can lead to high frequency hearing loss at the 4000-Hertz level, making it hard for the child to hear high-pitched voices and certain sounds, such as consonants. Digital hearing aids may be programmed to compensate for high frequency hearing loss Which of the following would NOT be considered a pediatric patient at high risk for dehydration? A. 4-year-old male with 30% body surface area burn. B. 7-year-old female with diabetic ketoacidosis C. 12-year-old male with hyperventilation due to anxiety D. 8-year-old male with cellulitis in the right arm. - CORRECT ANSWER D: Cellulitis, a bacterial skin infection, is not associated with dehydration. Burns, diabetic ketoacidosis, and hyperventilation may all contribute to dehydration in children. A 15-year-old female is evaluated for an intentional overdose of aspirin. The excessive ingestion of this medication puts the patient at risk for what acid-base disorder? A. Metabolic acidosis. B. Metabolic alkalosis. C. Respiratory acidosis. D. Respiratory alkalosis. - CORRECT ANSWER A: The ingestion of aspirin (salicylic acid) puts the patient at risk for a metabolic acidosis due to the acidic medication. Symptoms include drowsiness, confusion, headache, decreased blood pressure, flushed skin, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea and tachypnea. Symptoms consistent with a diagnosis of dehydration in children would include all of the following EXCEPT: A. Thirst. B. Bradycardia. C. Dry mucous membranes. D. Depressed fontanelles. - CORRECT ANSWER B: Tachycardia, not bradycardia, is a common sign of dehydration in pediatric patients. Children with dehydration typically are thirsty and have dry mucous membranes, reduced skin turgor, and depressed fontanelles (in infants). A 6-year-old female with dehydration due to vomiting is evaluated with a complete blood count (CBC). What lab finding is expected? A. Decreased mean corpuscular (cell) volume (MCV). B. Increased MCV. C. Increased hematocrit. D. Normal red cell distribution width (RDW). - CORRECT ANSWER C: Due to volume loss, the hematocrit will be elevated as red blood cells become more concentrated in the blood. The MCV test shows the average size of the red blood cells and helps to determine the type of anemia while RDW shows the variations in cell size, important for some types of anemia (such as pernicious anemia). What is the leading cause of death in children in developing countries? A. Accidental trauma. B. TB. C. AIDS. D. Infectious diarrhea. - CORRECT ANSWER D: Infectious diarrhea remains the leading cause of death in developing countries. Outbreaks of diarrhea are common in areas with poor sanitation that allows food and water to become contaminated with bacteria, such as E. coli or Shigella. What is the most common cause of viral (non-bacterial) diarrhea in pediatric patients? A. Rotavirus. B. Parainfluenza. C. Influenza. D. Parvovirus B19. - CORRECT ANSWER A: Rotavirus is the most common cause for viral diarrhea in children and may be accompanied by nausea and vomiting that lead to severe dehydration. Parainfluenza, influenza, and parvovirus B19 cause mainly upper respiratory illnesses. After a camping trip a 14-year-old male develops diarrhea, flatulence, steatorrhea, and abdominal cramping. The other campers who drank water from a stream also have similar symptoms. What is the most likely causative organism? A. Coli. B. Giardia Lamblia. C. Rotavirus. Which of the following patients would be most at risk from meningitis due to the severity of their current infection? - CORRECT ANSWER C: Peri-orbital cellulitis can spread to the central nervous system and lead to meningitis due to the venous drainage from this area. The infection can travel along vessels and nerve pathways into the lining of the brain. Peri-orbital cellulitis should be treated with antibiotics and the patient closely monitored. A 5-year-old with suspected meningitis is evaluated with a lumbar puncture. Which of the following lab results would NOT be consistent with a diagnosis of bacterial meningitis? - CORRECT ANSWER A: An elevated WBC, not a decreased level, is consistent with a diagnosis of bacterial meningitis along with elevated protein, decreased glucose, and cloudiness in the cerebrospinal fluid. Bronchodilators are used to improve respiratory function and relax pulmonary musculature. Which of the following medications is NOT a bronchodilator? A. Albuterol (Proventil). B. Theophylline. C. Prednisolone (Prelone). D. Levalbuterol (Xopenex). - CORRECT ANSWER C: Prednisolone is a corticosteroid and is used to reduce inflammation but is not a bronchodilator. Albuterol, theophylline, and levalbuterol are all bronchodilators used to treat asthma by increasing airflow. Cystic fibrosis patients can develop breathing difficulty due to the viscosity of their sputum. Which of the following medications is used as a mucolytic agent to thin out the mucous and help them breathe better? A. Acetylcysteine (Mucomyst). B. Albuterol (Proventil). C. Prednisolone (Prelone). D. Theophylline. - CORRECT ANSWER A: Mucomyst is a mucolytic agent that is used to thin secretions and is especially useful in patients with cystic fibrosis. Prednisolone is used to treat inflammation, and albuterol and theophylline are bronchodilators. Acute otitis media is a very common disease in early childhood. Many different bacteria can cause otitis media. Which of the following is NOT a common bacterial pathogen in acute otitis media? A. Haemophilus influenzae. B. Streptococcus pneumoniae. C. Clostridium difficile. D. Moraxella catarrhalis. - CORRECT ANSWER C: C. difficile is a bacterial pathogen found in the GI tract and is not a common cause of acute otitis media. Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, and Moraxella catarrhalis can all cause otitis media Which of the following pediatric upper respiratory infections can lead to respiratory compromise and often requires intubation? A. Croup. B. Acute otitis media. C. Nasopharyngitis. D. Epiglottiditis. - CORRECT ANSWER D: Epiglottiditis is the acute inflammation of the epiglottis and is usually caused by Haemophilus influenza infection. Children often present sitting forward (tripod position) with their heads tilted backward to try to relieve the airway obstruction. In addition to possible intubation, oxygen and steroids are the mainstays of treatment. Cystic fibrosis is an inherited disease that affects the respiratory and digestive systems. What is the genetic etiology of cystic fibrosis? A. Autosomal dominant. B. Autosomal recessive. C. Y chromosome linked. D. Spontaneous mutation. - CORRECT ANSWER B: Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive genetic disease, so both parents must pass on a recessive gene to the child. Parents of a child with CF should have genetic counseling so they are aware that they have a 1 in 4 chance of any additional children being born with CF. Due to insufficiencies in chloride channel function in cells, children with cystic fibrosis often need supplementation for proper digestion. What medication is commonly needed for these patients? A. Protein pump inhibitors. B. Pancreatic enzymes. C. Antacids. D. Laxatives. - CORRECT ANSWER B: Cystic fibrosis patients often need pancreatic enzymes supplementation because the pancreatic ducts may become plugged with mucous plugs. Fat-soluble vitamins A, D, E, and K assist with digestion. Constipation is common, but routine use of laxatives should be avoided. A nurse is advising a new mother on care of her newborn. The newborn has a cleft palate. What should NOT be advised regarding feeding of this infant prior to surgical correction? A. The infant should be fed slowly and burped frequently B. Special nipples should be provided for infants unable to suck adequately with a standard nipple C. Sucking should be stimulated by rubbing the nipple on the lower lip. hemoglobinopathy in African-Americans. It causes sickling of the red blood cells because of abnormal strands in the hemoglobin. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is an acquired disease causing hemorrhage. What circulating blood component is reduced with ITP? A. Platelets. B. Red blood cells. C. White blood cells. D. Iron. - CORRECT ANSWER A: ITP represents an acquired deficiency of platelets (thrombocytes) leading to increased risk of bleeding. ITP is believed caused by an autoimmune process. Normal minimal platelet count is 140,000 for newborns and 150, 000 for older children. If the platelet count drops below 50,000, the child is at high risk for hemorrhage Discharge instructions are being given to the parents of a child with iron deficiency anemia. Which of the following food choices would NOT be a good source of iron in the diet? A. Lean beef. B. Spinach. C. Chicken. D. Potatoes. - CORRECT ANSWER D: Potatoes do not provide a good source of iron in the diet. Green leafy vegetables, such as spinach, and all meats, including lean beef and chicken, are good iron sources. At which age would a blood pressure reading of 80/40 be considered normal? A. 16 years. B. 7 years. C. 12 years. D. 3 months - CORRECT ANSWER D: A blood pressure reading of 80/40 is considered in the normal range for infants of 3 months old. Blood pressure in older children varies according to height and weight. In analysis of an ECG, what component of the heart's function does the P-wave represent? A. Ventricular repolarization. B. Atrial depolarization. C. Ventricular depolarization. D. Resting period of the heart. - CORRECT ANSWER B: The P-wave represents atrial depolarization and is used to mark the starting point of a new PQRS wave, which represents right and left ventricular depolarization. The T- wave represents ventricular repolarization (a resting period). . Diuretic medications are used to manage edema in pediatric patients with heart failure. Which of the following medications is NOT a diuretic medication? A. Furosemide (Lasix). B. Enalapril (Vasotec). C. Spironolactone (Aldactone). D. Bumetanide (Bumex). - CORRECT ANSWER B: Enalapril is an angiotensin- converting enzyme inhibitor and is not a diuretic. Furosemide, spironolactone, and bumetanide are commonly-used diuretics A patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) results when the fetal ductus arteriosus fails to close and blood flows from the aorta back into the pulmonary circulation. In neonates this can often be closed without surgery using certain medications. What class of medications is often used to close this congenital heart defect non-surgically? A. Antibiotics. B. Adrenergic steroids. C. Prostaglandin synthetase inhibitors. D. Beta blockers. - CORRECT ANSWER C: Prostaglandin synthetase inhibitors, such as indomethacin, can be used in neonates to close PDA's non-surgically. They are 80% effective if given within 10 days of birth. Some children require surgical repair. The most common congenital heart defect is: A. Patent foramen ovale. B. Atrial septal defect. C. Ventricular septal defect (VSD). D. Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA). - CORRECT ANSWER C: Ventricular septal defect, the most common congenital heart defect, is an abnormal opening in the septum between the right and left ventricles. Depending on the size of the defect, some may close spontaneously and others may require surgical closure using a graft. Which of the following congenital heart defects would lead to right ventricular hypertrophy and right heart failure if not treated? A. Aortic stenosis. B. Pulmonic stenosis. C. Coarctation of the aorta. D. Tricuspid atresia. - CORRECT ANSWER B: Pulmonic stenosis can lead to right heart failure if not treated. Pulmonic stenosis is a stricture of the pulmonary blood vessel that controls the flow of blood from the right ventricle to the lungs, resulting in right ventricular hypertrophy, as the pressure increases in the right ventricle, and decreased pulmonary blood flow. Aortic stenosis, coarctation of the aorta, and tricuspid atresia would lead to left heart failure. The most common cause for heart failure in children is congenital heart defects. Numerous medications can be used to improve functioning in addition to surgical procedures. Which of the following medications used in heart failure has a narrow therapeutic window requiring blood draws to monitor the blood level? A. Digoxin (Lanoxin). B. Propranolol (Inderal). C. Hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ). progressive degeneration and weakness of the skeletal muscles. At what age is Duchenne's muscular dystrophy usually first evident? A. 6 months to 1 year. B. 12 to 15 years. C. 9 to 12 years. D. 3 to 5 years. - CORRECT ANSWER D: Muscular dystrophy is usually first evident at age 3 to 5 and observed with delays in motor development and weakness in the pelvic girdle. Children may have trouble standing and may fall easily. Calf muscles may begin to enlarge Which type of seizure is characterized by a sudden loss of muscle tone and then a postictal period of confusion? A. Tonic seizures. B. Clonic seizures. C. Atonic seizures. D. Absence seizures. - CORRECT ANSWER C: Atonic seizures are characterized by a loss of muscle tone and often a fall and then a period of confusion from a postictal state. Tonic seizures include muscle twitching and changes in consciousness. Clonic seizures are generalized seizures often accompanied by loss of consciousness. Absence seizures cause a lack of consciousness What should women of childbearing age consume in the preconceptual period to decrease their risk of neural tube defects in their children? A. Iron. B. Vitamin B12. C. Magnesium. D. Folic acid. - CORRECT ANSWER D: Additional folic acid (0.4 mg per day) is recommended to decrease the risk of neural tube defects during pregnancy. All women of childbearing age should have counseling regarding the importance of folic acid. The pituitary gland regulates many other components of the endocrine system and is composed of the anterior pituitary (adenohypophysis) and posterior pituitary (neurohypophysis). Which of the following is NOT secreted by the anterior pituitary? A. Growth hormone. B. Thyroid stimulating hormone. C. Oxytocin D. Prolactin. - CORRECT ANSWER C: Oxytocin as well as antidiuretic hormone are the two secretions of the posterior pituitary gland. The anterior pituitary gland produces growth hormone, thyroid stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, betA:endorphin, and luteinizing hormone The islets of Langerhans in the pancreas secrete several hormones that regulate body functions. Which of the following is NOT a hormone secreted by the islets of Langerhans? A. Aldosterone. B. Insulin. C. Glucagon. D. Somatostatin. - CORRECT ANSWER A: Aldosterone is secreted by the adrenal gland. Insulin, glucagon, and somatostatin are all secretions by the islets of Langerhans. Following surgery for a brain tumor, a 6-year-old female exhibits symptoms of syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which of the following is NOT a classic symptom of SIADH? A. Fluid retention. B. Weight loss. C. Weakness. D. Decreased urinary output. - CORRECT ANSWER B: Weight gain, not weight loss is a cardinal sign of SIADH because of fluid retention and decreased urinary output caused by the hyponatremia resulting from increased secretion of antidiuretic hormone. Weakness is an additional sign of SIADH. What is the most common type of cancer in childhood? A. Kidney tumors. B. Brain tumors. C. Lymphomas. D. Leukemias. - CORRECT ANSWER D: Leukemias remain the most common type of cancer in childhood. Brain tumors are the most common SOLID tumors in children. Lymphomas are the third most common type of tumor. The most common type of kidney tumor is Wilm's tumor. During resuscitation of a 9-month-old male, what is the proper ratio of chest compressions to breaths? A. 1:1 B. 5:1 C. 10:2 D. 30:2 - CORRECT ANSWER D: The proper ratio of chest compressions to breaths in a child of 9 months is 30:2. Compressions should be done rapidly to a count of 30 followed by 2 breaths. Brain damage can occur within 4 minutes and death within 8 minutes if the brain is deprived of oxygen. Which of the following characteristics is NOT part of the Apgar scoring method for assessment of newborns? A. Heart rate. B. Respiratory effort. C. Skin color. D. Eye tracking - CORRECT ANSWER D: Eye tracking is not a component as the child is not able to focus well enough to track at birth. Heart rate, color, muscle tone, reflex irritability, and respiratory effort are the components of