Medical Terminology and Concepts, Exams of Nursing

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The following cancer arises from muscle or connective tissues: Select one: a.leukemia. b.lymphoma. c.melanoma. d.sarcoma. - Solution sarcoma The significant signs of nephrotic syndrome are: Select one: a.hyperlipidemia and lipiduria. b.pyuria and leucopenia. c. hypertension and heart failure. d. gross hematuria and pyuria. - Solution a.hyperlipidemia and lipiduria. The term "blue bloater" refers to a male patient with which of the following conditions? Select one: a. Adult respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). b. Asthma. c. Chronic obstructive bronchitis. d. Emphysema. - Solution c. Chronic obstructive bronchitis. The difference in concentration of a specific chemical, like Na+, on the inside and outside of a plasma is referred as a(n) Select one: a. biological capacitance. b. concentration gradient. c. electrical gradient. d. electrochemical potential. - Solution b. concentration gradient. The warning signs for cancer include: Select one: a.a new solid lump, often painless. b.change in bowel habits. c.change in a wart or mole (e.g., color).

d.all the above are warning signs. - Solution d.all the above are warning signs. Which of the following is a bacterial disease transmitted by ticks? Select one: a.Legionnnaires disease. b.Lyme disease. c.Tetanus. d.Tuberculosis. - Solution b.Lyme disease. The stratum lucidum Select one: a.can consist of up to 25-30 layers of dead keratinocytes. b.contains lamellar granules. c.is present only in thick skin. d.is the layer used in a skin graft. - Solution c.is present only in thick skin. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is produced by the Select one: a.ovaries. b.pituitary gland. c.placenta. d.testes. - Solution c.placenta. Jaundice is likely to be a sign of : Select one: a.acute leukemia. b.aplastic anemia. c.iron-deficiency anemia. d.sickle cell anemia. - Solution d.sickle cell anemia. The cellular transformation from a normal to a cancerous cell is called: Select one: a. carcinogenesis. b. mutation. c. necrosis. d.

replication. - Solution a. carcinogenesis. The prevention of illness through vaccination occurs due to the formation of: Select one: a. B cells. b. immunosureveillance. c. mast cells. d. memory cells. - Solution d. memory cells Benign tumors in the brain are often life-threatening because they: Select one: a.cannot be removed. b.cause serious systemic effects. c.metastasize early in their development. d.they create excessive pressure within the skull. - Solution d.they create excessive pressure within the skull. The doctor is aware that the following symptom is most commonly an early indication of stage 1 Hodgkin's disease? Select one: a. night sweat. b. pericarditis. c. persistent hypothermia. d. splenomegaly. - Solution a. night sweat. A child has recently been diagnosed with Duchenne's muscular dystrophy. The parents are receiving genetic counseling prior to planning another

pregnancy. Which of the following statements includes the most accurate information? Select one: a. Duchenne's is an X-linked recessive disorder, so daughters have a 50% chance of being carriers and sons a 50% chance of developing the disease. b. Duchenne's is an X-linked recessive disorder, so both daughters and sons have a 50% chance of developing the disease. c. each child has a 1 in 4 (25%) chance of developing the disorder. d.sons only have a 1 in 4 (25%) chance of developing the disorder. - Solution a. Duchenne's is an X-linked recessive disorder, so daughters have a 50% chance of being carriers and sons a 50% chance of developing the disease Each of the following is a characteristic of cataracts except: Select one: a.blurred vision. b.may require lens repairment. c.night driving is difficult. d.will heal by taking antibiotic eye drops. - Solution d.will heal by taking antibiotic eye drops. This type of exocrine gland accumulates its secretory product in the cytosol of its cells until the cell ruptures and becomes part of the secretory product. Select one: a.apocrine. b.exocrine. c.holocrine. d.merocrine. - Solution c.holocrine. Frostbite is caused by Select one: a.biological agent. b.chemical agent. c.nutrient agent. d.physical agent. - Solution d.physical agent.

Which of the following is not a characteristic of hemodialysis: Select one: a.a catheter (with entry and exit points) is implanted into the peritoneal cavity. b.blood is moved from implanted shunt from an artery to a machine. c.blood vessels around shunts become sclerosed or damaged. d.shunts may become infected. - Solution a.a catheter (with entry and exit points) is implanted into the peritoneal cavity. Multiple myeloma is a malignant tumor involving: Select one: a.bone cells. b.granulocytes. c.lymph nodes. d.plasma cells. - Solution d.plasma cells. A term used to describe the ballooning out of a wall of a vessel, usually an artery, caused by a congenital defect or weakness of the wall is a/an: Select one: a.aneurysm. b.embolism. c.hernia. d.thrombus - Solution a.aneurysm. Joe was found dead. His hyoid bone was broken. What was the most likely cause of death? Select one: a.cardiac arrest. b.choking. c.gun shot. d.strangulation. - Solution d.strangulation. In __________, the observed behaviour is not interpreted but measured through frequency, intensity and accuracy Select one: a.focus groups. b.qualitative observation. c.quantitative observation. d.surveys - Solution c.quantitative observation.

A study of ovarian cancer was conducted over a one-year period. At the end of the study, the researchers wanted to calculate the incidence of ovarian cancer in their study population. The denominator of this calculation is: Select one: a.all men and women in the population regardless of cancer status. b.all women in the population who were newly diagnosed with ovarian cancer during the study period. c.all women in the study population without ovarian cancer at the start of the study. d.all women in the study population with ovarian cancer at the start of the study. - Solution c.all women in the study population without ovarian cancer at the start of the study. A study using face-to-face interviews was conducted to test whether socio- economic status had an effect of female obesity in patients aged 25-56. The study consisted of 9000 females in cities across Canada. Which statement best describes this study? Select one: a.this is a clinical trial. b.this is a study in epidemiology. c.this is an experimental study. d.retrospective study. - Solution b.this is a study in epidemiology. All of the following are advantages of randomized clinical trials except: Select one: a.it eliminates bias in treatment assignment. b.it facilitates blinding of the identity of treatments from investigators, participants, and assessors. c.it permits the use of probability theory to explain any difference in outcome between groups. d.it is able to be done quickly over a short period of time. - Solution d.it is able to be done quickly over a short period of time. What research method is popular because it is comparatively inexpensive and well-suited to studying large numbers of people? Select one: a.content analysis. b.interviews.

c.participant observation. d.surveys. - Solution d.surveys. A research group decides to study if heavy drinkers die at a younger age. They design the study, and gather data. Their results show that people who drink excessively are likely to die younger. Unfortunately, when the researchers share their results with their peers, the results are ripped apart, because the peer group lived just as long as the study group. There is another factor not identified or controlled within their research that influences both drinking and living age. This is known as the: Select one: a. confounding factor. b. dependent variable. c. independent variable. d. null hypothesis. - Solution a. confounding factor. The concept ID in SNOMED CT is: Select one: a. a descriptor. b. a number. c. the preferred name. d. the relationship between terms. - Solution b. a number. November Statistics Bed Capacity 250 Service Days 4978 Inpatient Bed Count 200 Discharge Days 5092 Admissions 590 Discharges 565 The ALOS for November was: Select one: a. 8.4 days b. 8.6 days c. 8.8 days d. 9.0 days - Solution d. 9.0 days

ALOS= Total length of stay (discharge days)/ total discharges (including deaths) ALOS= 5092/565=9.0 days In validity analysis: Select one: a. an example of a validity measure is kappa. b. it measures how results are similar to each other. c. one measure is compared to a gold standard. d. the measures are compared to each other as they are equal. - Solution c. one measure is compared to a gold standard. Discharge days are used in computing the: Select one: a. average daily census. b. average LOS. c. net death rate. d. percent occupancy. - Solution b. average LOS. TIME PERIOD BED COUNT INPATIENT SERVICE DAYS January 1 - May 31 200 28, June 1 - Oct 15 250 27, Oct 16 - Dec 31 275 19, The occupancy rate for this non-leap year is ______ percent. Select one: a. 85. b. 88. c. 90. d. 91.2 - Solution b. 88. An example of a non-semantic identifier is: Select one: a. chart number 12069. b. June 9 2012. c. 12609. d. John Smith. - Solution c. 12609. The method of gathering data used in qualitative research is: Select one:

a. experiments. b. focus groups. c. meta analyses. d. quantitative measures. - Solution b. focus groups. Consider the values: 7, 4, 4, 4, 1 It can be said of the mean, median, and mode: Select one: a. are all the same. b. the mean is larger than the median. c. the median is larger than the mode or the mean. d. the mode is larger than the mean, but smaller than the median. - Solution a. are all the same. The median is the middle value in a set. To calculate this: First you have to place the numbers in order. 1,4,4,4, As we have an odd number of values, we take the middle number 4 is the third number from either end of the set. The median is 4. Remember, mean is the average of all the values. To calculate this: Total of all numbers is 20 There are 5 values 20/5 = 4 The mean is 4. The mode is the most commonly occurring number in a set. To calculate this: From our reorganized list of numbers, we found the number 4 is listed thrice. The mode is 4. The CEO has requested that you complete a study on the potential impact of the implementation of self-register kiosks in the ER. One factor which is not considered in this initial discussion is: Select one: a. results interpretation. b. research of similar projects in other facilities. c. study parameters. d. timelines. - Solution a. results interpretation.

Which statement is true about vendor agreements? Select one: a. a vendor form of agreement written to protect the HCO. b. the HCO should not take the time to clearly understand what the agreement says. c. the HCO should ensure the agreement meet the HCO's needs. d. the HCO should not negotiate the agreement. - Solution c. the HCO should ensure the agreement meet the HCO's needs. The ICPC has 3 axes. These are: Select one: a. reason for encounter, diagnosis and ability. b. reason for encounter, diagnosis and action. c. reason for visit, age and diagnosis. d. reason for visit, diagnosis and ability. - Solution b. reason for encounter, diagnosis and action. In risk management, there are 2 complementary processes: loss reduction and risk prevention. An example of loss reduction is: Select one: a. developing departmental policies. b. investigating and addressing incidents. c. providing staff training. d. watching staff perform their roles. - Solution b. investigating and addressing incidents _______an estimate of income and expenditure for a set period of time. Select one: a. budget. b. cost record. c. orders. d. productivity record. - Solution a. budget. In inpatient coding, the condition that is responsible for the greatest length of stay is the: Select one: a. external cause of injury. b main or most responsible. c. post- admit comorbidity. d. preadmit comorbidity. - Solution b main or most responsible.

When a document is found at the time of QA to be in the wrong record (whether paper or electronic), the procedure to follow would be: Select one: a. advise the attending physician. b. delete the document and complete an incident report. c. leave the document in the record and write on it 'wrong patient'. d. remove the document and refile on the correct record. - Solution d. remove the document and refile on the correct record. Documenting the full depth and breadth of data use in a healthcare entity requires: Select one: a. identifying all of the data consumers. b. identifying the needs of data consumers. c. performing a gap analysis. d. understanding all of the functionality requirements. - Solution b. identifying the needs of data consumers. Efforts to ensure that evidence-based practice is applied to medical decision-making are termed Select one: a. clinical practice guidelines. b. patient advocacy. c. pay-for-performance. d. performance measuring. - Solution a. clinical practice guidelines. A sign or symptom may be the main diagnosis except when: Select one: a. a more specific diagnosis cannot be made. b. a patient is referred elsewhere for treatment before confirmation of diagnosis. c. the sign or symptom is transient and no diagnosis is made. d. the underlying disease is identified. - Solution d. the underlying disease is identified. The following are true of terminal digit filing except: Select one: a.even distribution of records in each section. b. middle digits are known as tertiary.

c. misfiles are reduced. d. workflow can be evenly distributed. - Solution b. middle digits are known as tertiary. To convert alpha filing to unit numbering, the best method is to: Select one: a. assign unit numbers to all patients treated within the last 5 years. b. assign unit numbers to people as they present for service and merge older records. c. assign unit numbers to patients as they present for service but leave their older records as is. d. change all records to the new system. - Solution b. assign unit numbers to people as they present for service and merge older records. A nomenclature is a: Select one: a.alphabetic list of patient names. b. comprehensive list of codes. c. comprehensive list of terms. d. none of the above - Solution c. comprehensive list of terms. The first step in developing a POMR is to: Select one: a. compile the progress notes. b. create a database. c. establish the problem list. d. identify the action plan. - Solution b. create a database. When coding excision of ulcers, select the anatomy site based on the _________________ site excised. Select one: a. deepest. b. most superficial. c. shallow. d. size of the lesion at the - Solution a. deepest. Recorded at the end of the History and Physical is the: Select one: a. discharge diagnosis. b. final diagnosis.

c. primary diagnosis. d. provisional diagnosis. - Solution d. provisional diagnosis. Which of the following is an administrative safeguard action? Select one: a. documentation retention guidelines. b. facility access control. c. maintenance record. d. media reuse. - Solution a. documentation retention guidelines. You work in a facility in which there is a hybrid record system. Your on-site storage is limited and you have an off-site storage facility for archived records. Your goal is to be paperless in 3 years. As a transition strategy, you recommend the following for storage and retrieval of information: Select one: a. maintain a paper record containing only that which is paper based at source and access electronically stored data through the system. b. print the key documentation that is available electronically and store it in a paper format with the other documents. c. produce a list of the documents available electronically and file the list in the paper folder. d. store all paper records in off-site storage and limit access to electronic data only. - Solution a. maintain a paper record containing only that which is paper based at source and access electronically stored data through the system. A secondary diagnosis is a type ______: Select one: a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 - Solution c. 3 The three components to evaluate data sensitivity are: Select one: a. availability, confidentiality, privacy. b. confidentiality, availability, security. c. integrity, availability, confidentiality. d. integrity, availability, access. - Solution c. integrity, availability, confidentiality.

Decentralized paper records are: Select one: a. easier to manage. b. less costly to manage. c. more labour intensive to manage. d. more secure. - Solution c. more labour intensive to manage. Automated insertion of clinical data using templates or similar tools with predetermined components using uncontrolled and uncertain clinical relevance is an example of a potential breach of: Select one: a. auditing integrity. b. authorship integrity. c. documentation integrity. d. patient identification and demographic accuracy. - Solution c. documentation integrity. Which of the following does not qualify as an ambulatory care record? Select one: a. a chemotherapy patient in a day medicine unit. b. a delivered OBS patient with 1 day LOS. c. a patient registered for and released from ER. d. a person referred to DI from a family physician. - Solution b. a delivered OBS patient with 1 day LOS. The final diagnostic statement of 'R/O AMI' should be: Select one: a. coded as a query MI. b. coded only if the MI has been ruled out. c. coded using a symptom code. d. not coded. - Solution a. coded as a query MI. A patient with an enlarged thyroid was taken to the OR where first a frozen section biopsy was performed, followed by a total thyroidectomy. You would code the: Select one: a. diagnostic procedure first followed by the therapeutic procedure. b. diagnostic procedure only. c. therapeutic procedure first followed by the diagnostic procedure.

d. therapeutic procedure only. - Solution d. therapeutic procedure only. The degree to which someone is able to adjust and modify behaviour in response to the situation is known as: Select one: a. self awareness. b. self-monitoring. c. self-regulation. d. social skills. - Solution b. self-monitoring. Which of the following is not a characteristic of an effective work group? Select one: a. a belief in shared aims. b. a commitment by individual members to their own goals. c. open discussions and disagreement. d. the resolution of conflict by members. - Solution b. a commitment by individual members to their own goals. Name of element, definition, application in which the data element is found, locator key, ownership, entity relationships, date first entered system, date terminated from system, and system of origin are all examples of: Select one: a. auto-authentication fields. b. data. c. information fields. d. metadata. - Solution d. metadata. A technology that allows a user to dictate, edit, and sign a report in the same process as the transcribed words appear directly on the screen as the user is dictating is known as: Select one: a. back end speech recognition. b. clinical decision support. c. front end speech recognition. d. unstructured speech. - Solution c. front end speech recognition. The single, standardized way for POS applications to connect to the EHR infostructure is known as the: Select one: a. CDA.

b. EHRI. c. HIAL. d. HL7. e. IEHR - Solution c. HIAL. Which of the following is primary storage? Select one: a. CD. b. external hard drive. c. RAM. d. USB. - Solution c. RAM. The technology designed to retrieve, analyze and predict data, and transform it to meaningful information for decision making is a/an: Select one: a. ADT system. b.BI tool. c. EDMS. d.HL7. - Solution b.BI tool. Someone suggested that eye color be collected on admission. Upon review it was determined that there was no clinical need for this information at this time, however it was argued that someday it might be useful. What data quality characteristic would be justification for not collecting this information? Select one: a. accuracy. b. consistency. c. granularity. d. relevancy. - Solution d. relevancy. A nurse tried to enter a temperature of 134 degrees and the system would not accept it. What is this an example of? Select one: a. data collection. b. data reliability. c. edit check. d. hot spot. - Solution c. edit check.

Which of the following is an information system that allows health care providers to input data electronically at the time care is provided or whenever necessary? Select one: a. computer assisted. b. encoded. c. optical imaging. d. point of care/point of service. - Solution d. point of care/point of service. Descriptive data that characterize other data to create a clear understanding of their meaning are known as: Select one: a. interoperable data. b. metadata. c. standards data. d. terminology data. - Solution b. metadata. The final review during EHR implementation to ensure that all tests have been performed and all issues have been resolved is known as: Select one: a. acceptance testing. b. results management. c. root cause analysis. d. technical interoperability. - Solution a. acceptance testing. Frequently computerized, this describes the expected course of a patient's management and what actions need to be taken at every stage. Select one: a. application. b. care pathway. c. decision support system. d. fuzzy logic. - Solution b. care pathway. A set of rules to be processed by a computer program that involves repetition of steps is a/an: Select one: a. algorithm. b. architecture. c. normalization process. d. use case. - Solution a. algorithm.

Computer software that enables a user to create, modify, delete and view the data as stored in a database is a/an: Select one: a. DBLC. b. DBMS. c. DSS. d. DICOM. - Solution b. DBMS. Indirect measures of performance are referred to as: Select one: a. advocacy. b. end results. c. guidelines. d. indicators. - Solution d. indicators. Semantic interoperability cannot be completely achieved without error-free and problem-free communication. All of the following can be a barrier for semantic interoperability, except: Select one: a. asynchronous communication. b. capacity. c. human perception. d. noise. - Solution a. asynchronous communication. The components of an information system are: Select one: a. collecting, maintaining, analyzing and dissemination of information. b. computer servers, personal computers and networks. c. data, people, processes, hardware, software and communications technology. d. hardware, software and communications technology. - Solution c. data, people, processes, hardware, software and communications technology. Which of the following provides the standards for transmitting clinical documents such as a Discharge Summary? Select one: a. CDA. b. CIHI. c. DICOM.

d. LOINC. - Solution a. CDA. Systems to which care delivery organizations contribute specific information for subsequent analysis and comparison are known as: Select one: a. charting systems. b. point of care systems. c. portals. d. registries. - Solution d. registries. In a database of hospital visits, one of the records is missing "Last Name". Which one of the following statements is not correct? Select one: a. If the source system had made the Last Name a mandatory field, this record would not have had missing data. b. If you can find another record with the same "First Name" and "Date or Birth", you can use the last name on the other record to update the record with missing data. c. Implementing "automatic" checks should be considered, so that finding missing data such as this, does not have to be done manually. d. You can consult the source to obtain the last name. - Solution b. If you can find another record with the same "First Name" and "Date or Birth", you can use the last name on the other record to update the record with missing data. Data mapping is used to harmonize data sets or code sets. The code or data set from which the map originates is the: Select one: a. equivalent group. b. solution. c. source. d. target. - Solution c. source. The process of evaluating the impact and obtaining approval before modifications to a software application are made is known as: Select one: a. business case. b. change control. c. impact analysis. d. RFI. - Solution b. change control.

Defaming another person in writing is: Select one: a. fraud. b. invasion of privacy. c. libel. d. slander. - Solution c. libel. Which statement is true about a research survey? Select one: a. when conducting a research survey, be sure to inform potential participants about this survey, its purpose, and how their privacy is protected. b. when conducting a research survey, be sure to retain the survey data together with potential personal information. c. when conducting a research survey, do not limit the number of people who are able to relink the survey responses with personal information. d. when conducting a research survey, do not inform potential participants about the purpose of the survey. - Solution a. when conducting a research survey, be sure to inform potential participants about this survey, its purpose, and how their privacy is protected. An organization's retention program should be approved by the : Select one: a. facilities manager. b. legal counsel. c. marketing director. d. public relation officer - Solution b. legal counsel. A potentially compensable event is Select one: a. a situation or cause of harm or damages which has caused or may cause an adverse effect. b. an accident that has caused harm and may lead to professional, facility or general liability claims that may result in financial loss to the facility through a compensation claim from the injured party. c. individual episodes of harm or potential harm to individual, the public or staff. d. the probability, likelihood, occurrence or course of action that involves an adverse or unwanted event, and the severity or degree of the

consequences of that event. - Solution b. an accident that has caused harm and may lead to professional, facility or general liability claims that may result in financial loss to the facility through a compensation claim from the injured party. An outpatient laboratory routinely mails the results of health screening exams to its patients. The lab has received numerous complaints from patients who have received another patient's health information. Even though multiple complaints have been received, no change in process has occurred because the error rate is low in comparison to the volume of mail that is processed daily for the lab. How should the Privacy Officer for this healthcare entity respond to this situation? Select one: a. determine why the lab results are being sent to incorrect patients and train the laboratory staff on privacy rules. b. do nothing, as these types of errors occur in every healthcare entity. c. fire the responsible employees. d. retrain the entire hospital entity because these types of errors could result in a huge fine. - Solution a. determine why the lab results are being sent to incorrect patients and train the laboratory staff on privacy rules. Privacy is not a: Select one: a. behavioral issue. b. medical issue. c. policy issue. d. technical issue. - Solution b. medical issue. PIPEDA stands for: Select one: a. Professional Insurance Policies for Electronic Documents Act. b. Personal Information Protection for Every Doctor Act. c. Personal Information Protection and Electronic Documents Act. d. Personal Information for Professionals in Electronic Documents Act. - Solution c. Personal Information Protection and Electronic Documents Act. The obligation to act in a competent manner according to the standards of practice is: Select one: a. autonomy.

b. duty of care. c. good samaritan law. d. nonmaleficence. - Solution b. duty of care. An HIM professional violates privacy protection when he or she releases ________ without specific authorization from the patient(s) or patient representative(s). Select one: a. a list of newborns to the local newspaper for publication in the birth announcements section. b. birth information to Statistics Canada. c. data about cancer patients to the cancer surveillance program. d. information about patients with sexually transmitted infections to the public health department. - Solution a. a list of newborns to the local newspaper for publication in the birth announcements section. A hospital employee destroyed a health record so that its contents—which would be damaging to the employee—could not be used at trial. In legal terms, the employee's action constitutes: Select one: a. destruction. b. mutilation. c. spoilage. d. spoliation. - Solution a. destruction. Which of the following contains a complete record of all activity that affected the contents of a database during a certain period of time? Select one: a. data manipulation language. b. query language. c. report writer d. transaction log. - Solution d. transaction log. You have been asked to provide examples of technical security measures. Which of the following would you include in your list of examples? Select one: a. audits. b. automatic logout. c. locked doors. d. staff training. - Solution b. automatic logout.

Within a regional health information network, users in facility A can: Select one: a. access and update records from facility B. b. access records from facility B. c. create, read, update and delete records from facility B. d. not access any information from facility B. - Solution b. access records from facility B. Risks of failure to monitor threats to security include all of those except Select one: a. financial loss. b. patient safety. c. prevent targeted violence. d. legal violations. - Solution c. prevent targeted violence. To be effective, passwords must be: Select one: a. changed regularly. b. difficult to guess. c. permanent. d. a and b. - Solution d. a and b. A written patient authorization for release of information should contain all of the following except: Select one: a. name of the person or institution that is to receive the information. b. purpose or need for the information. c. signature of the HIM manager. d. signature of the patient or authorized representative allowing the release of information. - Solution c. signature of the HIM manager. When contacting potential research subjects, the recent trend shows which of the following making the initial contact? Select one: a. clinician. b. custodian. c. researcher. d. trustee. - Solution b. custodian.

The Court has decided that hospital records could be admissible as evidence in the case of: Select one: a. Ares v. Skeels. b. Ares v. Venner. c. McInerney v MacDonald. d. Skeels v Iwashkiw. - Solution b. Ares v. Venner. Identity theft is described as: Select one: a. another person hacks into your information. b. another person uses your existing accounts to obtain a good or service. c. another person uses your personal identifiable information to impersonate you and set up new records or accounts. d. you share your password with a coworker. - Solution c. another person uses your personal identifiable information to impersonate you and set up new records or accounts. James was taken by ambulance from work to the hospital after falling and losing consciousness. Which of the following scenarios can the hospital not disclose without consent? Select one: a. the doctor on call can give some information to the Workers' Compensation Board when a claim # is provided. b. the doctor on call gives information to the neurologist before he sees James. c. the doctor on call notified James' boss of James' diagnosis. d. the doctor on call notified the family that James was admitted to the hospital. - Solution c. the doctor on call notified James' boss of James' diagnosis. The right to self-determination is: Select one: a. age of majority. b. autonomy. c. beneficence. d. confidentiality. - Solution b. autonomy. A complaint of an alleged violation of the CHIMA Code of Ethics must be made within:

Select one: a.30 days. b.3 months. c.1 year. d.6 months. - Solution d.6 months. The__________________ theory states that human mind will receive or accept only that information which it feels is relevant. Select one: a.perception theory. b.relevance theory. c.selective perception. d.none of the above. - Solution c. selective perception. Professionalism requires all of the following except: Select one: a. collaborate with peers. b. engage in professional education throughout your career. c. persistent lateness attending meetings without reasonable cause. d. showing compassion for others. - Solution c. persistent lateness attending meetings without reasonable cause. Group think is likely to occur in teams that are: Select one: a. diverse in membership. b. high performing. c. highly cohesive. d. large in size. - Solution c. highly cohesive. The HIM director of Lakeview Hospital is gathering data to help in the preparation of departmental productivity standards. She finds that there are three hospitals of approximately the same size and service model that have achieved a 3- to 4-day turnaround from patient discharge to data submission. She has contacted these facilities to learn more about how the organizations are achieving this standard. The activity described is called: Select one: a. benchmarking. b. peer review. c. re-engineering d. synthesis. - Solution a. benchmarking.