Medical Terminology and Concepts, Exams of Nursing

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COPR exam Questions And Answers With Complete Solutions 1st and 2nd trimester bleeding Correct Answer Spontaneous abortion (miscarriage): Expulsion of the fetus prior to the 20th week of gestation 10 to 20% of pregnancies end in spontaneous abortion Presents with cramping abdominal pain, backache, and bleeding Ectopic pregnancy: Assume that any female patient of childbearing age with lower abdominal pain is experiencing an ectopic pregnancy Fertilized egg implants outside of the uterus Presents with sharp lower abdominal pain referred to the shoulder, rigid abdomen, and bleeding 3 things to look for in neonate Correct Answer Tone, term, crying 3rd trimester bleeding Correct Answer Placenta Previa: Abnormal implantation of the placenta on the lower half of the uterine wall, resulting in a partial or complete covering of the cervix Bleeding occurs after the seventh month when the lower uterus begins to contract and dilate in preparation for labour; this causes the placenta to tear away from the uterus Frequently identified by ultrasound during prenatal care Presents with painless bright red vaginal bleeding

Abruptio Placentae: Premature separation of the normally implanted placenta from the uterus; potentially life-threatening for mother and fetus Presentation varies depending on the type of separationMarginal (partial) - vaginal bleeding with no increase in pain central (bleeding trapped between placenta and uterus) - sharp, tearing pain and development of stiff, board-like abdomen Complete - massive vaginal bleeding, severe pain, and maternal shock 4 questions you ask for obstetrical assessment Correct Answer Gestation How many fetus Color of amniotic fluid Any additional risk factors 5 actions if neonate requires intervention Correct Answer Dry warm Stimulate Position airway Suction if required A fib treatment Correct Answer Metoprolol 5mg IV q 5min to total max of 15mg target of rate under 110/min (Stable symptomatic) Cardioversion synchronized @ 200J unstable. (Hypotensive)

A flutter treatment Correct Answer Pharmacologic agent- Beta blockers Electrical cardioversion- start @50-100J Radiofrequency ablation ABG values Correct Answer o pH: 7.35-7. o PaCO2: 45- o HCO3: 22- o PaO2: 80- o O2: 92-100% abruptio placentae Correct Answer occurs when the placenta partly or completely separates from the inner wall of the uterus before delivery. This can decrease or block the baby's supply of oxygen and nutrients and cause heavy bleeding in the mother. S&S: Vaginal bleeding, although there might not be any Abdominal pain Back pain Uterine tenderness or rigidity Uterine contractions, often coming one right after another Abdominal pain and back pain often begin suddenly. The amount of vaginal bleeding can vary greatly, and doesn't necessarily indicate how much of the placenta has separated from the uterus. It's possible for the blood to become trapped inside the uterus, so even with a severe placental abruption, there might be no visible bleeding.

Acidosis and Alkalosis Correct Answer pH increase, pCO decrease = respiratory alkalosis ph decrease, pCO2 increase = respiratory acidosis ph increase, HCO3 increase = metabolic alkalosis ph decrease, HCO3 decrease = metabolic acidosis RUB MUB (respiratory uses bicarb/ metabolic uses breathing: resp acidosis = retain bicarb resp alk = excrete bicarb meta acid = increase ventilation meta alk = decrease ventilation acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) Correct Answer is a chronic, potentially life-threatening condition caused by the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). By damaging your immune system, HIV interferes with your body's ability to fight infection and disease. It is characterized by a group of clinical signs and symptoms associated with suppression of the immune system and marked by opportunistic infections, secondary neoplasms, and neurologic problems. acute coronary syndrome (ACS) Correct Answer sudden symptoms of insufficient blood supply to the heart indicating unstable angina or acute myocardial infarction. Syndrome consists of: Chest pain or discomfort, which may involve pressure, tightness or fullness

Abdominal pain Pain or discomfort in one or both arms, the jaw, neck, back or stomach Shortness of breath Feeling dizzy or lightheaded Nausea/vomiting Diaphoresis Acute Renal Failure (ARF) Correct Answer Rapid decline in renal function. It is usually caused by trauma, sepsis, poor perfusion, or medications. ARF can cause hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, hypocalcemia, and hyperphosphatemia. Broken down into what is causing the whether it is prerenal(loss of blood flow), intrarenal(acute tubular necrosis or other kidney issue) or post renal(Inadequate drainage). Addison's disease Correct Answer occurs when the adrenal glands do not produce enough of the hormones cortisol or aldosterone. Extreme fatigue Weight loss and decreased appetite Darkening of your skin (hyperpigmentation) Low blood pressure, even fainting Salt craving Low blood sugar (hypoglycemia) Nausea, diarrhea or vomiting (gastrointestinal symptoms) Abdominal pain Muscle or joint pains Irritability

Depression or other behavioral symptoms Body hair loss or sexual dysfunction in women Advocacy Correct Answer support; active pleading on behalf of someone or something AEIOUTIPSHHHU Correct Answer Diagnostic tool for altered LOC: Alcohol Epilepsy/endocrine/electrolytes Insulin/infection Overdose Uremia Trauma Infection Psychosis Stroke Hypotension Hypoxia hypo/hyperthermia UNKNOWN Air embolism Correct Answer physiologic effects of venous air embolism are similar to that of pulmonary embolism of any etiology as evidenced by: (1) elevated pulmonary artery and right ventricular pressures; (2) increased ventilation/perfusion mismatch; (3) intrapulmonary shunting; and (4) increased alveolar dead space.

Airborne isolation precautions Correct Answer are used to prevent transmission of droplet-borne pathogens of less than 5 μm and those that may be disseminated within a facility over distances more than 10 feet. Used for diseases or very small germs that are spread through the air from one person to another (examples: Tuberculosis, measles, chickenpox). Special considerations: negative pressure room, wear appropriate respirator, use donning/doffing room to prevent spread. Airway Burns Correct Answer 1. Singed nasal hairs

2. Facial burns
3. Burned specks of carbon in the sputum
4. A sooty or smoky smell on the breath
5. Respiratory distress accompanied by restriction of chest wall movement, restlessness, chest tightness, stridor, wheezing, difficulty in swallowing, hoarseness, coughing, and cyanosis
6. Presence of actual burns of the oral mucosa Early recognition and airway management is the key. Backup airway should be Cric prepared in case intubation is unsuccessful post RSI. Allen's test procedure Correct Answer Depress radial and ulnar arteries together and have person open and close fist. blood should return via ulnar artery for normal circulation. No return for occluded ulnar artery Alzheimer's disease (AD) Correct Answer A progressive disease that destroys the brain's neurons, gradually impairing

memory, thinking, language, and other cognitive functions, resulting in the complete inability to care for oneself; the most common cause of dementia. Amytrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS) Correct Answer is a progressive nervous system disease that affects nerve cells in the brain and spinal cord, causing loss of muscle control. Is often called Lou Gehrig's disease, after the baseball player who was diagnosed with it. Symptoms: Difficulty walking or doing normal daily activities Tripping and falling Weakness in your leg, feet or ankles Hand weakness or clumsiness Slurred speech or trouble swallowing Muscle cramps and twitching in your arms, shoulders and tongue Inappropriate crying, laughing or yawning Cognitive and behavioral changes These evolve to inability to eat, sleep and breathe. Respiratory failure is the most common cause of death in these individuals. Anaphylactic shock Correct Answer A severe reaction that occurs when an allergen is introduced to the bloodstream of an allergic individual. Characterized by bronchoconstriction, labored breathing, widespread vasodilation, circulatory shock, and sometimes sudden death.

This is considered a high space shock as the widespread vasodilation is responsible for the circulatory collapse. Tx. Is based around epinephrine to reverse the anaphylactoid cascade. Epi IM 0.3mg q 5min max of 0.9mg (1:1,000) IV push dose 0.1 mg q 2 minutes max of 1mg (1:10,000) IV infusion 1mcg/min-8mcg/min Treatment of bronchospasm, fluid/antihistamine/corticosteroid administration should be considered but the priority is epinephrine. Anaphylaxis Correct Answer severe, systemic hypersensitivity reaction that is rapid in onset and characterized by life- threatening airway, breathing, and/or circulatory problems, and that is usually associated with skin and mucosal changes. Criteria 2 or more body systems involved. Or cardiopulmonary compromise. This is considered the most extreme over reaction of the immune system, widespread histamine release IgE antibodies and mast cell activation. Basophils are believed to also play a role in this autoimmune response. Anemia types Correct Answer Iron deficiency anemia: This most common type of anemia is caused by a shortage of iron in your body. Your bone marrow needs iron to make hemoglobin.

Without adequate iron, your body can't produce enough hemoglobin for red blood cells. Vitamin deficiency anemia: Besides iron, your body needs folate and vitamin B-12 to produce enough healthy red blood cells. A diet lacking in these and other key nutrients can cause decreased red blood cell production. Also, some people who consume enough B-12 aren't able to absorb the vitamin. This can lead to vitamin deficiency anemia, also known as pernicious anemia. Aplastic anemia. This rare, life-threatening anemia occurs when your body doesn't produce enough red blood cells. Causes of aplastic anemia include infections, certain medicines, autoimmune diseases and exposure to toxic chemicals. Hemolytic anemias. This group of anemias develops when red blood cells are destroyed faster than bone marrow can replace them. Certain blood diseases increase red blood cell destruction. You can inherit a hemolytic anemia, or you can develop it later in life. Sickle cell anemia. This inherited and sometimes serious condition is a hemolytic anemia. It's caused by a defective form of hemoglobin that forces red blood cells to assume an abnormal crescent (sickle) shape. These irregular blood cells die prematurely, resulting in a chronic shortage of red blood cells. Anemias Correct Answer a disorder characterized by lower than normal levels of red blood cells in the blood

Antibiotic resistant infections Correct Answer *MRSA (menthicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus) *VRE/VRSA (Vancomycin-resistant Staphylococcus areus) *VISA (Vancomycin-intermediate Staphylococcus areus) A prevalent nosocomial pathogen -Transmission is through hands becoming contaminated by contact with infected patients, colonized or infected body sites of the personnel or objects anuerysm Correct Answer localized abnormal dilation of an artery. Aortic disruption Correct Answer Traumatic aortic rupture caused by Rapid deceleration or shearing forces Assessment findings

• Fractures of sternum, first or second rib or scapula
• CARDIAC MURMURS
• BACK, CHEST PAIN
• UNEQUAL EXTREMITY PULSE STRENGTH or BLOOD PRESSURE (Significantly greater in upper extremities)
• HYPOTENSION
• TACHYCARDIA
• SKIN CHANGES: diaphoresis, pallor, cyanosis
• PHARAPLEGIA (due to disruption of spinal perfusion from aortic injury)
• Radiograph findings include- left hemothorax, right-sided tracheal deviation, widened mediastinum Interventions

• Prepare for surgery or angiography
• Consider massive transfusion protocol APGAR scoring Correct Answer A= appearance (2- color all pink, 1 peripheral cyanosis, 0 central cyanosis) P= pulse (2- >100 , 1- < 100, 0- absent) G= grimace (2- active motion, 1- some response to stimulation, 0 - no response to stimulation) A= activity (2- active movement, , 1- some flexion, 0- limp) R= respirations (2- strong cry, 1- weak cry(hypoventilation), 0- absent) Max score of 10 minimum of 0 done at 1-5-15 minutes. Appendicitis S/S Correct Answer RLQ pain, low grade fever, nausea, rebound tenderness at McBurney's point. appendicular skeleton Correct Answer 126 total bones of the limbs and limb girdles that are attached to the axial skeleton. ARDS (acute respiratory distress syndrome) Correct Answer 1) Timing: Respiratory symptoms must have begun within one week of a known clinical insult, or the patient must have new or worsening symptoms during the past week.

2. Chest imaging: Bilateral opacities consistent with pulmonary edema must be present on a chest radiograph or computed tomographic scan, which is not fully explained by pleural effusions, lobar collapse, lung collapse, or pulmonary nodules.

3. Origin of edema: The patient's respiratory failure must not be fully explained by cardiac failure or fluid overload. An objective assessment (e.g., echocardiography) to exclude hydrostatic pulmonary edema is required if no risk factors for ARDS are present.
4. Oxygenation: A moderate to severe impairment of oxygenation must be present, as defined by the PaO2/ FiO ratio. Arterial blood gas Correct Answer Arterial blood gas (ABG) Correct Answer analysis of arterial blood to determine the adequacy of lung function in the exchange of gases. (More precise than VBG) Procedure: Wash your hands. Introduce yourself to the patient. Equipment required for measuring arterial blood gases. ABG kit contents. Locate the radial artery with your index and middle fingers. Allens Test. Remove the cap from the needle. Prepare to insert the needle. Insert needle at point of maximum pulsation @30' angle allow for syringe to fill with blood. Hold firm pressure for 5 minutes Remove needle and cap syringe removing any air from syringe. Send for interpretation.

Ensure you are recording the FiO2 or Lpm of oxygen from pt when taking the ABG. Arterial line blood draw. Correct Answer Must remove all saline by withdrawing blood back past the point of the draw. Then take sample and finally flush the arterial line with saline. Arterial line monitoring Correct Answer Ensure transducer at the level of the right atrium. arterial line waveform Correct Answer Y-axis = pressure X-axis = time

1. Systolic upstroke (increase in arterial pressure at beginning of systole seen as sharp upward climb).
2. Systolic peak highest pressure in the artery from systole, then systolic downslope as pressure decreases.
3. Dicrotic notch represents the closure of the aortic valve.
4. Diastolic runoff and diastolic peak which is the lowest pressure in the artery at the end of diastole. arteriosclerosis Correct Answer abnormal hardening of the walls of an artery or arteries Arthritis Correct Answer inflammation of a joint Aspirated foreign body Correct Answer More likely to enter the right main bronchus because it is shorter, wide, and more vertical than the left main bronchus. Stridor, wheezing, cough, dyspnea.

Asthma Correct Answer Is associated with T helper cell type- (Th2) immune responses, which are typical of other atopic conditions. Triggers may include allergic (e.g., house dust mites, cockroach residue, animal dander, mould, and pollens) and non-allergic (e.g., viral infections, exposure to tobacco smoke, cold air, exercise) stimuli, which produce a cascade of events leading to chronic airway inflammation. Cytokines release causes bronchospasm, edema, and increased mucous secretion, which lead to the characteristic symptoms. Treatment is based around corticosteroids to decrease the inflammation and beta agonists to achieve bronchodilation. Magnesium acts as a smooth muscle relaxant. Epinephrine is used in extremely severe cases as both a beta agonist but to also reduce the immunoglobulin production and subsequent inflammation. atelectasis Correct Answer is a complete or partial collapse of the entire lung or area (lobe) of the lung. It occurs when the tiny air sacs (alveoli) within the lung become deflated or possibly filled with alveolar fluid. atheroma Correct Answer fatty deposit within the wall of an artery Atherosclerosis Correct Answer condition in which fatty deposits called plaque build up on the inner walls of the arteries

atonic seizure Correct Answer Sudden decrease in muscle tone -> loss of postural control -> patient may fall ("drop attack") atrial septal defect (ASD) Correct Answer failure of the foramen ovale to close between the atria after birth Autoimmune disorders Correct Answer RA Lupus IBS MS Type 1 diabetes Graves' disease Myasthenia Gravis axial skeleton Correct Answer 80 bones, including the skull, the vertebral column, and the thoracic cage. The skull is formed by 22 bones. Babinksi sign Correct Answer pathological response to stimulation of the plantar surface of the foot indicated by dorsiflexion of the toes. Stimulus must not be distal to the ball of the foot or a false positive may occur. A positive Babinski reflex indicates dysfunction of the pyramidal tract. Barotrauma Correct Answer Injury resulting from pressure disequilibrium across body surfaces; for example, from too much pressure in the lungs. Can be caused during flight transport when air is trapped in compartments and when using mechanical ventilation. Beck's triad Correct Answer - JVD

• hypotension
• muffled heart sounds Bell's Palsy Correct Answer temporary paralysis of the seventh cranial nerve that causes paralysis only on the affected side of the face. An be associated with viral infection but exact cause is unknown. Blast Injuries Correct Answer High-energy events in which a solid or liquid is converted rapidly to a gas can occur at 3 rates: Deflagration: Rapid burning but minimal blast Explosion: Subsonic ignition and blast wind (low-grade explosive) Detonation: Supersonic ignition and blast wave (high-grade explosive) The supersonic blast wave in primary blast injury compresses gas-filled spaces, which then rapidly reexpand, causing shearing and tearing forces that can damage tissue and perforate organs. Blood is forced from the vasculature into air spaces and surrounding tissue. Pulmonary involvement (blast lung injury) may cause pulmonary contusion, systemic air embolism (especially in the brain and spinal cord), and free-radical- associated injuries (thrombosis, lipo-oxygenation, and disseminated intravascular coagulation); it is a common cause of delayed mortality. Primary blast injury also includes intestinal barotrauma (particularly with underwater explosions), acoustic barotrauma (including tympanic-membrane rupture, hemotympanum without rupture, and fracture or dislocation of ossicles in the middle ear), and traumatic brain injury.

Bleeding disorders Correct Answer Normal blood clotting involves blood components, called platelets, and as many as 20 different plasma proteins. These are known as blood clotting or coagulation factors. These factors interact with other chemicals to form a substance that stops bleeding called fibrin. Some bleeding disorders are present at birth and are passed down through families (inherited). Others develop from: Illnesses, such as vitamin K deficiency or severe liver disease as well as DIC. Treatments, such as the use of drugs to stop blood clots (anticoagulants) or the long-term use of antibiotics. Bleeding disorders can also result from a problem with the number or function of the blood cells that promote blood clotting (platelets). These disorders can also be either inherited or develop later (acquired). The side effects of certain drugs often lead to the acquired forms. Bradycardia treatment Correct Answer If suspected HyperK treat for underlying condition. (CaCl, HCO3, Ventolin) Atropine 0.5mg IVP (ensure not given too slowly or can have paradoxical effect) TCP/TVP. Consider sedation if pacing. Bronchiolitis Correct Answer Inflammation of the bronchioles that usually occurs in children younger than 2 years and is often caused by the respiratory syncytial virus. Bronchiolitis treatment Correct Answer Nasal suctioning

Bronchodilator trial IV fluid as necessary Brudinski's sign Correct Answer Severe neck stiffness causes a patient's hips and knees to flex when the neck is flexed. BRUE Correct Answer refers to events lasting < 1 minute in an infant < 1 year of age that are associated with ≥ 1 of the following: Absent, decreased, or irregular breathing Cyanosis or pallor Altered level of responsiveness Marked change in muscle tone (hypertonia or hypotonia) burn treatment Correct Answer Stop burning process Cool burns Remove jewellery If more than 10% dry sterile dressing Manage airway prn (Do not flush dry chemicals unless in eyes) Ca++ normal range Correct Answer 4.5-5.8 mEq/L Cardiac biomarkers (BNP) Correct Answer B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) and N-terminal pro b-type natriuretic peptide (NTproBNP) are peptide (small proteins) that are either hormones or part of the peptide that contained the hormone at one time. They are continually produced in small quantities in the heart and released in larger quantities when the heart senses that it needs to work harder. This supports fluid retention and

volume expansion in the arteries and veins. Subsequently, the heart muscle is stretched and works hard to pump blood under normal resting condition. Increase in circulating BNP or NT- proBNP will reflect the hearts diminished capacity to deliver oxygenated blood to the body. Cardiac biomarkers (CK-MB) Correct Answer Creatine kinase- MB (CK-MB) is a form of an enzyme found primarily in heart muscle cells. This test measures CK-MB in the blood. CK-MB is one of three forms (isoenzymes) of the enzyme creatine kinase (CK). These isoenzymes include: CK-MM (found in skeletal muscles and the heart) CK-MB (found mostly in the heart, but small amounts found in skeletal muscles) CK-BB (found mostly in the brain and smooth muscle, such as the intestines Cardiac biomarkers (CK) Correct Answer Creatine kinase (CK) is an enzyme found in the heart, brain, skeletal muscle, and other tissues. Increased amounts of CK are released into the blood when there is muscle damage. This test measures the amount of creatine kinase in the blood. The small amount of CK that is normally in the blood comes primarily from skeletal muscles. Any condition that causes muscle damage and/or interferes with muscle energy production or use can cause an increase in CK. For example, strenuous exercise and inflammation of muscles, called myositis, can increase CK as can muscle diseases (myopathies) such as

muscular dystrophy. Rhabdomyolysis, an extreme breakdown of skeletal muscle tissue, is associated with significantly elevated levels of CK. Cardiac biomarkers (Myoglobin) Correct Answer Myoglobin is a small protein found in heart and skeletal muscles that binds oxygen. It traps oxygen within muscle cells, allowing the cells to produce the energy required for muscles to contract. When heart or skeletal muscle is injured, myoglobin is released into the blood. Elevated levels can be measured within a few hours following an injury. Myoglobin is filtered from the blood by the kidneys and is released into the urine. Large quantities of myoglobin are toxic to the kidneys. If significant amounts of myoglobin are released into the bloodstream, which can happen after severe trauma or muscle injuries, the excess myoglobin may cause damage to the kidneys and eventually result in kidney failure. Measurement of myoglobin in urine helps to detect this condition. cardiac biomarkers (troponin) Correct Answer Troponins are a group of proteins found in skeletal and heart (cardiac) muscle fibers that regulate muscular contraction. Troponin tests measure the level of cardiac-specific troponin in the blood to help detect heart injury. There are three types of troponin proteins: troponin C, troponin T, and troponin I. Troponin C initiates contraction by binding calcium and moves troponin I so that the two proteins that pull the muscle fiber shorter can interact. Troponin T anchors the troponin complex to the muscle fiber structure. There is little or

no difference in troponin C between skeletal and cardiac muscle, but the forms of troponin I and troponin T are different. Measuring the amount of cardiac-specific troponin T or troponin I in the blood can help identify individuals who have experienced damage to their heart. Cardinal signs of inflammation Correct Answer redness, swelling, heat, pain, loss of function cardiogenic pulmonary edema Correct Answer inadequate pump function increases pressure in pulmonary capillaries forcing fluid to leak into the space between capillaries and alveoli(interstitial space). Normal hydrostatic pressure are overcome by the oncotic pressure but when left ventricular and left atrial pressures rise it causes this fluid to shift. Similarly when you have right sided heart failure the back pressure into the systemic circulation causes fluid shift from the vasculature into the interstitium causing peripheral edema. cardiogenic shock Correct Answer A state in which not enough oxygen is delivered to the tissues of the body, caused by low output of blood from the heart. It can be a severe complication of a large acute myocardial infarction, as well as other conditions. Treatment is based around cause but often time fluid administration is of little help. Vassopressors or inotropes should be considered early in the decompensating patient. cardiomyopathy Correct Answer the term used to describe all diseases of the heart muscle

Cataracts Correct Answer are the result of the normally clear lens in your eye becoming cloudy. They can vary from extremely small areas of cloudiness to large opaque areas that cause a noticeable reduction in vision. Very common and normal part of the aging process. Causes of portal hypertension Correct Answer • Cirrhosis, hepatitis, hepatic vein thrombus, tumor, right heart failure (any condition that impedes the flow through the portal venous system and vena cava) Portal hypertension leads to:

• Esophageal varices --Dilated veins in distal esophagus/proximal stomach --Caution with NG TUBES in patients with esophageal varies!
• Splenomegaly
• Hemorrhoids
• Ascites
• Hepatic encephalopathy - leads to coma
• Hepatorenal syndrome causes of vaginal bleeding Correct Answer abnormal menstruation, vaginal trauma (rape / sexual assault), ectopic

pregnancy, spontaneous abortion (miscarriage) cervical polyps and even cancer. CBRNE Correct Answer CBRNE is an acronym for Chemical, Biological, Radiological, Nuclear, and high yield Explosives. Medical responders should assume that all blast incidents, whether intentional or unintentional, carry the potential for exposure to hazardous materials. Hazardous materials (HAZMAT) are generally considered to include chemical, biological, radiological agents and nuclear waste (CBRNE), each with distinct characteristics. If there are concerns for provider health and safety at an incident, the area must be secured and access restricted. On-scene priorities include discovery of survivors, performing lifesaving interventions, decontamination and extrication, and triage and evacuation. Hospital providers also face challenges including the safety and security of the facility and those on-site, and a surge of patients with severe and unusual illness and injury patterns. Staff, medication, and supplies can be rapidly depleted by the increased demand. Considering these challenges in advance facilitates appropriate planning and minimizes disruption of care. CBRNE agents Correct Answer Category A Anthrax (Bacillus anthracis) Botulism (Clostridium botulinum toxin) Plague (Yersinia pestis) Smallpox (variola major) Tularemia (Francisella tularensis)

Viral hemorrhagic fevers (filoviruses [e.g., Ebola, Marburg] and arenaviruses [e.g., Lassa, Machupo]) Category B Multstuberculosis Nipah virus Tickborne encephalis ne encephalitis]) Melioidosis (Burkholderia pseudomallei) Psittacosis (Chlamydia psittaci) Q fever (Coxiella burnetii) Ricin toxin from Ricinus communis (castor beans) Staphylococcal enterotoxin B Typhus fever (Rickettsia prowazekii) viral encephalitis (alphaviruses [e.g., venezuelan equine encephalitis, eastern equine encephalitis, western equine encephalitis]) Water safety threats (e.g., Vibrio cholerae, Cryptosporidium parvum) Category C Hantaviruses Multidrug-resistant tuberculosis Nipah virus Tickborne encephalitis viruses Tickborne hemorrhagic fever viruses Yellow fever Broken down by ease of production and dissemination not by microbe type.