Medical Terminology and Concepts, Exams of Medicine

Download Medical Terminology and Concepts and more Exams Medicine in PDF only on Docsity!

MEDICAL ASSISTANT CERTIFICATION

EXAM REVIEW WITH 880+ COMPLETE

QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED ANSWERS

FORM RELIABLE EXPERTS

Which organization is responsible for the identification of the various hazards present in the workplace and for the creation of rules and regulation to minimize exposure to hazards? Correct Answer Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) What are the 3 categories for safety hazards? Correct Answer physical hazards, chemical hazards, biological hazards for an external hemorrhage how is bleeding controlled? Correct Answer elevating the affected part above heart level and applying direct pressure to the wound when does shock occur? Correct Answer when there is insuffcient return of blood flow to the heart, resulting in inadequate supply of oxygen what are the common symptoms of shock? Correct Answer pale, cold clammy skin, rapid weak pulse, increased shallow breathing rate, expressionless face first aid for shcok Correct Answer maintain an open airway, call for assistance, keep victim lying dow, attempt to control cause of shock what are agents? Correct Answer infectious microorganisms that can be classified into groups

What are the 4 parts to a patient's medical history? Correct Answer chief complaint (CC), history of present illness (HPI), Past, Family and Social History (PFSH), and review of systems (ROS) Vital signs reflect the functions of what three body processes necessary for life? Correct Answer body temperature, respiration and heart function what are the 4 vital signs of body function? Correct Answer temperature, pulse, respiration and blood pressure Give the normal temp ranges for the following sites: rectal, oral, axillary and tympanic membrane? Correct Answer rectal 98.6- 100 oral 97.6-99. axillary 96.6-98. tympanic 9.8. febrile v afebrile Correct Answer febrile is the presence of fever, afebrile is absence of fever 3 types of fever? Correct Answer intermittent, remittent and continuous oral temperature is not taken from which patients? Correct Answer infants and children less than 6 yo, patients who had face, neck nose or mouth surgery, those receiving oxygen, patients w altered mental status and others how long should you wait for patients who just finished eating drinking or smoking to take temp? Correct Answer 30 minutes What method of taking temp is the least accurate? Correct Answer axillary (underarm)

normal adult pulse range Correct Answer 60 - 100 BPM what is the site most commonly used for taking pulse? Correct Answer radial artery in wrist normal range for adults respiration? Correct Answer 12 - 20 per minute what are 3 respiration rate abnormalities? Correct Answer apnea- temporary complete absence of breathing tachypnea- rate > 40.min bradypnea- decease in number of respirations What are to abnormalities in respiratory rhythm? Correct Answer Cheyne-Stokes- regular pattern of irregular breathing rate Orthopnea- difficult to breathe unless in upwright position what does depth of respiration refer to? Correct Answer amount of air that is inspired and expired during respiration what are three abnormalities in depth of respirations? Correct Answer hypoventilation-reduced amt of air enters lungs hypernea- abnormal inc in depth and rate of breathing hyperventilation- increased amt of air entering lungs Define blood pressure Correct Answer measurement of the amt of force exerted by the blood on the peripheral arterial walls and is expressed in mmHg BP consists of what 2 components? Correct Answer highest (systole) and lowest (diastole) amt of pressure exerted during cardiac cycle

Name some common errors in blood pressure measurmens Correct Answer improper cuff size, arm is not at heart level, cuff not deflated, improper cuff placement anthropometric refers to what? Correct Answer comparative measurements of the bdoy What are the 4 principles of physical examination? Correct Answer inspection, palpation, percussion, auscultation to make a diagnosis the physician utilizes what 3 sources? Correct Answer patient's health history, physical exam, and lab tests horizontal recumbent position Correct Answer used for most physical exams fowler's position Correct Answer used to promote drainage or ease breathing dorsal lithotomy position Correct Answer used for exam of pelvic orgns prone position Correct Answer used to examine spine and back Sim's position Correct Answer used for rectal examination knee-chest position Correct Answer used for rectal and vaginal exams trendelenburg position Correct Answer used for surgical procedures of pelvis and abdomen

portal of exit and portal of entry Correct Answer portal of exit is the method by which infectious agent leaves its resevoir; portal of entry allows infectious agent access to suceptible host mode of transmition Correct Answer specific ways in which microorganisms travel from resevoir to susceptible host. 5 main types: contact, droplet, airborne, common vehicle and vectorborne define medical asepsis Correct Answer the destruction of pathogenic microorganisms after they leave the body what procedure is used in medical aspesis using various chemicals that can destroy pathogenic microorganisms? Correct Answer disinfection what is the least expensive and most readily available disenfection? Correct Answer a 1:10 solution of household beach 4 methods of sterilization Correct Answer gas sterilization, dry heat sterilization, chemcial and steam (autoclave) what is the most important means of preventing the spread of infection? Correct Answer hand washing what are the 3 categories of isolation? Correct Answer contact precautions, airborne precautions and droplet percautions po (abb) Correct Answer by mouth/orally pr (abb) Correct Answer per rectum sl (abb) Correct Answer sublingual (under tongue) SQ (abb) Correct Answer subcutaneous

pc (abb) Correct Answer after meals qhs (abb) Correct Answer each night prn (abb) Correct Answer as needed The heart is located in the thoracic cavity between the lungs in what space? Correct Answer mediastenum, just behind the sternum give layers of heart deep to superficial Correct Answer endocardium, myocardium, pericardium what is the "heart skeleton" made of? Correct Answer four rings of thick connective tissue what are the layers of fluid separating the parietal pericardium and visceral pericardium? Correct Answer pericardial sac what structure in the middle of the heart divides the heart into two sides? Correct Answer septim what kind of blood does the left and right side of the heart pump? Correct Answer right pumps deoxygenated blood w low pressure from veins into lungs (pulmonary circulation) and left pumps oxygenated blood with high pressure (blood pressure) toward the tissues through the arteries (systemic circulation) What are the four heart chambers? Correct Answer right atrium, left atrium, right ventricle, left ventricle what are the only arteries in the body that carry oxygenated blood? Correct Answer pulmonary arteries (efferent)

what are the only veins in the body that carry oxygenated blood? Correct Answer pulmonary veins (afferent) what is the largest artery in the body? Correct Answer the aorta what is the purpose of heart vavles? Correct Answer to prevent the backflow of blood therby assuring uni-directional flow through the heart what are the subdivisions of the heart valves? Correct Answer Atrioventricular valves (AV): Tricuspid + Bicuspid Mitral semilunar valves: Pulmonic + Aortic What are the AV cuspid valves characteristcs? Correct Answer have tough fibrous rings, long and strong leaflets (cuspids), accessory organs (ie papillary muscles, chordae tendinae) give the location of the AV cuspid valves? Correct Answer tricuspid is btw the right atrium and right ventricle, bicuspid mitral is btw left atrium and left ventricle characteristics of semilunar valves? Correct Answer three leaflests, shallow in depth, no accessory organs give location of semilunar valves? Correct Answer pulmonic btq right ventricle and pulmonary trunk, aortic btw left ventricle and aorta where are the coronary arteries located? Correct Answer on the epidcardium what are the two branches of the left coronary artery? Correct Answer Left anterior descending (LAD) artery and Left Circumflex (LCX) artery

what is the main artery that supplies the right side of the heart? Correct Answer Right Coronary Artery (RCA) What is the period of contractions of both atria and ventricles? Correct Answer systole what is the period of relaxation and filling of all cardiac chambers? Correct Answer diastole heart sounds are caused by what? Correct Answer closure of the heart vavles when does the S1 first heart sound (Lubb) occur? Correct Answer occurs during ventricle contraction and closure of AV valves when does the S2 second heart sound (Dupp) occur? Correct Answer occurs during ventricular relaxation when SL valves close heart murmurs are caused by what? Correct Answer diseases of the valves or other structural abnormalities define heart rate Correct Answer number of heart contractions per minute what two things control heart rate? Correct Answer chemo- receptors (chemical sensors) and Baro-receptors (pressure receptors) located in the aortic arch and carotid arteries the heart is under the influence of which nervous system? Correct Answer the autonomic nervous system which is subdivided into the sypathetic and parasypathetic which division of the ANS has an inhibitory effect via acetylcholine? Correct Answer parasympathetic (vagus nerve)

what division of the ANS has a excitatory effect via norepinephrine? Correct Answer sypathetic acetylcholine effects in body? Correct Answer slows SA pacemaker and heart rate, slows conduction of electricity in AV node, decreases strength of atrial and ventricular contraction norepinphrine effects in body? Correct Answer increase HR, increases force of contraction, increases blood pressure, dopaminergic receptors increase the diameter of visceral blood vessels True or false. the blood volume ejected outside the heart is equal to the blood volume returning back into the heart Correct Answer TRUE what is stroke volume (preload)? Correct Answer the blood volume ejected outside the ventricle after each contraction; depends on volume of blood, force of myocardium contraction and vascular resistance what is the Starling Law? Correct Answer the greater the volume of blood inside the heart during diastole, the stronger the heart contraction force during systole. the lower the resistance in the vessels, the MORE OR LESS easily blood can be ejected outside heart through circulation? Correct Answer MORE what is cardiac output? Correct Answer the amount of blood ejected outside heart per minute cardiac output equals (X) * (Y) Correct Answer x- stroke volume y- HRper/min

what is peripheral vascular resistance? Correct Answer the force exerted against the blood flow determined by diameter of the vessel; lower the vascular resistance the less force needed to eject blood define blood pressure Correct Answer the force exerted by circulating blood volume on the walls of the artery during circulation formula for BP Correct Answer BP equals (cardiac output) * (vascular resistance) define EKG Correct Answer graphical presentation of heart electricity over time. electricity created by pacemaker cells how is the electricity created by pacemaker cells? Correct Answer elecrtical impulses created by passing of ions through the cell membrane What are the 4 properties of cardiac cells? Correct Answer automaticity excitability conductivity contractility when does depolarization occur? Correct Answer when the postively charged ions rapidly move from outside the myocardial cell membrane to the inside, changing charge from negative to positive depolarization results in what? Correct Answer contraction what is repolarization and when does it occur? Correct Answer occurs immediately after depolarization and is the movement of

positively charged ions back to the outside of the cell, returning cell back to original polarized state what is the absolute refractory period? Correct Answer the first phase of repolarization in which a myocardial cell is unable to react to any electrical stimulus what is the relative refractory period? Correct Answer the 2nd phase of repolarization during which a strong enough electrical stimulus might cause new depolarization and contraction what does the conduction ststem of the heart? Correct Answer system that generates and delivers electricity to all the muscle fibers of the heart resulting in a smooth, complete contraction the cardiac muscle fibers which ejects blood from the ehart what 5 things does the conduction system of the heart consist of? Correct Answer SA Node, AV junction (node), Bundle of His, Bundle branches and Purkinje fibers what is the primary pacemaker of the heart and where is it located? Correct Answer SA or sinus node; normal rate of 60- 100 BPM; found in the upper posterior portion of the right atrial wall if the sinus node fails to fire, what is the backup pacemaker, what is its rate and where is it located? Correct Answer AV node; 40- 60 BPM, located at the posterior septal wall of the right atrium just above the tricuspid valve Bundle of His: where is it. intrinsic firing rate? Correct Answer superior portion of the interventricular septum; 40-60 BPM The bundle of his divides into WHAT to conduct the electrical impulse of WHAT throughout the ventricles? Correct Answer right and left bundle branches; Purkinje fibers

where are purkije fibers located and what is their rate? Correct Answer within the ventricular endocardium; 20-40BPM conduction system of heart Correct Answer an EKG is a WHAT that measures what? Correct Answer galvanometer that measures the heart electricity traveling through the conductive system an EKG is an important tool for what? Correct Answer monitoring patients HR, evaluating injuries to the heart muscle, evaluating pacemakers and conductive system function, define electrode Correct Answer a paper, plastic or metal sensor palced on the patient's skin on a specific location define cable and lead Correct Answer cable is a wire that connects the electrode to the EKG machine the lead is a recorded tracing of the heart electricity from one or two electrodes that provides a specific view of the heart What are your standard bipolar limb leads? Correct Answer Lead 1 - LA positive, RA negative (LA-RA) Lead 2- LL positive, RA neg (LL-RA) Lead 3- LL positive, LA neg (LL-LA) which electrode is used as a ground electrode for the standard bipolar limb leads? Correct Answer right leg what do augmented unipolar leads do? Correct Answer record the heart electricity from one limb and compare it with a zero voltage lead in the center of the heartt

what are augmented unipolar leads? Correct Answer Lead aVR- right arm is positive other limbs are neg Lead aVL- left arm is positive other limbs neg LeadaVF- left leg is positive other limbs neg the standard bipolar limb leads and the augmented unipolar leads record in which plane? Correct Answer frontal plane the precordial chest unipolar leads record in what plane? Correct Answer horizontal the electrods for precordial chest unipolar leads are all what sign? Correct Answer positive How many leads are there for the precordial chest? Correct Answer V1-V6, so six leads the usual routine EKG consits of placing how many electrodes? Correct Answer 10 producing 12 leads: I,II,III, aVR, aVF, aVL; V1- V On EKG paper 1mm equals how many seconds? Correct Answer .04s the vertical axis on EKG paper represents what? Correct Answer voltage, measurred in millivolts what is the running speed of an EKG? Correct Answer 25mm/sec Define waveform, segment, interval and complex Correct Answer waveform- refers to movement away from the isoelectric line either upward or downward segment- line btw two waveforms interval- waveform plus segment complex- several waveforms

What is a P wave? Correct Answer first deflection after the diastolic, produced by atrial depolarization True or false there is no wave for atrial repolarization Correct Answer True because it is obscured by the larger QRS complex What does a QRS complex represent? Correct Answer ventricular depolarization (activation) A T wave represents what? Correct Answer the first wave after the QRS complex is produced by ventricular repolarization; slightly asymmetric U wave Correct Answer deflection seen following T wave but preceding the diastole; represents repolarization of Purkinje fibers How is the PR segment measured and what does it represent? Correct Answer measured from the end of the P wave to the beginning of the QRS complex; represents depolarization of the AV node and its dely and depolarization of the Bundle of His and Bundle branches How is ST segment measured and what does it represent? Correct Answer represents time of ventricular contraction and beginning of repolarization of both ventricles; measured from the end of QRS to beginning of the T wave what is a normal PR interval? Correct Answer 0.12 - 0.2 seconds what does the QT interval represent? Correct Answer total ventricular activity what are the 4 methods to calculate heart rate (EKG)? Correct Answer 6 second method

large boxes method small boxes method sequence method "memorization" how do you perfrom the 6 second method? Correct Answer count number of QRS complexes btw 6 sec marks and multiply by 10 **used for estimating slow and irregular rhythyms how to perform the large boxes method? Correct Answer count number of large boxes btw 2 RR intervals and divide into 300 for ventricular rate; count large boxes s btw P waves for artrial rate; used for regular rhythms how to perform little box method? Correct Answer count number of small boxes between an RR inteval and divide into 1500 **regular rhythms only sequence method (memorization method) Correct Answer select the R that falls on a dark vertical line; number next dark line as 300,150,75,60,50. note where next R wave falls in relation to dark lines, that is the HR Analyzing the EKG strip involves what 6 steps? Correct Answer 1. assess the HR

2. assess rhythm/regularity
3. identify and examine P wabes
4. asses intervals (PR, QRS, QT)
5. Evauluate ST segments and T waves
6. General evaluation and conclusion cardiac arrythmias are due to what 4 mechanisms? Correct Answer 1. arrythmias of sinus origin
7. ectopic rhythms
8. conduction blocks
9. pre-excitation syndromes

what are ectopic rhythms? Correct Answer electrical impulses originate from somewhere other than sinus node what are conduction blocks? Correct Answer electrical impulses go down the usual pathway but encounter blocks and delays what are pre-excitation syndromes? Correct Answer electrical impulses bypass the normal pathway and go down an accessory shortcut instead what is the normal sinus rate and what is it called when its above and below this rate? Correct Answer 60 - 100 BPM

100 tachycardia <60 bradycardia normal sinus rhythym Correct Answer (SINUS RHYTHMS) notice all PQRST waves are equal and present. Diastolic period can be easily identified a. HR 60- 100 b. similar P in all leads in front of QRS c. constant PR (.12-.2) sec interval sinus bradycardia Correct Answer (SINUS RHYTHM) notice all waves are present and in normal size. a very long diastolic period is easily identified a. HR less than 60 b. diastolic pause is longer c. bradycardia decreases the blood flow in the brain and other tissues sinus tachycardia Correct Answer (SINUS RHYTHM) diastolic period can not be seen well, P and T waves are very close together a. HR over 100

b. diastolic pause is small or nonexistent c. tachycardia reduces the blood supply to the cardiac muscle sinus arrhythmia Correct Answer (SINUS RHYTHM) notice that PQRST waves are equal and normal in size, but diastolic periods are different after each heart systole a. HR 60- 100 b. different diastolic pause after each systole supraventricular tachycardia Correct Answer (ATRIAL RHYTHM) Atrial Tachycardia (AT) is caused by an irritable focus in the atria that fires electrical impulses after normal firing of SA node pacemaker HR btw 100- 150 AV Reentry Tachcardia is caused when the electrical impulse passes a passage other than AV node. cardiac rhythm regular but up to 250 BPM **EMERGENCY NOTIFY DOCTOR atrial flutter Correct Answer (atrial rhythm) notie that there are no more "p waves" only saw-tooth-like wave called F wave a. characterized by rapid depolarization of a single atrial focus at a rate of 250-350 BPM b.typically a slower ventricular rate **EMERGENCY NOTIFY DOCTOR atrial fibrillation Correct Answer (atrial rhythm) no more p waves, instead they are substituted by small trembling waves, while QRST complex are almost normal a. caused by multiple irritable sites all over the atria firing at rate

b. no identifiable P waves, fibrillatory eratic "f" waves **EMERGENCY NOTIFY DOCTOR Premature Ventricular Complex (PVC) Correct Answer (ventricular rhythm) observe difference btw the normal QRS

complexes and the wide inverted abnormal QRS of the PVC and full compensatory pause a. QRS and PVC greater than .12 s because ventricular depolarization is abnormal b. T waves usu in opposite direction of QRS ventricular tachycardia (VT) Correct Answer (ventricular rhythm) notice there are no more p waves but wide, bizarre QRS complexes at a rate > a. 3 or more PVCs in a row b. regular fast rhythm c. no P waves ** EMERGENCY ND ventricular fibrillation (VF) Correct Answer notice the quivering eratic waves that do not resemble any of the normal waves or QRS complexes a. chaotic deflection of different waves that vary in size shape and duration b. no visible waves EMERGENCY requires defibrillationa nd CPR Asystole (Cardiac Arrest) Correct Answer just an isoelectric line, no waves are seen patient is clinically dead EMERGENCY!! What are the 4 types of Atrio-ventricular blocks (AV blocks) Correct Answer 1. Type I First Degree AV block

2. Type I Second Degree (Wenckebach, Mobitz I)
3. Type II Second Degree AV block (Mobits II)
4. Third Degree AV block Type I First Degree AV block Correct Answer characterized by a delay of impulses at the level of the AV node; PR interval prolonged and greater than 0.2s; Notice prolonged P wave

Type I Second Degree AV block Correct Answer PR interval lengthens in each interval until one QRS disapears; Notice gradual increase in PR intervene, and then sudden disapear of QRS complex Type II Second Degree AV Block Correct Answer conducted P waves have a constant PR interval; but there is always non- conducted P waves btw cardiac cycles, usu producing a conduction ratio btw atria and vertircles (2 P waves per QRS) Third Degree AV block Correct Answer (aka complete heart block) impulses generated by the SA node are completely blocked. atria and ventricles beat independently of one another; no relationship btw P waves and QRS complexes what is ischemia? Correct Answer insufficient blood supply to the myocardium what is myocardial infarction (MI) Correct Answer sudden death of myocardial tissue due to an abrupt cessation of blood flow What are the 2 ischemic EKG characteristics? Correct Answer 1. subendocardial ischemic injury is manifest by ST segment depression

2. subepicardial and transmural injury is manifested by ST segment elevation myocardial infarction EKG Correct Answer Notice ST segment depression in aVL leads on the trace; note that changes in ST segments and T wave inversion are the early signs of myocardial infarction the World Health Organization (WHO) criteria for diagnosis of myocardial infarction are presence of at least two of the following?

Correct Answer - clinical history of ischemic-type of chest discomfort

• changes on serial EKG tracings
• rise and fall in serum cardiac markers what is artifact? Correct Answer unwanted interference or jitter on the EKG rcording what are the 4 common artifacts? Correct Answer 1. somatic tremor

2. wandering baseline
3. 60-cycle interference
4. broken recording somatic tremor Correct Answer notice jittering pattern on the aVR and aVL leads wandering baseline Correct Answer the iso-electric line moved up and down strip 60 - cycle interference Correct Answer caused by improperly grounded electrical equipment broken recording artifact Correct Answer caused by a damaged wire or loose electrodes What are two methods of stress testing? Correct Answer - exercise stress test

• pharmacologic stress test what is ambulatory EKG monitoring used for? Correct Answer diagnosis of cardiac dysrhythmias and can evaluate the HR, rhythm and function during daily activites using a Holter monitor

what is a Holter monitor Correct Answer ambulatory EKG where 5 electrodes are attached to patient's trunk instead of arms and leg to prevent muscle artifact What are the 10 cardiovascular agents? Correct Answer 1. oxygen

2. epinephrine
3. isoproterenol (Isuprel)
4. Dopamine (intropin)
5. Beta Blockers
6. Lidcocaine
7. Verapamil
8. Digitalis
9. Morphine sulfate
10. nitroglycerin what is the cardiovascular agent given to all paitents with angina pectoris (acute severe chest pains) Correct Answer oxygen what sympathetic drug is used to manage cardiac arrest by increasing heart contractibility? Correct Answer epinephrine what do beta blockers do? Correct Answer reduce heart rate, blood pressure, myocardial contractility, and myocardial oxygen consumption what cardiovasular agent produces an overall increase in heart rate and myocardial contractility? Correct Answer isoproterenol which drug is used in cases with hypotension that causes vasoconstriction? Correct Answer dopamine what is the drug of choice for the suppression of ventricular ectopy contractions? Correct Answer lidocaine

what is Verapamil used to treat? Correct Answer paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (PSVT) digitalis increases the force of what? Correct Answer cardiac contraction as well as cardiac output morphine sulfate is the traditional drug of choice for what? Correct Answer pain and anxiety what is nitroglycerin? Correct Answer powerful smooth muscle relaxant chambers of the heart Correct Answer what is the function of the circulatory system? Correct Answer to deliver oxygen, nutrients, hormones and enzymes to cells and transport cellular wast to the organs where they can be expelled? List all the blood vessels Correct Answer aorta, arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, veins, superior and inferior vena cavae list the three layers of the blood vessels Correct Answer tunica adventitia tunica media tunica intima which blood vessels carry oxygenated blood (efferent)? WHich blood vessels carry deoxygenated blood (afferently)? Correct Answer efferent-aorta, arteries, arterioes afferent-venules, veins and superior and inferior vena cava composed of entholelial cells, what connects the arterioles and venules? Correct Answer the capillaries

capillary blood is a mixture of what? Correct Answer arterial and venous blood liquid portion of the blood is known as? Correct Answer plasma plasma comprises what portion of blood? Correct Answer 55 percent other 45 percent is formed elements what are the 3 "formed elements" in the blood? Correct Answer erythrocytes (RBCS) and leukocytes (WBC) and thrombocytes (platelets) erythrocytes contain what? Correct Answer hemoglobin, the oxygen-carrying protein function of leukocytes Correct Answer provide body protection from infection leukocytosis v leakopenia Correct Answer leukocytosis in an increase in WBCS leukopenia is a decrease in WBCs What are the 5 types of WBCs in the body? Correct Answer 1.neutrophils-most numerous; phagocytic cells 2.lymphocytes- increase in viral infection 3.monocytes-increase in intracellular infections

4. eosinophils - active agains attibody foreign molecules
5. basophils- carry histamine hemostasis Correct Answer the process by which blood vessels are repaired after injury; 5 stages what are the 5 stages of hemostasis? Correct Answer 1. vasuclar phase
6. platelet phase

3. coagulation phase
4. fibrinolysis what is the preferred site for venipuncture? Correct Answer antecubital fossa of upper extreminties what are the 3 veins located in the antecubital fossa? Correct Answer 1. median cubital vein
5. cephalic
6. basilic what are unsuitable veins for venipuncture? Correct Answer sclerosed veins, thrombotic veins and tortous veins true or false you can recap a needle without a safety device? Correct Answer FALSE what are the 3 skills a medical assistant uses when contacting patients for phlebotomy? Correct Answer social, clerical and technical what is an accessioning order? Correct Answer a number to identify all paperwork and supplies associated with each patient what is edema Correct Answer the accumulation of fluid in the tissues what is a fistula Correct Answer the permanent surgical connetion betw an ertery and a vein true or false you can label the blood tubes prior to venipuncture Correct Answer false in a venipunctrue when do you release the tourniquet? Correct Answer once blood flow as begun

what is the correct order of draw? (BeCause Better Speciments Generate Perfect Goals) Correct Answer 1. blood cultures

2. light blue top tubes
3. serum or non-additive tube (red or red/gray)
4. green top tubes
5. lavender top tubes
6. gray top tubes what are three causses of failure to obtain blood? Correct Answer
7. tube has lost its vacuum
8. improperly positioned needle
9. collapsed vein what is a hematoma? Correct Answer most common complication of phlebotomy; blood has accumulated in the tissue surrounding the vein what is hemoconcentration? Correct Answer increase in proportion of formed elements to plasma caused by torniquet being left on too long what is phlebitis? Correct Answer inflammation of a vein as a result of repeated venipunctrue on thatt vein what is petechiae? Correct Answer tiny non-raised red spots that appear on the skin for rupturing capillaries what is a thrombus? Correct Answer a blood clot usually a consquence of insufficient pressure applied after withdrawal of needle what is the two-hour postprandial test used for? Correct Answer to evaluate diabetes mellitus