Medical Terminology and Radiographic Positioning, Exams of Radiology

Download Medical Terminology and Radiographic Positioning and more Exams Radiology in PDF only on Docsity! ARRT BOARDS REVIEW 2024/2025 EXAM QUESTIONS WITH 100% CORRECTLY SOLVED ANSWERS. who do you report any HIPAA violations to? - Correct Answer- ARRT Ethics Committee what is the order of sequence if a patient has a multiple study including IVU, BE, UGI, and a KUB? - Correct Answer-1. KUB 2. IVU 3. BE 4. UGI threat or attempt to injure - Correct Answer- Assault unlawful touching of another person without consent - Correct Answer- battery when the confidentiality of patient information is not maintained or the patient’s body has been improperly touched or exposed - Correct Answer-invasion of privacy unlawful restraint or restriction of a person's freedom of movement (restraints) - Correct Answer-False Imprisonment the neglect of reasonable care or caution. (something you failed to do) - Correct Answer-Negligence written defamation - Correct Answer-libel spoken defamation - Correct Answer-slander A wrongful act knowingly committed. - Correct Answer-intentional tort do standard of care but an accident still happens - Correct Answer- unintentional tort Failure by a health professional to meet accepted standards (something you did made a result) - Correct Answer-malpractice let the master answer - Correct Answer-Respondeat Superior the thing speaks for itself - Correct Answer-Res Ispa Loquitur used to limit movement and requires a physicians order - Correct Answer-restraint Used to eliminate or minimize movement by the patient and to enhance the proper positioning of the anatomic area of interest - Correct Answer-positioning aids establishing rapport, sheet restraints, upright and board restraints, radiolucent paddles, stockinette's, and tape - Correct Answer-pediatric positioning aids oral, written, nonverbal - Correct Answer-modes of communication sensitivity to the needs of others that allows you to meet those needs in a constructive manner - Correct Answer-empathy a psychiatrist who developed the 5 stages of grief - Correct Answer-Dr. Elisabeth Kubler-ross denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance (DABDA) - Correct Answer-5 stages of grief bone fracture that breaks through the skin - Correct Answer-open fracture bone ends are out of normal alignment - Correct Answer-displaced fracture a break in which the broken bones retain their alignment - Correct Answer-non displaced fracture CAB stands for - Correct Answer-compression, airway, breathing when moving a fractured extremity, what should be included - Correct Answer-both joints fainting - Correct Answer-syncope non convulsive seizure - Correct Answer-petite mal tonic clonic seizure with convulsions - Correct Answer-grand mal for arterial bleeding, apply compress ____ to the site - Correct Answer- proximally for venous bleeding, apply compress ____ to the site - Correct Answer- distally low blood pressure that occurs upon standing up - Correct Answer- orthostatic hypotension nose bleed - Correct Answer-epistaxis what does RACE stand for? - Correct Answer-rescue alarm contain extinguish what does PASS stand for? - Correct Answer-Pull aim squeeze sweep absence of significant contamination - Correct Answer-asepsis practices used to remove or destroy pathogens and to prevent their spread from one person or place to another person or place; clean technique - Correct Answer-medical aseptic technique The complete removal of all organisms and their spores from equipment used to perform patient care or procedures - Correct Answer-surgical aseptic technique organisms that cause disease - Correct Answer-pathogens inanimate objects that has made contact with an infectious organism (food, water, gloves, equipment) - Correct Answer-fomites transmission of an infectious agent that is indirect by means of a fomite that touches a person's body or is ingested - Correct Answer- vehicles Animals that carry pathogens from person to person (mosquito, flea, tick) - Correct Answer-vectors hospital acquired infection - Correct Answer-nosocomial infection physician caused infection - Correct Answer-Iatrogenic infection unknown caused infection - Correct Answer-idiopathic infection chain of infection - Correct Answer-1. Infectious agent 2. reservoir 3. portal of exit 4. mode of transmission 5. portal of entry 6. susceptible host when scrubbing for a sterile procedure, hand washing should be - Correct Answer-5 mins when should sharps containers be emptied? - Correct Answer-2/3 - 3/4 full steam under pressure - Correct Answer-autoclaving during drug administration a patients pulse and blood pressure should be taken.. - Correct Answer-Before, at frequent intervals, and prior to releasing the patient injection all at once (IV push) - Correct Answer-bolus injection IV Drip Administered by gravity - Correct Answer-infusion administration Most common site for injection - Correct Answer-antecubital vein second most common site for injection - Correct Answer-basilic vein negative contrast agents typically involve the use of gases to ___ reduce the attenuating ability of the structures filled with gas - Correct Answer-reduce positive contrast agents ___ the attenuation ability of the structures containing the positive contrast - Correct Answer-increase kilovoltage used for an exam that utilizes iodinated contrast media is typically limited to a value of _____ in order to prevent over penetration of the contrast - Correct Answer-80 or less what type of contrast does not break down in blood (osmosis) - Correct Answer-non ionic the release of electrons from the tungsten filament when the electrical current passes through it and heats the filament -requires 4-6 amps of current - Correct Answer-thermionic emission area on the anode that directs the electrons to the focal spot during x- ray production -made of molybdenum or nickel - Correct Answer-focusing cup When fast moving electrons collide with tungsten target the kinetic energy of their motion is converted into different form of energy (99% heat) and only a small amount is converted to the energy form (1% Xray) - Correct Answer-deceleration of electrons Smallest particle of an element - Correct Answer-atom nucleus is made up of? - Correct Answer-positively charged protons and neutrally charged neutrons the number of protons in the nucleus of an atom - Correct Answer- atomic number (z) Number of protons and neutrons - Correct Answer-atomic mass (a) force that holds electrons in orbit around the nucleus - Correct Answer- electron binding energy The number of electrons in the outer shell (max of 8 electrons) - Correct Answer-valence number (2n^2) protons and neutrons in the nucleus are called? - Correct Answer- Nucleons the process of adding or removing electrons from an atom or molecule, which gives the atom or molecule a net charge - Correct Answer- ionization Sudden stopping or braking of high speed electrons when they hit the tungsten target in the anode **near zero** - Correct Answer-Bremsstrahlung Radiation bremsstrahlung makes up __ of all X-ray production - Correct Answer- 90% electron binding energies (KLMN) - Correct Answer-K- 69.5 L- 12.1 M- 2.7 N- 0.6 atomic number for tungsten - Correct Answer-74 atomic number for barium - Correct Answer-56 X-rays travel at the speed of __ or not at all - Correct Answer-light low energy photons goes to ___ - Correct Answer-skin dose characteristic radiation has to be at least ___ kvp - Correct Answer-70 electromagnetic energy is made up of what 3 things? - Correct Answer- x-rays photons quantum what is the difference between gamma and X-rays? - Correct Answer- origin what is the relationship between energy, frequency, and wavelength? - Correct Answer-as energy increases, frequency increases, and wavelength decreases another word for alpha/beta - Correct Answer-particular matter produced when a high-speed electron dislodges an inner-shell electron from the tungsten atom and causes ionization of that atom - Correct Answer-characteristic radiation speed of light - Correct Answer-186,000 miles/sec or 3x10^8 what is the penetrability and strength of the X-ray beam? - Correct Answer-Quality (kVp) what is the intensity, patient dose, number, amount, and rate of the xray beam? - Correct Answer-quantity (mAs) amount of filtration necessary to reduce the intensity of the radiation beam to one half its original value - Correct Answer-half value layer the intensity of radiation is inversely proportional to the square of the distance from the source of radiation - Correct Answer-inverse square law What type of radiation exits the patient and reaches the IR to make the actual image? - Correct Answer-Exit or remnant radiation x-ray beam after it leaves the x-ray tube and before it reaches the object - Correct Answer-primary radiation X-radiation that is created when the primary beam interacts with matter - Correct Answer-secondary radiation radiation resulting after the x-ray beam exits the object - Correct Answer-remnant radiation reduction in intensity of X-ray beam as it passes through matter - Correct Answer-attenuation photons contain no.... - Correct Answer-energy, mass, or charge 4. protons 5. fast neutrons 6. alpha particles - Correct Answer-1. 1 2. 1 3. 1 4. 5 5. 10 6. 20 measures the amount of ionization created in air by x-rays ** approximately 2.58x10^-4 - Correct Answer-Exposure (C/Kg or R) graphical relationship between observed effects from radiation and dose of radiation received - Correct Answer-dose-response curve a __________ indicates that any amount of radiation has the potential to cause a biological response. - Correct Answer-non-threshold dose- response some amount of radiation is required before measurable effect can be detected - Correct Answer-threshold dose response cells are most sensitive to radiation when they are immature, undifferentiated, and rapidly dividing - Correct Answer-Law of Bergonie and Tribondeau a measure of the rate at which energy is transferred from ionizing radiation to soft tissue - Correct Answer-linear energy transfer (LET) as LET increases, the quality factor for a given form of radiation will ____ - Correct Answer-increase increasing the oxygenation of a cell increase the cells sensitivity to ____ - Correct Answer-radiation ability to produce biological damage; varies with the LET - Correct Answer-Relative Biological Effectiveness (RBE) LET and RBE are ___ related - Correct Answer-directly the most sensitive cell - Correct Answer-lymphocytes as LET and RBE increase, CSR will ____ - Correct Answer-decrease giving radiation in small, repeated doses ex: 24 hours - Correct Answer-fractionation radiation dose that is delivered continuously but at a lower rate - Correct Answer-protraction radiation interaction with water - Correct Answer-radiolysis programmed cell death aka interphase death - Correct Answer- apoptosis order of cell phases - Correct Answer-1. Interphase 2. Prophase 3. Metaphase 4. Anaphase 5. Telophase/cytokinesis effects of radiation on the body being irradiated - Correct Answer- somatic effects epilation, nausea, vomiting, erythema, fatigue, epistaxis - Correct Answer-short term somatic effects (within 6 months) cancer (leukemia), cataracts, life span shortening - Correct Answer- long term somatic effects (years after exposure) High levels of exposure over a short period - Correct Answer-acute exposure Repeated exposures, generally to lower levels, over a long time - Correct Answer-chronic exposure 1 rad= ___ days of life span shortening - Correct Answer-10 when is the safest time to take X-rays on a women? - Correct Answer- 10 days after onset of menstruation what type of threshold is a thyroid? - Correct Answer-linear non threshold (stochastic) what type of threshold is an eye? - Correct Answer-nonlinear threshold (non stochastic) what type of threshold is a breast? - Correct Answer-linear non threshold (stochastic) what type of threshold is bone marrow? - Correct Answer-linear threshold what type of threshold is skin? - Correct Answer-threshold (non stochastic) hair loss - Correct Answer-epilation redness of skin - Correct Answer-erythema peeling skin - Correct Answer-desquamation what dose the lethal dose 50/30 mean? - Correct Answer-50% killed in 30 days randomly determined/ luck of the draw - Correct Answer-Stochastic (probabilistic) effects aging is internally regulated by a biological time clock and nothing can change it - Correct Answer-Non-stochastic (deterministic) effects length of fluoro exam time must be monitored by ____ cumulative timer - Correct Answer-5 minutes where is the Image intensifier position in fluoro? - Correct Answer-over the patient table the xray tube in fluoro is ___ the patient - Correct Answer-under display of fluoroscopic exposure rate - Correct Answer-air kerma display what is the minimum source to skin distance in fixed fluoro units? - Correct Answer-15 inches (38 cm) what is the minimum source to skin distance in mobile fluoro units? - Correct Answer-12 inches (30 cm) how long should the exposure cord be on a mobile unit? - Correct Answer-6 feet radiation emitted from the xray tube other than through the window port; limited to 100mR/hr. at 1 meter. (1 mGy/hr. at 1 meter) - Correct Answer-leakage minimum lead equivalent for lead aprons - Correct Answer-0.5 mm pb minimum lead equivalent for gloves - Correct Answer-0.25 mm pb minimum lead equivalent for thyroid shields - Correct Answer-0.5 mm pb minimum lead equivalent for glasses - Correct Answer-0.35 mm pb minimum lead equivalent for Bucky slot cover - Correct Answer-0.25 mm pb minimum lead equivalent for protective curtain - Correct Answer-0.25 mm pb minimum lead equivalent for clear lead plastic overhead protective barrier - Correct Answer-0.5 mm pb any wall to which the useful beam can be directed - Correct Answer- primary protective barrier primary barriers are located ____ to the primary beam - Correct Answer-perpendicular what is the lead equivalent requirement for primary barriers - Correct Answer-1/16 (0.16cm) if the primary barrier is a wall, the lead equivalent must extend __ feet up from the floor - Correct Answer-7 protects against leakage and scatter radiation - Correct Answer- secondary protective barrier secondary protective barriers are located ___ to the primary beam? - Correct Answer-parallel secondary protective barriers must have at least ___ pb equivalent - Correct Answer-1/32 inches (0.32 cm) what is the single greatest source of acute radiation exposure to both the patient and personnel - Correct Answer-fluoroscopy must yield an Audible signal at every 5 min during fluoro - Correct Answer-cumulative timer The tabletop exposure rate during fluoroscopy shall not exceed ____ or cannot exceed 2.1 R/minute for each mA of operation at 80 kvp - Correct Answer-10 R/min designed to maintain a predetermined level of light intensity exiting the image intensification tube - Correct Answer-Automatic Brightness Control (ABC) in automatic brightness control, as light intensity varies, the ABC system adjusts fluoro mA to compensate for increase or decrease in image ____ - Correct Answer-brightness The fluoroscopic exposure control should be of the ____; that is, if the operator should drop dead or just release the pressure, the exposure would be terminated - Correct Answer-dead man type External whole body exposure dose equivalent at 1 cm depth - Correct Answer-deep dose equivalent The dose due to external radiation computed for a tissue depth of 0.007 cm. - Correct Answer-shallow dose equivalent The dose to the lens of the eye due to external radiation computed for a tissue depth of 0.3 cm. - Correct Answer-eye dose equivalent determines occupational exposure if the worker can be potentially be exposed to 25% of the annual total effective dose limit - Correct Answer-record of accumulated dose how long should the employers hold your radiation dose record? - Correct Answer-as long as the worker is employed what type of dosimeter is a radiation detection device that consists of several layers of photographic film covered with black lightproof paper, all encased in a plastic or metal holder - Correct Answer-film badge the functional component in a chemiluminescent dosimeter (TLD) - Correct Answer-lithium fluoride Which type of dosimeter may be used to obtain an immediate reading? - Correct Answer-pocket dosimeter 4 things that effect distortion - Correct Answer-OID, SID, Patient size, and Angle as FOV increases, spatial resolution ____ - Correct Answer-decreases relationship between grids and receptor exposure - Correct Answer- inversely as beam restriction increases, receptor exposure ____ - Correct Answer- decreases as OID increases, spatial resolution ____ - Correct Answer-decreases as SID increases, receptor exposure ____ - Correct Answer-decreases as FSS increases, spatial resolution ____ - Correct Answer-decreases DQE only effects - Correct Answer-receptor exposure MTF only effects - Correct Answer-spatial resolution do grids effect spatial resolution? - Correct Answer-no does OID effect receptor exposure? - Correct Answer-no what is MTF relationship with spatial resolution? - Correct Answer- increase as pathology additives increase, receptor exposure____ - Correct Answer-decreases the overall amount of xray radiation that reached the IR - Correct Answer-receptor exposure the density difference between two adjacent areas on a radiograph - Correct Answer-radiographic contrast black and white (short scale) - Correct Answer-high contrast Many shades of gray (Long Scale) - Correct Answer-low contrast the direct controller of radiographic receptor exposure - Correct Answer-mAs as kVp increases, contrast ____ - Correct Answer-decreases Changing the kVp by 15% has the same effect as doubling the mAs or reducing the mAs by 50% *effective if using 60-90 kVp* - Correct Answer-15% rule mAs1/mAs2=GCF1/GCF2 - Correct Answer-grid conversion formula created when high velocity electron is attracted towards positive charge of nucleus - Correct Answer-Bremsstrahlung filtration removes ___ energy and ____ wavelength photons - Correct Answer-low, long The phenomenon whereby low-energy photons are absorbed as the x- ray beam passes through an object, resulting in an increase in the average photon energy of the beam. - Correct Answer-beam hardening The collimating or reducing of the primary beam field size reduces the total number of photons available thus reducing the amount of scatter radiation and therefore reducing the overall image receptor exposure and film density. - Correct Answer-beam restriction do you increase/decrease technique for edema? - Correct Answer- increase technique increase or decrease technique for atelectasis? - Correct Answer- increase increase or decrease technique for atrophy? - Correct Answer-decrease increase or decrease technique for pleural effusion? - Correct Answer- increase increase/decrease technique for pneumonia? - Correct Answer-increase increase/decrease technique for emphysema? - Correct Answer- decrease increase/decrease technique for pneumothorax? - Correct Answer- decrease increase/decrease technique for bowel obstruction - Correct Answer- decrease increase/decrease technique for TB - Correct Answer-increase increase/decrease technique for ascites - Correct Answer-increase increase/decrease technique for pagets disease - Correct Answer- increase increase/decrease technique for osteomalacia or osteoporosis? - Correct Answer-decrease increase/decrease technique for osteopetrosis - Correct Answer- increase what is the thickest part of the body? - Correct Answer-diaphragm where is the anode end on an abdomen? - Correct Answer-chest/diaphragm when needed, place the thickest portion of the anatomy toward the ____ end of the beam (FAT CAT) - Correct Answer-cathode Uneven distribution of radiation intensity in the x-ray beam. a 2 kvp change is made for each centimeter in part thickness when operating at 80 kvp a 3 kvp change @ 80+ - Correct Answer-variable kvp chart parts measuring greater than ___ require the use of a grid - Correct Answer-10 cm knee, hip, and shoulder ____ grids (need/don't) - Correct Answer-need the only way to fixed a grainy image is with ___ - Correct Answer-mAs barium sulfate contrasts requires a ___ kvp to ensure proper penetration - Correct Answer-high intravenous iodine require a ___ kvp (below 80) in order to prevent over penetration - Correct Answer-low When a grainy image is created - Correct Answer-quantum mottle for a very thin patient a ____ receptor exposure control may be selected to help prevent overexposure - Correct Answer-negative for a very thick patient a ____ receptor exposure control may be selected to help prevent underexposure - Correct Answer-positive adjusts the rate of intensity - Correct Answer-receptor exposure control if pixel size increases, detail ____ - Correct Answer-decreases uses a flat panel detector - Correct Answer-DEL DEL is affiliated with DR or CR - Correct Answer-DR 2D array of pixels - Correct Answer-matrix decreasing pixel size results in increased matrix size and ___ spatial resolution - Correct Answer-increased The number of pixels sampled per millimeter as the laser scans each line of the imaging plate - Correct Answer-sampling frequency sampling frequency is used in ____ (DR or CR) - Correct Answer-CR Relationship between sampling frequency and Spatial resolution - Correct Answer-Nyquist frequency The ability of a system to record available spatial frequencies - Correct Answer-Modulation Transfer Function (MTF) the ability to differentiate one shade of gray from another - Correct Answer-contrast resolution as beam restriction increases, contrast resolution ____ - Correct Answer-increases series of exposure values that will produce an acceptable image from lightest lights to darkest darks - Correct Answer-dynamic range ability of a system to over or under expose and still produce an acceptable image - Correct Answer-exposure latitude the level of a signal relative to a background of noise *the more SNR the better ex: selfie you are the signal, the background is the noise - Correct Answer-signal to noise ratio (SNR) what must be on the image for legal reasons? - Correct Answer- patients name, MRN, markers, date, hospital a minimum kvp change of __% is necessary to yield a noticeable receptor exposure change within the image - Correct Answer-10% a minimum mAs change of __% is necessary to yield a noticeable receptor exposure change within the image - Correct Answer-30% image contrast will __ as filtration increases - Correct Answer-decrease wavy artifact in digital imaging caused when grid lines are projected onto the imaging plate and are parallel within the scanning laser - Correct Answer-moire effect (aliasing) what makes up the cathode? - Correct Answer-filament focusing cup filament wires What is the filament made of? - Correct Answer-thoriated tungsten The _______ is/are outside the glass envelope. - Correct Answer-stators stators are made up of? - Correct Answer-Magnets and Electromagnets the focusing cup is positioned around the ____ - Correct Answer- filament area on the anode that directs the electrons to the focal spot during x- ray production - Correct Answer-focusing cup what can handle heat capacity the best? - Correct Answer-large focal spot size small target degree angle of anode material of choice for the anode due to its high atomic number, high melting point, and its ability to dissipate heat - Correct Answer- tungsten (74) The same in all directions - Correct Answer-isotropic Measures voltage output from the autotransformer on the primary side of circuit - Correct Answer-kvp meter a remote control device that permits current to flow through the circuit in the primary side of circuit - Correct Answer-exposure switch controls the duration of a radiographic exposure on primary side of circuit - Correct Answer-exposure timer Controls the number of electrons produced by the filament circuit which regulates the amount of thermionic emission - Correct Answer- mA selector variable resistor within filament circuit - Correct Answer-rheostat allows current to flow through one filament wire at a time in the filament circuit - Correct Answer-focal spot selector a device placed in the secondary circuit that monitors x-ray tube current, connects to ground, and is on the secondary side of xray circuit - Correct Answer-ma meter in the United States, electrical energy is supplied in ___ cycle alternating current - Correct Answer-60 conversion of AC to DC - Correct Answer-rectification a method of converting alternating to direct current in which half of the current is lost - Correct Answer-half wave rectification the conversion of the opposing half of the incoming electron flow to always move in the same direction, instead of discarding half the cycle. must have a minimum of 4 rectifiers - Correct Answer-full wave rectification 3 separate sine waves that are 120 degrees out of sequence with one another (overlapping of waves) - Correct Answer-three phase in high frequency, voltage ripple is __% since the voltage waveform is nearly constant - Correct Answer-1% its function is to convert the x-ray beam into a bright visible light - Correct Answer-image intensifier function Converts the incoming xray photons into light photons *typically comprised of cesium iodine* - Correct Answer-input phosphor converts light energy to electron energy - Correct Answer- photocathode focuses and accelerates electrons - Correct Answer-electrostatic lens converts electron energy from photocathode to light photons *typically made of zinc cadmium sulfide* - Correct Answer-output phosphor modern Solid-state detection array as image receptor *composed of thallium activated CsI - Correct Answer-flat panel detectors (FPD) minification gain x flux gain - Correct Answer-brightness gain equals the square of the input phosphor diameter divided by the square of the output phosphor diameter - Correct Answer- magnification gain A fixed factor of the image intensification tube that deals with the increase in the number of light photons exiting the tube for every light photon produced at the input end of the tube - Correct Answer-flux gain resolution of fluoro ranges from _____ lines pairs/mm - Correct Answer- 1 to 3 lp/mm loss of detail and fall off of brightness along the edge of the fluoroscopic image - Correct Answer-Vignetting or pincushion distortion exposed by light from the output end of the image intensification tube. - Correct Answer-Cine fluoroscopic device electronic signal sent from the TV camera circuitry attached to the output end of the image intensifier - Correct Answer-digital storage device A function of the fluoroscopic unit that maintains the overall appearance of the fluoroscopic image by automatically adjusting the kVp, mA or both *like cruise control, it adjusts so you don't have to* - Correct Answer- automatic brightness control (ABC) automatically adjusts the tube current (mA), voltage (kVp), filtration, and pulse width to maintain radiation exposure to the flat panel detector - Correct Answer-automatic exposure rate control (AERC) what is the single most greatest source of acute radiation exposure to the patient in the diagnostic radiology environment? - Correct Answer- fluoroscopy in mag mode you are closer to the ___ phosphor - Correct Answer-input in fluoro, the patient gets __ times more dose - Correct Answer-10 how many bit values are there? - Correct Answer-2 total (0 & 1) 1 byte = how many bits? - Correct Answer-8 what are the computer output devices? - Correct Answer-projectors what are the two types of methods of image production? - Correct Answer-direct and indirect require a scintillator material to produce light (indirect) - Correct Answer-Charged Coupled Device (CCD) indirect scintillator based systems are made up of what material? - Correct Answer-Cesium iodide (CsI) or gadolinium oxysulfide (Gd2O2S) absorb xray photons and instantly convert them into electrical signals using amorphous silicon or complimentary metal oxide semiconductor (CMOS) - Correct Answer-thin film transistors (TFT) used in indirect detection to convert the image to digital format (CCD) - Correct Answer-Complimentary Metal-Oxide Semiconductor (CMOS) this system uses amorphous selenium (a-Se) which converts the xray beam into electrons that are controlled by the TFT - Correct Answer- direct image production which method of image production is the best for spatial resolution? - Correct Answer-direct automatic collimation on the bucky - Correct Answer-positive beam limitation Specially designed attenuating devices used to make up for the variations in tissue density; can be placed between patient and IR. *wedge* - Correct Answer-compensating filters the process of assigning discrete numerical values to data points - Correct Answer-quantization used to prevent a graphical representation of optimal densities during an exposure, and recognition of exposure data requires processing only optimal receptor exposure exposures - Correct Answer-histogram A digital processing technique that is used to modify an overexposed or underexposed image - Correct Answer-rescaling used as a reference to evaluate the raw information and correct the luminance values **there is a LUT for every anatomic part** - Correct Answer-Look Up Table (LUT) increase contrast and edge enhancement by amplifying areas of interest and suppressing those that are not of interest - Correct Answer-high pass filters a smoothing effect by averaging pixel values, which removes high frequency noise - Correct Answer-low pass filters aka low pass filtering, occurs by averaging each pixels frequency with surrounding pixel values to remove high-frequency noise - Correct Answer-smoothing used to blacken out the white collimation borders in a digital image, effectively eliminating veil glare. - Correct Answer-shuttering controls brightness **increasing window level, darkens the image** - Correct Answer- window level controls contrast **increasing window width, decreases contrast** - Correct Answer- window width consists of digital acquisition equipment, workstations for display, and manipulation of images using DICOM - Correct Answer-PACS The exchange of digitized images between modalities, archives, and viewing stations is done through ___ standard of PACS - Correct Answer-DICOM ability to store and retrieve digital images by using optical and/or magnetic memory device - Correct Answer-archiving laser image receptor digitizers use a ____ laser beam for conversion of analog images into digital images. - Correct Answer-helium-neon beam restriction light field to radiation field alignment must be within ___% of the SID - Correct Answer-2% linearity and reproducibility variation cannot exceed ___% - Correct Answer-+/- 10% multiple exposures are made at 80 kVp , filtration, non grid, with 3 levels of exposure at 0.1 mR, 1.0 mR and 10 mR. and must be within +/- 5% - Correct Answer-reproducibility when should cassettes be cleared out? - Correct Answer-24-48 hours when should a QC be done to perform reject analysis to monitor trends, improve imaging procedure, and better protect the patient, or clean the imaging plates? - Correct Answer-monthly when should lead aprons/ gloves be tested? - Correct Answer-annually level of mastoid process - Correct Answer-C1 level of thyroid - Correct Answer-C4-5 level of vertebral prominens - Correct Answer-C7 level of sternal (jugular notch) - Correct Answer-T2/3 level of sternal angle - Correct Answer-T4/5 level of inferior angle of scapula - Correct Answer-T7 * Petrous pyramids project anteriorly and medially at 40-degree angle from MSP * Long from front to back, narrow from side to side, and deep from vertex to base - Correct Answer-Dolichocephalic skull how should you image sinuses for air/fluid levels? - Correct Answer- upright mid sagittal plane and OML perpendicular to the IR CR angled 30 degrees caudal for OML or 37 degrees to the IOML - Correct Answer-AP towne method - MSP positioned parallel to IR - IPL positioned perpendicular to the IR to a point 5 cm (2in) superior to EAM - superimposition of orbital plates, base of the skull, and greater wings of the sphenoid bone - Correct Answer-lateral skull in the PA axial position (CALDWELL) where do the petrous ridges line with the orbits with a 0 degree angle? - Correct Answer-fill the orbits CR directed 15 degrees caudal to MSP exiting the nasion - Correct Answer-Caldwell in a proper CALDWELL position, where should the petrous ridges lie? - Correct Answer-lower 3rd of orbits a 30 degree Caldwell view is only used for ___, not for skull? - Correct Answer-facial bones and orbits for the lateral projection of facial bones, the CR should be directed perpendicular to the ___ - Correct Answer-zygoma for the waters method of facial bones, the CR should be directed perpendicular to the IR and the OML will form a ___ angle with the IR - Correct Answer-37 degree for the parietoacantial (modified waters) method for facial bones, the OML is placed at a ___ degree angle with the IR? - Correct Answer-55 what view is used for blowout fractures? - Correct Answer-modified waters for a mandible, the CR is directed __ degrees cephalic through the ramus closest to the IR - Correct Answer-25 what method for TMJ is the MSP angled 15 degrees anteriorly, mandible rotated 15 degrees toward the IR, and the CR directed 15 degrees caudal through the TMJ closest to the IR - Correct Answer- modified Law what method for TMJ is the CR angled 25-30 degrees caudal through the TMJ closest to the IR in a lateral position? ** BOTH open/close mouth images are taken** (4 images) - Correct Answer-modified Schuller what method for nasal bones is used for nasal septum deviation? - Correct Answer-waters where is the CR directed for the lateral view of nasal bones? - Correct Answer-perpendicular to IR 3/4 inch below the nasion which sinus is seen through an open mouth waters view with a horizontal beam? - Correct Answer-sphenoid how many sacrum/coccyx do children have? - Correct Answer-5 sacrum 4 coccyx are zygapophyseal joints seen on a lateral cervical spine? - Correct Answer-yes In the AP dens FUCHS position, where will the dens lie? - Correct Answer-foramen magnum what levels have bifid tips? - Correct Answer-C2-6 for a scoliosis series (Ferguson method) what is preferred to reduce radiation exposure to radiosensitive organs? - Correct Answer-PA where do you center for a AP lumbar - Correct Answer-L4/5 which part of the scotty dog represents superior articulating process? - Correct Answer-ear which part of the scotty dog represents the pedicle - Correct Answer- eye which part of the scotty dog represents pars interarticularis - Correct Answer-neck which part of the scotty dog represents transverse process - Correct Answer-nose which part of the scotty dog represents inferior articulating process - Correct Answer-leg in PA oblique position demonstrates the articular facets and z joints ___ to the IR - Correct Answer-closest for SI joints AP axial, you angle cephalically ___ for males and ___ females - Correct Answer-30, 35 contrast media is administered via spinal puncture into the subarachnoid space during what procedure? - Correct Answer- myelography where do you center for an AP pelvis? - Correct Answer-2 inches superior to pubic symphysis what is the angulation for an inlet projection centering at the ASIS? - Correct Answer-40 degrees caudad how much contrast media for a cystogram is required - Correct Answer-150-500 mL how should a female be positioned for a voiding cystourethrogram? - Correct Answer-AP how should a male be positioned for a voiding cystourethrogram? - Correct Answer-30 degree RPO why is a voiding cystourethrogram used? - Correct Answer-to look for reflux the radiographic visualization of the urinary tract with the use of a contrast medium (antegrade) - Correct Answer-intravenous urography how much rotation of the pt is required for an IVU? - Correct Answer- 25-30 degrees a radiograph of the urinary system taken after a contrast medium has been placed in the urethra through a sterile catheter and caused to flow upward through the urinary tract - Correct Answer-retrograde urography an x-ray image of the uterus and uterine tubes using contrast media introduced through the cervix - Correct Answer-hysterosalpingogram T/F hysterosalpingogram is used for both diagnostic and therapeutic purposes - Correct Answer-true best way to see the longitudinal arch of the foot - Correct Answer- weight bearing foot (lateromedial) where do you center for a foot? - Correct Answer-base of 3rd metatarsal degree of obliquity for medial oblique foot - Correct Answer-30 degrees what joint separates in a 45 degree medial oblique position of the ankle? - Correct Answer-tibiofibular joint where do you center for an AP knee? - Correct Answer-1/2 inch below the patellar apex if a patients knee is less than 19 cm, how should you angle for a knee? - Correct Answer-3-5 caudad if a patients knee is 19-24 cm, how should you angle for a knee? - Correct Answer-0 angle if a patients knee is more than 24 cm, how should you angle for a knee? - Correct Answer-3-5 cephalad how much should the patient flex their knee for a lateral knee projection? - Correct Answer-20-30 degrees Camp Coventry and homblad methods are used to show - Correct Answer-Intercondylar Fossa (ICF) sunrise view is to see ___ fractures - Correct Answer-vertical lateral view of patella is used to see ___ fractures - Correct Answer- horizontal for an AP femur, the lower leg should be rotated internally __ degrees? - Correct Answer-5 degrees used to see scaphoid bone - Correct Answer-ulnar deviation used for carpal tunnel - Correct Answer-Gaynor hart what view of the elbow demonstrates the radial head free of superimposition over the ulna and capitulum? - Correct Answer-lateral external oblique what view of the elbow demonstrates the olecranon and coronoid processes of the proximal ulna? - Correct Answer-medial internal oblique in an AP humerus, when is the greater tubercle in profile? - Correct Answer-external in an AP humerus, when is the lesser tubercle in profile? - Correct Answer-internal the humeral head sits below the CORACOID with an ____ disc location - Correct Answer-anterior the humeral head sits below the ACROMIUM with a ____ dislocation - Correct Answer-posterior how much should you angle for an AP axial clavicle? - Correct Answer- 15-30 degrees cephalically how much should you angle for a PA axial clavicle? - Correct Answer- 15-30 degrees caudally radiographic demonstration of the synovial joint spaces of extremities using iodinated contrast media - Correct Answer-arthrography how many bones make up the bony orbit? - Correct Answer-7 synarthrosis classification - Correct Answer-immovable joints amphiarthrosis classification - Correct Answer-slightly moveable diarthrosis classification - Correct Answer-freely moveable synovial joints are mostly found in - Correct Answer-extremities