Medication Administration Principles and Practices, Exams of Nursing

Download Medication Administration Principles and Practices and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! Medication Aide TEST Updated Questions and Answers (2024-2025) (Verified Answers) 1) Which does for is not a liquid? a. emulsions b. elixirs c. troches d. syrups - ANSWER>>Troches 2) To apply ear drops to a person 3 years of age or older, you: a. instill the drops without pulling the ear b. pull the ear down and back c. pull the ear upward and back d. pull the ear down and foward - ANSWER>>pull the ear upward and back 3) A watery preparation containing suspended particles is: a. lotion b. cream c. ointment d. powder - ANSWER>>lotion 4) A drug interaction occurs when: a. person cannot control the ingestion of drugs b. withdrawal symptoms occur if the drug is not taken for a certain period c. the action of one drug is altered by the action of another drug d. a person begins to need higher dosages to produce the same effects that lower dosages one produced - ANSWER>>the action of one drug is altered by the action of another drug 5) You are applying a trans-dermal patch. You a. cover the patch with plastic wrap b. remove the old trans-dermal path before applying the new patch c. discard it in the trash d. tell the person the drug is absorbed quickly - ANSWER>>remove the old trans-dermal path before applying the new patch 6) Before giving a drug, you must a. take the persons pulse b. measure the blood pressure c. check the care plan d. check the allergies - ANSWER>>check the allergies 7) Knowledge of what is right conduct and what is wrong conduct is a. criminal law b. civil law c. advanced directives d. ethics - ANSWER>>ethics 8) one tsp equals a. 5mL b. 30mL c. 2mL d. 10mL - ANSWER>>5mL 9) You are applying topical nitroglycerin. You a. rub or massage the ointment into the skin b. check for an old application before applying a new one c. apply it in the per area d. apply the ointment to an irritated or open area - ANSWER>>check for an old application before applying a new one 10) You are not sure of something on a drug order. you should a. call the pharmacist b. tell the nurse c. transcribe the order as written d. call the doctor - ANSWER>>tell the nurse 11) before giving a suspension, you a. mix the drug with food b. warm the drug c. dilute the drug d. shake the bottle - ANSWER>>shake the bottle 12) you suspect a person is being abused in your facility. You should a. call the police b. tell another med aide c. share your concerns with the nurse d. tell the social worker - ANSWER>>share your concerns with the nurse 13) The intentional mistreatment or harm of another person is a. malpractice b. defamation c. abuse d. neglect - ANSWER>>abuse 14) controlled substances are a. left at the persons bedside b. kept in a locked cabinet or in a locked drawer d. protect the welfare of nursing assistive personnel - ANSWER>>protect the public welfare and safety 29) When giving oral drugs, you should a. mix solid drugs with liquid drugs b. stay with the person while he or she takes the drug c. place a bottle lid upside down on a clean surface d. give liquid drugs before solid drugs - ANSWER>>stay with the person while he or she takes the drug 30) Which of the following prevents a tablet from dissolving in the stomach? a. Enteric coating b. layering c. scoring d. granules - ANSWER>>enteric coating 31) you are giving a buccal tablet. The tablet is a. placed between the cheek and the molar teeth b. crushed before you give it to the person c. taken with a full glass of water d. placed under the tongue - ANSWER>>placed between the cheek and the molar teeth 32) to give the right dose, you a. compare the dose on the pharmacy label against the progress notes b. compare the dose on the pharmacy label against the graphic sheet c. compare the dose on the pharmacy label against the MAR d. compare the dose on the pharmacy label against the Kardex - ANSWER>>compare the dose on the pharmacy label against the MAR 33) you made a drug error and need to complete an incident report. You: a. complete the incident report according to facility policy b. contact the doctor about the error. c. give your opinions about why the error occurred d. record the error in the progress notes - ANSWER>>complete the incident report according to facility policy 34) A drug is ordered q.i.d. The drug should be given: a. twice a day b. three times a day c. four times a day d. daily - ANSWER>>4 times a day 35) Which is used to give a vaginal cream, gel, or foam? a. an applicator provided by the manufacturer b. suppository c. gloved finger d. cotton-tipped swab - ANSWER>>an applicator provided by the manufacturer 36) Drug cart keys should be a. given to the unit clerk when you enter a persons room b. kept with you when you enter a persons room c. kept on the cart when you enter a persons room d. given to a CNA when you enter a persons room - ANSWER>>kept with you when you enter a persons room 37) A severe, life threatening sensitivity to an antigen is a. drug reaction b. side effect c. anaphylaxis d. allergic reation - ANSWER>>anaphlaxis 38) When giving a rectal or vaginal drug, you should wear a. mask b. shoe coverings c. gloves d. eye shields - ANSWER>>gloves 39) Vaginal drugs are often given a. bedtime b. before the shower c. early afternoon d. late afternoon - ANSWER>>bedtime 40) You are giving drugs from a drug cart. When you ender a persons room you, a. ask a CNA to watch the cart for you b. leave the unlocked cart in the hallway c. wheel the drug cart into the room d. lock the cart before entering the persons room - ANSWER>>lock the cart before entering the persons room 41) Otic means a. sublingual b. mouth c. eye d. ear - ANSWER>>ear 42) Oral drugs can be given if the person a. is vomiting b. unconscious or comatose c. able to swallow d. risk for aspiration - ANSWER>>able to swallow 43) To make sure you have the right person when giving a drug, you use at least a. three identifiers b. two identifiers c. one identifier d. four identifiers - ANSWER>>two identifiers 44) A drug is ordered p.c. this drug is given, a. after meals b. upon wakening c. before meals d. at bedtime - ANSWER>>after meals 45) Oral drugs are ordered for a person who is comatose. You should a. notify the doctor b. call the pharmacist for IM drugs c. ask the nurse what to do d. give the drugs as ordered - ANSWER>>ask the nurse what to do 46) When applying a topical drug, you do all the following EXCEPT a. document before you apply the drug b. apply the dose form to clean, dry skin c. wear gloves d. practice hand hygiene before and after the application - ANSWER>>document before you apply the drug 47) When do you record a drug as given on the MAR? a. at once after giving the drug b. after all drugs are given at the end of the med pass c. at the end of the shift d. after the CNA gives the drug - ANSWER>>at once after giving the drug 48) a sublingual drug is given a. under the tongue b. on the skin c. between the cheek and molar teeth d. in the eye - ANSWER>>under the tongue 49) You gave a drug to the wrong person this is a. abuse b. malpractice c. fraud d. negligence - ANSWER>>negligence c. senses cold, pain, touch, and pressure d. provides the shape and framework for the body - ANSWER>>provides the shape and framework for the body 64) Which allows movement? a. bone marrow b. synovial membrane c. joints d. ligaments - ANSWER>>joints 65) skeletal muscles a. are under involuntary control b. appear smooth c. are under voluntary control d. appear striped and smooth - ANSWER>>are under voluntary control 66) The highest functions in the brain take place in the a. cerebral cortex b. medulla c. brainstem d. spinal nerves - ANSWER>>cerebral cortex 67) The ear is involved with a. regulating body movements b. balance c. the smoothness of body movements d. controlling involuntary movements - ANSWER>>balance 68) The liquid part of the blood is the a. hemoglobin b. red blood cell c. plasma d. white blood cell - ANSWER>>plasma 69) Which part of the heart pumps blood TO the body? a. right atrium b. left atrium c. right ventricle d. left ventricle - ANSWER>>left ventricle 70) Which carry blood away from the heart? a) Capillaries b) Veins c) Venules d) Arteries - ANSWER>>Veins 71) oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged a. in the bronchi b. between the alveoli and capillaries c. between the lungs and pleura d. in the trachea - ANSWER>>between the alveoli and capillaries 72) Digestion begins in the a. mouth b. stomach c. small intestines d. colon - ANSWER>>mouth 73) Most food absorption takes place in the a. stomach b. small intestine c. colon d. large intestines - ANSWER>>small intestine 74) urine is formed by the a. jejunum b. kidneys c. bladder d. liver - ANSWER>>kidneys 75) urine passes from the body through the a. ureters b. urethra c. anus d. nephrons - ANSWER>>urethra 76) The male sex gland is called the a. penis b. semen c. testis d. scrotum - ANSWER>>testis 77) The male sex cell is called a. semen b. ovum c. gonad d. sperm - ANSWER>>sperm 78) the female sex gland is the a. ovary b. cervix c. uterus d. vagina - ANSWER>>ovary 79) the discharge of the lining of the uterus is called a. endometrium b. ovulation c. fertilization d. menstruation - ANSWER>>menstruation 80) the immune system protects the body from a. low blood sugar b. disease and infection c. loss of fluid d. stunted growth - ANSWER>>disease and infection 81) the endocrine glands secrete a. hormones b. mucus c. semen d. insulin - ANSWER>>hormones 82) Skin absorption of drugs is enhanced in infants. this is because their skin, a. is thinner b. has more water c. is dry d. has fewer hair follicles - ANSWER>>has more water 83) You are giving drugs to an older person. Which of the following may enhance skin absorption? a. thin skin b. dry skin c. wrinkled skin d. decreased blood flow to the skin - ANSWER>>thin skin 84) A tablet is too large for a person to swallow. With the nurse's permission, you can a. crush the tablet and mix it with food b. give the liquid form of the same drug c. ask the person to chew the tablet d. dissolve the drug in water - ANSWER>>crush the tablet and mix it with food 85) Before giving a chewable tablet, you should a. taste the drug b. ask about the person's saliva flow c. mix the drug with food d. ask about loose teeth - ANSWER>>ask about loose teeth b. it chemical structure c. the common name d. the name listed by the FDA - ANSWER>>its trade name 104) A prescription drug a. affects one body system b. has one use c. needs a doctor order d. is not approved for use by the FDA - ANSWER>>needs a doctor order 105) OTC drugs a. are called recreational drugs b. are sold without a prescription c. have no therapeutic use d. require the phrase "Rx only" on the label - ANSWER>>are sold without a prescription 106) Drugs act in the human body by a. Forming a chemical bond within specific sites b. creating new body responses c. reconstituting a body fluid d. diluting a body fluid - ANSWER>>Forming a chemical bond within specific sites 107) the process by which the body inactivated a drug is called a. absorption b. distribution c. metabolism d. excretion - ANSWER>>metabolism 108) A drug is given by the enteral route. You know that the drug is given a. into a vein b. into a muscle c. beneath the skin d. into the GI tract - ANSWER>>into the GI tract 109) The nurse tells you that the blood level of a drug is too high. You know that the a. person is taking illegal drugs b. person is at risk for high toxicity c. the rate or absorption is low d. the rate of excretion is high - ANSWER>>person is at risk for high toxicity 110) Most drugs are metabolized a. in the kidneys b. by white blood cells c. by the GI tract d. in the liver - ANSWER>>liver 111) Most drugs leave the body through a. the skin b. the lungs c. saliva d. urine and feces - ANSWER>>urine and feces 112) Which is life threatening: a. an allergic reaction b. an adverse drug reaction c. an idiosyncratic drug reaction d. an anaphylactic reaction - ANSWER>>an anaphylactic reaction 113) A person complains of severe itching. You observe raised, irregular patches on the person's skin. This is called a. a side effect b. an adverse drug reaction c. anaphylaxis d. hives - ANSWER>>hives 114) A hyper-sensitivity to a drug is called a. an allergic reaction b. an adverse drug reaction c. side effect d. an anaphylactic reaction - ANSWER>>an allergic reaction 115) Which has no active ingredients? a. IM b. IV c. subcutaneous d. placebo - ANSWER>>placebo 116) A person needs higher dosages of a drug to produce the same effects that lower dosages once gave. This is called a. tolerance b. dependence c. cumulative effect d. drug interaction - ANSWER>>tolerance 117) When checking drug information you must use a. the PDR b. package inserts c. the most current resource d. online resources - ANSWER>>the most current resource 118) A single drug order is given a. at once b. as needed c. at a certain time d. at bedtime - ANSWER>>at a certain time 119) Which abbreviation is on the "do not use" list? a. QD b. PO c. AC d. q6h - ANSWER>>QD 120) Which abbreviation is safe to use? a. cc b. U c. QOD d. mL - ANSWER>>mL 121) A drug order state to give the drug if the person has not had a bowel movement for 3 days. Where will you find information about the drug order? a. the Kardex b. graphic sheet c. progress notes d. care plan - ANSWER>>the Kardex 122) You gave a PRN drug as directed by the nurse. Besides the MAR, where should you record giving the drug? a. the Kardex b. graphic sheet c. progress notes d. care plan - ANSWER>>progress notes 123) When is a copy of the order sent to the pharmacy? a. as soon as it is written b. after it is transcribed c. at the end of the shift d. at the time noted by the doctor - ANSWER>>after it is transcribed 124) After transcribing a drug order, you should do the following EXCEPT a. place a check mark by the order b. write noted or posted on the order c. sign, date, and time the order d. give the drug - ANSWER>>give the drug 125) A drug is given daily. What time should you put on the MAR? d. tilt his or her head back - ANSWER>>drink a small amount of water 140) Topical Drug Absorption is affected by the following except a. the time of application b. how long the drug is in contact with the skin c. skin thickness d. amount of water in the tissues - ANSWER>>the time of application 141) a topical drug is applied to debride a wound. Debriding is done to a. relieve itching b. provide a protective barrier to the skin c. reduce inflammation d. promote healing - ANSWER>>promote healing 142) Which of the following do you shake and has watery preparation? a. cream b. lotion c. ointment d. powder - ANSWER>>lotion 143) Lotions are used for the following reasons except a. absorb moisture b. soothe and protect the skin c. relieve itching d. cleanse the skin - ANSWER>>absorb moisture 144) Which topical dose form is dabbed on? a. cream b. lotion c. ointment d. powder - ANSWER>>lotion 145) These statements are about applying powder. Which is false? a. you shake or sprinkle powder onto the person b. powder is applied in a thin layer c. powder is slippery and can cause falls d. after applying powder you smooth over the area for even coverage. - ANSWER>>you shake or sprinkle powder onto the person 146) Before applying a topical dose form, ALWAYS a. provide for the person's privacy b. follow isolation precautions c. shave the application site d. clip hair at the application site - ANSWER>>provide for the person's privacy 147) An ointment is in a jar. What should you use to remove the amount ordered? a. your hand b. a sterile tongue blade c. a syringe d. a measuring spoon - ANSWER>>a sterile tongue blade 148) These statements are about nitroglycerin ointment and transdermal drug delivery systems. Which is FALSE? a. an old application is removed before applying a new one b. you rub or massage the ointment into the skin c. the application site is rotated d. the drug is applied to the skin site with little or no hair - ANSWER>>you rub or massage the ointment into the skin 149) Which is used to measure the ordered dose of nitroglycerin ointment? a. a measuring spoon b. medicine cup c. dose-measuring paper d. transdermal patch - ANSWER>>dose-measuring paper 150) Eye drops are ordered you should use a. a syringe b. a dropper from the supply cart c. the dropper supplied by the drug manufacturer d. a squeeze bottle. - ANSWER>>the dropper supplied by the drug manufacturer 151) Which is NOT a position for giving eye medications? a. supine b. sitting c. Fowler's d. with the head over the edge of the mattress. - ANSWER>>with the head over the edge of the mattress. 152) A drug order states that a medication is to be given "OS" what should you do? a. give the drug to the left eye b. give the drug to the right eye c. give the drug to both eyes d. check with the nurse - ANSWER>>check with the nurse 153) After an eye ointment is applied, the person should a. wipe eye b. rub eye c. close the eyes gently d. stare straight ahead - ANSWER>>close the eyes gently 154) Ear medications are given a. cold b. at room temperature c. after being heated d. directly from the refrigerator - ANSWER>>at room temperature 155) What should you do to remove excess cerumen? a. tongue blade b. cotton-tipped applicator c. gauze and saline d. wet washcloth - ANSWER>>wet washcloth 156) to instill a drug means to give a. a puff by squeezing a tube b. a spray by squeezing a container c. it drop by drop d. it in a strip fashion - ANSWER>>it drop by drop 157) Ear drops are ordered for both ears. How long should you wait before giving ear drops in the second ear? a. no waiting is required b. 1-5 minutes c. 5-10 mins d. 10-15 mins. - ANSWER>>5-10 mins 158) You inserted a cotton pledget after giving ear drops. How long should it remain in place? a. 1 min b. 5 mins c. 10 mins d. 15 mins - ANSWER>>15 mins 159) After receiving nose drops, how long should a patient remain in supine position? a. 1 min b. 5 mins c. 10 mins d. 15 mins - ANSWER>>5 mins 160) Which is the best position for giving nasal spray? a. supine b. side-lying c. Fowler's d. with hand over the edge of the mattress - ANSWER>>Fowler's d. hypotension - ANSWER>>vaso-constriction 176) Beta-blocking agents are commonly used to treat a. hypotension b. hypertension c. vaso-constriction d. respiratory disorders - ANSWER>>hypertension 177) When giving a beta blocker, you assist with assessment by a. measuring heart rate and blood pressure b. observing the color of urine c. asking the person to use a pain rating scale d. observing the person's level of alertness - ANSWER>>measuring heart rate and blood pressure 178) Cholinergic agents are used in the treatment of a. myocardial infarction b. parkinsons disease c. myasthenia gravis d. heart failure - ANSWER>>myasthenia gravis 179) Anti-cholinergic actions include the following EXCEPT a. increasing the heart rate b. drying respiratory secretions c. increasing GI mobility d. dilating the pupil - ANSWER>>increasing GI mobility 180) Which of the following drugs is an anti-cholinergic? a. carvedilol (Coreg) b. terbutaline (Brethine) c. bethanechol (Urecholine) d. atropine (Atropine Sulfate) - ANSWER>>atropine (Atropine Sulfate) 181) When giving an anticholinergic agent, you assist with assessment by a. measuring heart rate and blood pressure b. observing the color of urine c. asking the person to use a pain rating scale d. observing the person's level of alertness - ANSWER>>measuring heart rate and blood pressure 182) Sedative-hypnotic drugs are used to a. produce sleep b. dry respiratory secretions before surgery c. decrease drooling and tremors d. stimulate the central nervous system - ANSWER>>produce sleep 183) All of the following are barbiturates EXCEPT a. phenobarbital (Luminal) b. pentobarbital (Nembutal) c. secobarbital (Seconal) d. flurazepam (Dalmane) - ANSWER>>flurazepam 184) The benzodiazepines are used for the following reasons except a. to dry respiratory secretions b. produce mild sedation c. produce sleep d. pre-operative sedation - ANSWER>>to dry respiratory secretions 185) the following are benzodiazepines except a. zolpidem (ambien) b. lorazepam (Ativan) c. estazolam (ProSom) d. triazolam (halcion) - ANSWER>>zolpidem (ambien) 186) Which drug is NOT used to promote sleep? a. chloral hydrate (Aquachloral) b. diphenhydramine (Benadryl) c. zaleplon (Sonata) d. carbidopa, levodopa (Sinemet) - ANSWER>>carbidopa, levodopa (Sinemet) 187) Which is a common side effect of drugs used to treat Parkinson's? a. drooling b. rigid, stiff muscles c. orthostatic hypotension d. tremors - ANSWER>>orthostatic hypotension 188) Signs and symptoms of Parkinson's are caused by a deficiency of a. levodopa b. dopamine c. carbidopa d. norepinephrine - ANSWER>>dopamine 189) The following drugs are used to treat Parkinson's EXCEPT a. pramipexole (Mirapex) b. ropinirole (Requip) c. secobarbital (Seconal) d. selegiline (Eldepryl) - ANSWER>>secobarbital (Seconal) 190) Drugs used to treat Parkinson's a. depress the CNS b. increase the amount of dopamine available to brain cells c. cure the disease d. inhibit the use of dopamine - ANSWER>>increase the amount of dopamine available to brain cells 191) a state of severe mental impairment is called a. anxiety b. depression c. mood disorder d. psychosis - ANSWER>>psychosis 192) Many of the drugs used to treat mental disorders affect the a. CNS b. endocrine system c. respiratory system d. cardiovascular system - ANSWER>>CNS 193) Which of the following are used to treat anxiety? a. benzodiazepines b. monoamine oxidase inhibitors c. selective serotonin re-uptake inhibitors d. anti-manic agents - ANSWER>>benzodiazepines 194) the following drugs are used to treat anxiety EXCEPT a. alprozolam (Xanax) b. diazepam (Valium) c. clorazepate (tranxene) d. fluoxetine (Prozac) - ANSWER>>fluoxetine (Prozac) 195) the following drugs are used to treat anxiety EXCEPT a. hydroxyzine (Vistaril) b. paroxetine (Paxil) c. hydroxyzine (Atarax) d. fluvoxamine (Luvox) - ANSWER>>paroxetine (Paxil) 196) Which of the following is used to produce sedation before surgery? a. hydroxyzine (Vistaril) b. chlordiazepoxide (Librium) c. lorazepam (Ativan) d. clorazepate (tranxene) - ANSWER>>hydroxyzine (Vistaril) 197) Mood disorders are treated with a. anti-anxiety meds b. anti-depressants c. anti-psychotic d. sedative-hypnotics - ANSWER>>anti-depressants a. epilepsy b. partial seizure c. generalized seizure d. petit mal seizure - ANSWER>>partial seizure 214) Anti-convulsant drugs control seizures by affecting a. neurons in the brain b. nerves in the central nervous system c. voluntary muscles d. involuntary muscles - ANSWER>>neurons in the brain 215) Seizure treatment must always contain a. anti-convulsant therapy b. benzodiazepines c. the cause of the seizures d. treatment of epilepsy - ANSWER>>the cause of the seizures 216) Which is a benzodiazepine? a. diazepam b. ethotoin c. phenytoin d. ethosuximide - ANSWER>>diazepam 217) When giving a benzodiazepine you must a. give the drug with food or milk b. provide for safety c. give good oral hygiene d. measure blood pressure - ANSWER>>provide for safety 218) Succinimides are given a. with food or milk b. at bedtime c. before meals d. after meals - ANSWER>>with food or milk 219) Before giving carbamazepine, you a. measure blood glucose b. give good oral hygiene c. measure weight d. give the person food. - ANSWER>>Measure weight 220) When giving most anti-convulsants, you observe the following EXCEPT a. the persons speech pattern b. urine color c. degree of alertness d. orientation to the person, time, and place - ANSWER>>urine color 221) Which drug's dosage is based on the person's body weight? a. valproic acid b. tiagabine c. topiramate d. zonisamide - ANSWER>>valproic acid 222) Which are given to reduce fever? a. opiate agonists b. salicylates c. methadone-like derivatives d. opiate partial agonists - ANSWER>>salicylates 223) The following are opiate agonists EXCEPT a. codeine and morphine sulfate b. oxycontin and Percodan c. Talwin and Darvon d. Dilaudid and Demerol - ANSWER>>Talwin and Darvon 224) Which are the strongest anti-lipemic drugs? a. bile acid-binding resins b. fibric acids c. statins d. Zetia and Omacor - ANSWER>>statins 225) Common side effects of anti-lipemic drugs are a. chest pain b. nausea c. hypotension d. dizziness - ANSWER>>nausea 226) In a normal cardiac cycle, the impulse starts in the a. atria b. SA node c. AV node d. bundle of His - ANSWER>>SA node 227) Another term for dysrhythmia is - ANSWER>>arrhythmia 228) Which dysrhythmia has more P waves than QRS complexes? a. sinus tachycardia b. premature atrial contractions c. atrial flutter d. atrial fibrillation - ANSWER>>atrial flutter 229) dysrhythmia that develop above the bundle of His are called a. sinus dysrhythmias b. premature contractions c. junctional rhythms d. supra-ventricular dysrhythmias - ANSWER>>supra-ventricular dysrhythmias 230) Ventricular dysrhythmias develop a. in the SA node b. in the AV node c. above the bundle of His d. below the bundle of His - ANSWER>>below the bundle of His 231) Which is NOT considered life threatening? a. atrial fibrillation b. premature ventricular contractions c. ventricular tachycardia d. ventricular fibrillation - ANSWER>>atrial fibrillation 232) Intra-nasal cortico-steroids are given to a. liquify secretions b. ease breathing c. reduce sedation d. reduce inflammation - ANSWER>>reduce inflammation 233) Intra-nasal cortico-steroids are given to treat a. common cold b. emphysema c. allergic rhinitis d. rhinitis medicamentosa - ANSWER>>allergic rhinitis 234) intra-nasal cortico-steroids are given to reduce the following except a. nasal burning b. itching c. rhinorrhea d. sneezing - ANSWER>>nasal burning 235) Which liquify mucus? a. anti-inflammatory b. antitussives c. broncho-dilators d. expectorants - ANSWER>>expectorants 236) Broncho-dilators are given to a. promote a productive cough b. ease breathing c. liquify secretions c. anti-spasmodics d. gastro-intestinal prostaglandins - ANSWER>>antacids 253) Which can cause mental disturbances? a. antacids b. coating agents c. anti-spasmodics d. gastro-intestinal prostaglandins - ANSWER>>anti-spasmodics 254) Emesis means a. diarrhea b. constipation c. retching or griping d. vomiting - ANSWER>>vomiting 255) Drugs that cause bowel evacuation are called a. anti-diarrheals b. anti-emetics c. laxatives d. enemas - ANSWER>>laxatives 256) Which is a phenothiazine used to control vomiting? a. prochlorperazine b. haloperidol c. trimethobenzamide d. dimenhydrinate - ANSWER>>prochlorperazine 257) Which is often used to control motion sickness? a. prochlorperazine b. haloperidol c. trimethobenzamide d. dimenhydrinate - ANSWER>>dimenhydrinate 258) Benzodiazepines are used to prevent nausea and vomiting from chemotherapy because they also a. control diarrhea b. reduce anxiety c. improve alertness d. improve memory - ANSWER>>reduce anxiety 259) Stimulant laxatives a. cause an irritation that promotes peristalsis b. draw water into the intestine c. contains oils d. draw water into the feces - ANSWER>>cause an irritation that promotes peristalsis 260) Which maintain fluid and electrolyte balance? a. androgens b. estrogen c. gluco-corticoids d. mineralocorticoids - ANSWER>>mineralocorticoids 261) Which have anti-inflammatory, anti-allergenic, and immuno-suppressant activity? a. androgens b. estrogens c. testosterone d. mineralocorticoids - ANSWER>>androgens 262) Oral glucocorticoids are given a. before meals b. with meals c. after meals d. at bedtime - ANSWER>>with meals 263) Corticosteroids may cause signs and symptoms of a. electrolyte embalance b. masculine characteristics c. infection and inflammation d. allergies - ANSWER>>electrolyte embalance 264) A person has a history of mental health problems. Behavior changes may occur when taking a. corticosteroids b. estrogens c. progestins d. androgens - ANSWER>>corticosteroids 265) Estrogen may be used in the treatment of the following except a. menopause b. some types of breast cancer c. advanced prostate cancer d. endometriosis - ANSWER>>advanced prostate cancer 266) Progestins are used for the following except a. breast cancer in post-menopausal women b. contraception c. endometriosis d. abnormal uterine bleeding - ANSWER>>breast cancer in post- menopausal women 267) Male hormones are lacking, what is this called? a. androgen deficiency b. eunuchism c. hypogonadism d. priapism - ANSWER>>eunuchism 268) Contraceptives are used to a. prevent pregnancy b. treat BPH c. treat erectile dysfunction d. prevent leukorrhea - ANSWER>>prevent pregnancy 269) Combination oral contraceptives contain a. estrogen only b. progestin only c. estrogen and progestin d. progestin and testosterone - ANSWER>>estrogen and progestin 270) Combination oral contraceptives are packaged with 28 tablets. The last 7 contain a. estrogen b. progestin c. testosterone d. no hormones - ANSWER>>no hormones 271) Mini-pill oral contraceptives are packaged with 28 tablets in which all contain a. estrogen b. progestin c. testosterone d. no hormones - ANSWER>>progestin 272) Which oral contraceptive results in 4 periods in one year? a. mono-phasic b. bi-phasic c. tri-phasic d. seasonale - ANSWER>>seasonale 273) The following are side effects of contraceptives. Which may signal serious problems? a. weight gain b. break through bleeding c. leg pain d. vaginal discharge - ANSWER>>leg pain b. dilate the pupils c. constrict the pupils d. lubricate the eyes - ANSWER>>lubricate the eyes 289) Which is NOTa warning sign of cancer? a. painful, swollen joints b. a sore that does not heal c. unusual bleeding or discharge d. discomfort after eating - ANSWER>>painful, swollen joints 290) Chemotherapy is most effective a. when the tumor is first diagnosed b. after surgery c. after radiation d. when the tumor is small - ANSWER>>when the tumor is small 291) A person receiving chemo will likely experience a. diarrhea b. burns c. skin breakdown d. weight gain - ANSWER>>skin breakdown 292) An involuntary muscle contraction of sudden onset is called a. clonus b. hyperreflexia c. spasm d. jerk - ANSWER>>spasm 293) The rapidly alternating involuntary contraction and relaxation of the skeletal muscles is called a. clonus b. spasm c. jerking d. hyperreflexia - ANSWER>>clonus 294) Centrally Acting Skeletal Muscle Relaxants act a. directly on the muscles b. depressing the CNS c. inhibiting reflex activity at the spinal chord d. by blocking nerve impulses - ANSWER>>depressing the CNS 295) All centrally acting skeletal muscle relaxants cause some degree of a. confusion b. orthostatic hypotension c. sedation d. spasticity - ANSWER>>sedation 296) The goal of therapy for central acting muscle relaxants is relief of a. clonus b. muscle spasm c. jerking d. hyperreflexia - ANSWER>>muscle spasm 297) which has a dose form of orally disintegrating tablets a. dantrolene b. baclofen c. carisoprodol d. tizanidine - ANSWER>>baclofen 298) Which is not a centrally acting muscle relaxant? a. dantrolene b. cyclobenzaprine c. methocarbamol d. carisoprodol - ANSWER>>dantrolene 299) Direct-acting skeletal muscle relaxants decrease a. clonus, hyperreflexia and muscle spasm b. cerebral palsy and multiple sclerosis c. spinal cord injury d. photo-sensitivity, sedation, and drowsiness - ANSWER>>clonus, hyperrelfexia and muscle spasm 300) Allopurinol is given for gout. The initial adult dose is a. 100 mg b. 200 mg c. 300 mg d. 400 mg - ANSWER>>100 mg 301) Persons receiving drug therapy for gout should be observed for a. dysrhythmias b. tremors c. GI symptoms d. confusion - ANSWER>>GI symptoms 302) Microbes that grow in living cells are called a. bacteria b. fungi c. germs d. viruses - ANSWER>>viruses 303) Plants that live on other plants or animals are called a. bacteria b. fungi c. germs d. viruses - ANSWER>>fungi 304) Chemicals that eliminate pathogens are called a. antibiotics b. antimicrobials c. antivirals d. nonpathogens - ANSWER>>antimicrobials 305) a person with a weakened immune system develops an infection. It is caused by a non-pathogen. The person has a. a bacterial infection b. healthcare associated infection c. opportunistic infection d. secondary infection - ANSWER>>opportunistic infection 306) a person is being treated for an infection. Another infection develops. This is called a. bacterial infection b. healthcare associated infection c. opportunistic infection d. secondary infection - ANSWER>>secondary infection 307) To maintain blood levels of the drug, antimircobals are usually given a. at regular intervals b. at the same times everyday c. every 6 hours d. every 12 hours - ANSWER>>at regular intervals 308) Which is NOT penicillin? a. Amoxil b. Cipro c. Pincipen d. trimox - ANSWER>>Cipro 309) A common side effect of penicillin is a. diarrhea b. hearing loss c. photo-toxicity d. tingling - ANSWER>>diarrhea 310) Anti-viral drugs used to treat HIV also are used to reduce the frequency of a. hep B b. Hep c c. opportunistic infections