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MFR STUDY GUIDE 100% VERIFIED ANSWERS 2024/2025 CORRECT, Exams of Health sciences

MFR STUDY GUIDE 100% VERIFIED ANSWERS 2024/2025 CORRECT

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MFR STUDY GUIDE 100%

VERIFIED ANSWERS

2024/2025 CORRECT

Which one of the following is NOT an attribute of an integrated EMS system? a. EMS Research b. Medical Direction c. Health insurance companies d. Education systems c. Health insurance companies The licensed physician who assumes the ultimate responsibility for the oversight of all patient care is called the: Medical Director Which one of the following BEST describes the role of the Emergency Medical Responder in an EMS system? a. Decontaminates hazardous materials b. Cares for immediate life threats and assists EMT's c. Serves as an Incident Commander and directs other personnel d. Assists Paramedics with advanced skills b. Cares for immediate life threats and assists EMT's Emergency Medical Dispatchers receive training that allows them to: Provide prearrival care instructions Which one of the following receives the highest level of training in an EMS system? a. Emergency Medical Responder b. Emergency Medical Technician

c. Advanced Emergency Medical Technician d. Paramedic d. Paramedic Clearly defined, written guidance that describe how to manage the most common types of conditions called: Protocols Specialized teams of experienced EMS personnel who respond on short notice during disasters are called: Disaster Medical Assistance Teams Protocols and standing orders are forms of: Off-line medical direction The care that an Emergency Medical Responder is allowed and supposed to provide according to local, state. or regional regulations or statutes is known as: Scope of practice Protocols and patient care decisions should be based on: Current EMS research The action that a similarly trained individual would do, given the same or similar circumstances, are referred to as the: Standard of care A document that allows a patient to define in advance what his or her wishes are should he or she become incapacitated is called a(n): Advance directive What type of consent is necessary to obtain from responsive, competent adult patients? Expressed

Which one of the following is NOT true about expressed consent? a. The patient may withdraw at at any time. b. It may be given via nonverbal communication. c. It can be given by parents of minors on their behalf. d. It requires a signed form to be valid. d. It requires a signed form to be valid. You are caring for an overdose patient who is unresponsive. You are legally allowed to provide care based on what type of consent? Implied Which one of the following patients may legally refuse care at the scene of an emergency? a. 11-year-old boy who was hit by a car while riding his bike b. 26-year-old unresponsive overdose patient c. 46-year-old intoxicated driver of a vehicle involved in a collision d. 68-year-old alert woman having chest pain 68 - year-old woman having chest pain Which one of the following is NOT an element required for a claim of negligence? a. Duty b. Abandonment c. Damages d. Causation b. Abandonment Most states require EMR's and other EMS personnel to report incidents involving known or suspected: Abuse or neglect When caring for a patient at a crime scene, you should: Avoid moving objects at the scene when possible

An EMR fails to protect patient privacy when he or she: a. provides detailed information about the patient to the nurse in the emergency department. b. returns to the station and shares the patient's name with colleagues. c. shares details of the patient's condition with the EMT's who are taking over care. d. provides details about the emergency after being subpoenaed to court. b. returns to the station and shares the patient's name with colleagues. All of the following are routes through which pathogens may enter the body EXCEPT: a. ingestion b. mentation c. inhalation d. injection b. mentation Which one of the following is NOT a commonly recommended immunization for health care providers? a. Rabies b. Pertussis c. Hepatitis d. Tetanus a. Rabies Which one of the following types of PPE would be MOST important to use when caring for a patient with tuberculosis? a. Gloves b. Eyeglasses c. HEPA mask d. Gown c. HEPA mask You have arrived at the scene of a vehicle collision, and there are downed power lines across the road. Which one of the following resources is most appropriate to manage this hazard? a. Law enforcement b. Fire department

c. Hazmat team d. Utility company d. Utility company All of the following are common emotional reactions of an EMR who has faced serious trauma, illness, or death, EXCEPT: a. Depression b. Burnout c. Excessive energy d. Insomnia c. Excessive energy The best definition of the term stressor is: a. a situation involving death or dying. b. something that consumes the attention of the individual experiencing stress. c. anything that puts pressure on the body. d. any emotional or physical demand that causes stress. d. any emotional or physical demand that causes stress. Common causes of stress for EMRs include all of the following EXCEPT: a. documenting each call. b. multiple casualty incidents. c. severely injured pediatric patient. d. the scene of a violent crime. a. documenting each call. All of the following are terms used for the stages of death and dying EXCEPT: a. denial b. anger c. bargaining d. refusal d. refusal

When caring for family members after the death of a loved one, you should: a. avoid talking directly to the patient's family. b. not tolerate angry reactions. c. try your best to understand their feelings. d. tell them everything will be okay. c. try your best to understand their feelings. All of the following are common signs and symptoms of stress EXCEPT: a. irritability b. difficulty sleeping c. increased appetite d. difficulty concentrating c. increased appetite A broad-based approach involving several strategies designed to help emergency personnel cope with stress is called: a. Critical Incident Stress Management b. Emergency Stress Reduction Protocol c. Stress Prevention Strategy d. Incident Emotional Response Program a. Critical Incident Stress Management After caring for a trauma patient, you notice that there is dried blood on your blood pressure cuff. You should: a. sterilize the BP cuff prior to further use. b. clean cuff with soap and water then disinfect. c. report the exposure to your supervisor. d. throw the cuff away and replace it with a new one. b. clean cuff with soap and water then disinfect. Proper BSI precautions should be taken: a. for TB and HBV patients only. b. for any ill or injured patient.

c. only for patients who have a known infection. d. only for patients who are bleeding. b. for any ill or injured patient. Which one of the following best describes the anatomical position? a. Standing upright with arms at the sides b. Lying supine with arms outstretched and palms up c. Standing with hands at the sides and palms forward d. Lying prone with arms held straight out and palms down c. Standing with hands at the sides and palms forward The navel is on the ________ aspect of the body. a. posterior b. anterior c. inferior d. superior b. anterior The spine can be felt (palpated) on the __________ aspect of the body. a. posterior b. anterior c. inferior d. superior a. posterior The imaginary line that bisects the body into two halves (left and right) is known as the: a. proximal break b. inferior aspect c. recumbent line d. midline d. midline Any location on the body that is closer to the midline is referred to as: a. medial

b. recumbent c. lateral d. inferior a. medial The thumb is considered __________ to the palm. a. distal b. proximal c. lateral d. medial c. lateral The lower airway includes all of the following EXCEPT the: a. bronchi b. epiglottis c. alveoli d. trachea b. epiglottis Which one of the following is NOT a function of the circulatory system? a. Delivering blood to vital organs b. Removing waste products from the cells c. Breaking down food into nutrients d. Carrying oxygen throughout the body c. Breaking down food into nutrients A patient with a dislocated shoulder has sustained an injury to which body system? a. Digestive b. Musculoskeletal c. Integumentary d. Nervous b. Musculoskeletal

The central nervous system is made up of the: a. sensory nerves. b. brain and cervical spine. c. nerves in the hands and feet. d. brain and spinal cord. d. brain and spinal cord. The period of time from birth to 28 days is referred to as: a. the neonatal period. b. infancy. c. childhood. d. adolescence. a. the neonatal period. The recovery position is known as the __________ position. a. lateral recumbent b. lateral c. superior d. stroke a. lateral recumbent The bladder is located in which body cavity? a. Cranial b. Thoracic c. Abdominal d. Pelvic d. Pelvic The __________ cavity is also known as the thoracic cavity. a. pelvic b. chest c. abdominal d. cranial

b. chest The __________ cavity separates the thoracic cavity from the abdominal cavity. a. pelvic wall b. midline c. diaphragm d. stomach c. diaphragm Which of the following is TRUE of school aged children? a. They are aware of death and dying. b. They do not understand simple concepts. c. They need to be with their parents at all times. d. They are not at risk for choking. a. They are aware of death and dying. The __________ cavity contains the liver and part of the large intestines. a. pelvic b. abdominal c. thoracic d. cranial b. abdominal The __________ is found in the upper left quadrant of the abdomen. a. appendix b. liver c. kidney d. spleen d. spleen The endocrine system includes: a. glands and hormones. b. ovaries and uterus.

c. liver and bile ducts. d. small and large intestines. a. glands and hormones. The __________ is/are found in an area behind the abdominal cavity. a. kidneys b. bladder c. small intestine d. gall bladder a. kidneys The most basic unit of the human body it the: a. cell. b. organ. c. organ system. d. quadrant. a. cell. All cells require a constant supply of glucose, water, and: a. carbon dioxide. b. ATC. c. glycogen. d. oxygen. d. oxygen. Anaerobic metabolism in a cell produces carbon dioxide and: a. lactic acid. b. carbon monoxide c. insulin. d. hemoglobin. a. lactic acid. A breathing rate that is too slow will result in an excess build-up of _________ in the blood. a. electrolytes

b. carbon dioxide c. oxygen d. carbon monoxide b. carbon dioxide Which one of the following would be a predictable bodily response to hypoperfusion? a. Decreased respiratory rate b. Increased heart rate c. Vasodilation d. Pupil constriction b. Increased heart rate A four-year-old male shock patient has delayed capillary refill time. This is most likely caused by: a. vasodilation. b. cold ambient temperature. c. medicine he has been given. d. vasoconstriction. d. vasoconstriction. During normal metabolism, what does the cell convert into energy? a. Glucose b. Water c. Oxygen d. Lactic acid a. Glucose The process of using oxygen to fuel the creation of energy is called __________ metabolism. a. aerobic b. anaerobic c. inaerobic d. lactic a. aerobic

The regulation of breathing is controlled by the: a. lungs. b. diaphragm. c. medulla. d. peripheral nervous system. c. medulla. The problem that can result when a patient does not get an adequate supply of oxygen is called: a. hypoxia. b. pneumothorax. c. stroke. d. anoxia. a. hypoxia. The smallest vessel that carries deoxygenated blood is called a(n): a. artery. b. arteriole. c. venule. d. vein. c. venule. Stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system will result in all of the following EXCEPT: a. increased heart rate. b. increased respiratory rate. c. constriction of vessels. d. decreased heart rate. d. decreased heart rate. The volume of blood that is ejected from the left ventricle with each contraction is known as: a. cardiac output. b. respiratory volume. c. stroke volume. d. minute volume.

c. stroke volume. Proper body mechanics are best defined as: a. properly using your body to facilitate a lift or move. b. using a minimum of three people for any lift. c. contracting the body's muscles to lift or move things. d. lifting with your back and not your legs. a. properly using your body to facilitate a lift or move. Which of the following conditions would least likely require an emergent move? a. A blocked airway b. Severe bleeding c. Mild shortness of breath d. Cardiac arrest c. Mild shortness of breath When lifting a patient, your feet should be placed: a. one in front of the other. b. shoulder-width apart. c. as wide as possible. d. as close together as possible. b. shoulder-width apart. Good body mechanics means keeping your back __________ and bending at the knees when lifting a patient or large object. a. at a 45-degree angle b. straight c. curved d. slightly twisted b. straight The load on your back is minimized if you can keep the weight you are carrying: a. as close to your body as possible. b. at least 6 inches in front of you.

c. at least 18 inches in front of you. d. as low as possible. a. as close to your body as possible. What type of move is used when there is no immediate threat to the patient's life? a. Emergent b. Standard c. Rapid d. Nonrapid b. Standard When restraining a patient, it is important to remember that: a. the patient should be placed in the prone position. b. the restraints should be as tight as possible. c. the patient should be kept supine at all times. d. handcuffs should be used whenever possible. c. the patient should be kept supine at all times. Which one of the following patients would best be served by being placed in the recovery position? a. A child who is unresponsive following a seizure b. An adult in cardiac arrest and in need of CPR c. A child who is face down and unresponsive in a pool d. An adult victim of a vehicle collision a. A child who is unresponsive following a seizure Before restraining a combative patient the Emergency Medical Responder should obtain __________ assistance. a. law enforcement b. medical direction c. ALS d. supervisor a. law enforcement

Which one of the following devices is best suited to carry a responsive patient with no suspected spinal injury down a flight of stairs? a. Flexible stretcher b. Wheeled stretcher c. Scoop stretcher d. Stair chair d. Stair chair The word communicate is best defined as: a. delivering a message. b. talking to another individual verbally. c. an interchange of ideas or information. d. understanding what another individual is saying. c. an interchange of ideas and information. The words and sounds that make up a language is a description of which type of communication? a. Verbal b. Nonverbal c. Written d. Visual a. Verbal Nonverbal communication is best characterized by: a. written words. b. spoken words. c. body language. d. signs and symbols. c. body language. All of the following are components of the communication process EXCEPT: a. sender. b. receiver. c. message. d. frequency.

d. frequency. Research suggests that the majority of a message is delivered by way of: a. body language. b. voice (tone). c. word use. d. eye contact. a. body language. The distance that exists between two parties who are communicating by radio is an example of which type of barrier? a. Perceptual b. Language c. Physical d. Interpersonal c. Physical While interviewing a patient, you ask questions about his medical history and reassure him that you will take care of him. This is an example of what type of communication? a. Therapeutic b. Direct c. Visual d. Interpersonal a. Therapeutic All of the following are goals of therapeutic communication EXCEPT: a. pain management b. collecting information c. assessing behavior d. providing education a. pain management A good transfer of care should contain all of the following EXCEPT: a. patient's name and age.

b. patient's address. c. chief complaint. d. vital signs. b. patient's address. Which one of the following is the best example of an appropriate radio call? a. Engine 6, this is MedCom. Respond to 1111 Sonoma Ave. b. Engine 6, respond to 1111 Sonoma Ave. c. This is MedCom, calling Engine 6. d. MedCom, come in Engine 6. a. Engine 6, this is MedCom. Respond to 1111 Sonoma Ave. PCRs are used for all of the following EXCEPT: a. billing. b. press releases. c. quality improvement. d. lawsuits. b. press releases. Continuity of care is best defined as: a. ensuring that the same care provider is responsible for treating a patient until admission to the hospital. b. ensuring that once a particular treatment is started it is not stopped. c. the thorough and consistent delivery of care among all providers. d. the proper documentation of the care provided to a patient. c. the thorough and consistent delivery of care among all providers. You are writing the patient's history on a PCR and inadvertently document an incorrect medication. You should: a. discard the document and begin again. b. completely mark out the incorrect medication name with your pen so no one will be able to see it and become confused. c. not worry about it because Emergency Medical Responders do not administer medications, d. draw a single lien through the error, write the correct medication, and initial the change.

d. draw a single line through the error, write the correct medication, and initial the change. Which one of the following would NOT be appropriate to include in a standard Emergency Medical Responder PCR? a. The exact location where the patient was initially contacted b. That the patient was having chest pain c. The names of the ambulance personnel who assumed care of the patient d. The cause of the injury a. The exact location where the patient was initially contacted Rescue breathing is: a. any effort to restart a normal heart rhythm. b. the application of manual ventilations. c. the use of oxygen to assist breathing. d. the ability to restore normal heart rhythm and breathing. b. the application of manual ventilations. When performing the head-tilt/chin-lift maneuver on an adult, tilt the head: a. as far back as possible. b. into the sniffing position. c. to get the tongue to close the epiglottis. d. so the upper and lower teeth are touching. a. as far back as possible. The recommended method for opening the airway of a patient with a possible neck or spine injury is the __________ maneuver. a. jaw-thrust b. mouth-to-nose c. abdominal-thrust d. head-tilti/chin-lift a. jaw-thrust Clinical death occurs when the patient's: a. brain cells begin to die.

b. breathing has stopped for four minutes. c. pulse has been absent for five minutes. d. heartbeat and breathing have stopped. d. heartbeat and breathing have stopped. A pocket face mask allows the rescuer to provide ventilations while minimizing: a. having to hold the mask firmly in place. b. delivering his own breaths to the patient. c. direct contact with the patient's mouth and nose. d. worrying about keeping the head and spine in-line. c. direct contact with the patient's mouth and nose. During rescue breathing, you should check for effectiveness of ventilations by: a. looking for chest rise and fall. b. listening for airflow from the mouth and nose. c. observing skin color, such as paleness or cyanosis. d. looking for chest rise and fall, listening for airflow, and observing skin color. d. looking for chest rise and fall, listening for airflow, and observing skin color. If an infant becomes unresponsive before you can clear an airway obstruction, you should first: a. place the infant face down and lift their chin with your hands. b. place them on a firm surface and begin chest compressions. c. hold their face up and deliver chest thrusts. d. turn them face down and deliver back slaps. b. place them on a firm surface and begin chest compressions. Which of the following is an indication for suctioning the upper airway? a. Snoring sounds during breathing b. Complete foreign body airway obstruction c. Gurgling sounds during breathing d. An unconscious patient c. Gurgling sounds during breathing

Which one of the following improves ventilations delivered by way of a bag-mask device? a. Inserting an oropharyngeal airway b. Applying suction for four to six minutes c. Alternating chest thrusts and squeezing the bag d. Combining finger sweeps with a mouth-to-mouth technique a. Inserting an oropharyngeal airway. Which one of the following is recommended for clearing an airway obstruction in a conscious 10- month-old baby? a. Abdominal thrusts and chest thrusts b. Chest thrusts and back blows c. Back slaps and finger sweeps d. Abdominal thrusts and finger sweeps b. chest thrusts and back blows The primary muscle of respiration is the: a. trachea. b. esophagus. c. diaphragm. d. pharynx. c. diaphragm. The __________ prevents food and other material from entering the trachea. a. tongue. b. alveoli. c. pharynx. d. epiglottis. d. epiglottis. Deep within the lungs, the __________ are the tiny balloon-like structures where gas exchange takes place. a. alveoli b. bronchioles

c. trachea d. epiglottis a. alveoli All of the following are signs of difficulty breathing EXCEPT: a. Poor chest rise b. Pale or bluish skin color c. Use of accessory muscles d. Good chest rise and fall d. Good chest rise and fall When caring for an unresponsive patient, tilting her head back improves the airway by: a. lifting their tongue from the back of their throat. b. shifting the epiglottis from front to back. c. allowing fluids to flow more easily. d. opening their mouth. a. lifting their tongue from the back of their throat. Which of the following is an example of a mechanical airway obstruction? a. Tongue b. Swollen trachea c. Foreign object d. Enlarged epiglottis c. Foreign object Noisy breathing is a sign of __________ airway obstruction. a. bilateral b. complete c. adequate d. partial d. partial You have just made two attempts to ventilate an unresponsive child with an airway obstruction. Your next step is to:

a. begin chest compressions. b. continue to ventilate. c. perform 5 chest thrusts. d. provide back slaps. a. begin chest compressions. Supplemental oxygen can be helpful to ill or injured patients by: a. reducing the concentration of available oxygen. b. increasing the concentration of available oxygen. c. helping eliminate carbon dioxide. d. increasing the concentration of carbon dioxide. b. increasing the concentration of available oxygen. Which of one of the following best describes the oxygen consumption of a normally functioning human being? a. The body requires a constant supply of oxygen at 79%. b. The body needs a minimum of 10% oxygen to survive. c. The body exhales an average of 21% carbon dioxide with each breath. d. Each breath we exhale contains approximately 16% oxygen. d. Each breath we exhale contains approximately 16% oxygen. All of the following are reasons a patient might need supplemental oxygen EXCEPT: a. a significant mechanism of injury. b. being upset over the breakup with a boyfriend/girlfriend. c. a suspected heart attack. d. difficulty breathing. b. being upset over the breakup with a boyfriend/girlfriend. Which one of the following best defines the term oxygen concentration? a. Percentage of carbon dioxide in room air. b. Amount of oxygen remaining in one exhalation. c. Ratio between oxygen and carbon dioxide. d. Concentration of oxygen inspired by the patient.

d. Concentration of oxygen inspired by the patient. The pressure gauge of a full cylinder will display approximately __________ psi. a. 500 b. 1,000 c. 1,5000 d. 2,000 d. 2,000 A typical oxygen regulator will NOT: a. display tank pressure. b. display ambient air pressure. c. control liter flow. d. regulate tank pressure. b. display ambient air pressure. You are caring for a patient complaining of mild shortness of breath and have her on a nasal cannula at 6 liters per minute. What oxygen concentration are you delivering to the patient? a. 25% b. 29% c. 33% d. 45% d. 45% You are caring for a victim of a motor vehicle crash and have placed her on a nonrebreather mask. Which one of the following best describes how you know the liter flow has been adjusted properly? a. The patient is able to speak in complete sentences. b. The reservoir bag completely deflates with each breath. c. You see no movement of the reservoir bag with each breath. d. The reservoir bag refills completely between breaths. d. The reservoir bag refills completely between breaths.

You are caring for a patient who was ejected from a vehicle that rolled over. She is alert and responsive. Her respirations are 20 times per minute, unlabored, and with good tidal volume. Which device is most appropriate to deliver oxygen to this patient? a. Nasal cannula b. Demand valve c. Bag-mask device d. Nonrebreather mask d. Nonrebreather mask You are caring for a patient who was involved in a serious motor vehicle collision. She is conscious and alert and breathing 18 times per minute with good tidal volume. You would provide oxygen to this patient based on: a. the patient's level of distress. b. abnormal vital signs. c. the mechanism of injury. d. the respiratory rate. c. the mechanism of injury. You are a single rescuer caring for the victim of a cardiac arrest. Your equipment bag and a supply of oxygen are within reach. Which one of the following is the most appropriate choice for beginning rescue breaths on this patient? a. Pocket mask with supplemental oxygen. b. Bag mask without supplemental oxygen c. Mouth-to-mouth d. Waiting for another rescuer before beginning rescue breaths. a. Pocket mask with supplemental oxygen. The proper placement of a(n) __________ will help ensure an air tight fit between the regulator and the tank valve. a. cannula b. Venturi c. O-ring d. demand valve