Microbiology and Immunology Concepts, Exams of Physiology

Download Microbiology and Immunology Concepts and more Exams Physiology in PDF only on Docsity! BMSC 210 Post-Midterm 2 Quizzes | 100% Correct Answers | Verified | Latest 2024 Version Which is one major difference between anaerobic and aerobic respiration? - ✔✔Electron acceptor Fermentation has a relatively low ATP yield compared to aerobic respiration because - ✔✔oxidative phosphorylation yields a lot of ATP. Aerobic respiration and anaerobic respiration use different ________________, while chemolithotrophs and chemoorganotrophs use different _________________. - ✔✔electron acceptors / electron donors During fermentation, ______________ compounds both donate and accept electrons, with no need for external electron acceptors, but during respiration, ____________ electron donors are oxidized with exogenous compounds serving as electron acceptors. - ✔✔organic / inorganic or organic Whether an organism is classified as a photoheterotroph or a photoautotroph depends on its - ✔✔carbon source. Selective medium differs from differential medium because - ✔✔selective medium permits growth of a particular microbial type while differential medium is used to distinguish between types of organisms. Organisms able to live in environments with high sugar concentrations are - ✔✔osmophiles. Obligate anaerobes which are sensitive to O2 would be found growing - ✔✔only at the bottom of a tube of thioglycolate broth. The optimal growth temperature of a bacterium is most closely related to the optimal temperature for - ✔✔enzyme function. Most mesophilic organisms can grow in a temperature range of - ✔✔20-45°C. Well-designed microbial activity measurements can reveal ________ of major metabolic reactions in a habitat. - ✔✔both types and rates The use of chemical agents directly on exposed body surfaces to destroy or inhibit vegetative pathogens is - ✔✔antisepsis The time interval required for the formation of two cells from one is called the - ✔✔generation time. Winogradsky columns are used primarily for enrichment of - ✔✔aerobes, anaerobes, and phototrophs. The foul-smelling putrescine byproduct suggests activity of - ✔✔amino acid fermentation by clostridia. Identifying carboxysomes in a bacterium suggests it - ✔✔will use the Calvin cycle to convert the concentrated CO2 into biomass. Alternative autotrophic routes to the Calvin cycle, such as the reverse citric acid cycle and the hydroxypropionate pathway, are unified in their requirement for - ✔✔CO2. A halotolerant facultative anaerobe would grow BEST in which of the following environments? - ✔✔Oxygenated non-saline Bacteria that are able to grow in humans and cause disease would be classified as - ✔✔mesophiles. A ________ agent is a chemical that inhibits bacteria from reproducing, but does NOT necessarily kill them. - ✔✔bacteriostatic Which method would be LEAST effective at sterilizing a glass hockey stick to use in the spread-plate method? Adaptive immunity occurs when - ✔✔the innate immune response fails to eliminate pathogens in the body and virulent infections persist after the initial innate defense response. ________ is a group of sequentially interacting proteins important in innate and adaptive immunity. - ✔✔complement The part of the antigen recognized by the antibody or TCR is called the - ✔✔epitope T cells recognize antigens with their - ✔✔T cell receptors Unactivated dendritic cells act as antigen presenting cells for which of the following T cell subsets? - ✔✔Treg only Which of the following T cell subsets is a CD8 T cell? Th2 Treg None of these. Th17 - ✔✔none of these Pattern recognition receptors are most directly used - ✔✔by phagocytes to detect pathogens. ________ are cytotoxins produced by T cells that cause apoptosis. - ✔✔Granzymes T/F? Th2 cells produce a cytokine that promotes growth and activation of other T cells and activates macrophages. - ✔✔false Which of the following are found on the surfaces of all nucleated cells? M proteins Class I MHC proteins G proteins Class II MHC proteins - ✔✔Class I MHC proteins T/F? Helicobacter pylori, when present, is the MOST common single organism found in the stomach. - ✔✔true Which of the following is NOT found in the gastrointestinal tract of a healthy individual? Bacteroides Clostridium Bacteroidetes protists - ✔✔protists Bacteria make up about ____________ the weight of fecal matter. - ✔✔One-third What will happen after a person takes an antibiotic orally? - ✔✔- The growth of pathogens will be inhibited - The growth of normal flora will be inhibited - Opportunistic microorganisms such as antibiotic resistant Staphylococcus aureas may become established Saliva is a poor growth medium for bacteria due to - ✔✔the presence of lysozyme The lower respiratory tract does not have any resident microbial flora - ✔✔- because organisms settle out of the air prior to reaching the trachea - because ciliated epithelial cells push particles back toward the nose and mouth. The variety of microenvironments on the skin allows the skin to have - ✔✔a large diversity of the microbiome. Gut colonizers are an important source of - ✔✔Vitamin k B Vitamins amino acids The most stable gut species include - ✔✔Bacteroides Knowing specifics of a person's microbiome can potentially lead to - ✔✔- targeted treatment for disease - probiotics made that just target specific imbalances. - personalized drug therapies. ___________ is the growth of microorganisms NOT normally present within a host. - ✔✔infection Following exposure to a pathogen, events leading to disease—in the correct order—are - ✔✔adherence, invasion, infection, toxicity. adherence factors include ALL of the following EXCEPT fimbriae flagella lipopolysaccharide layers. capsules - ✔✔lipopolysaccharide layers. Growth of a microorganism after entering a host is called - ✔✔colonization Which of the following does NOT occur during the development of dental caries? a. Oral biofilm microflora produce high concentrations of organic acids. b. Lactic acid dissolves calcium phosphate, causing decalcification of the tooth enamel. c. Oral microflora produce high concentrations of exoenzymes when sucrose is present. d. Streptococcus mutans uses dextran to attach to teeth and gums. - ✔✔c. Oral microflora produce high concentrations of exoenzymes when sucrose is present. The ability of a pathogen to enter a cell, spread, and cause disease is termed - ✔✔invasion Streptokinase works to ___________ fibrin clots while coagulase works to ___________ fibrin clots. - ✔✔dissolve / promote Exotoxins classified as A B toxins damage cells by - ✔✔using the B subunit to attach to the target cell while the A subunit enters and inhibits protein synthesis. Healthcare-associated infections (HAI s) are also called - ✔✔nosocomial infections What BSL has the highest level of containment and is where drug-resistant Mycobacterium tuberculosis must be studied? - ✔✔BSL-4 The antimicrobial susceptibility of a bacterium can be determined by - ✔✔- the tube dilution technique. - determining the minimum inhibitory concentration. - the disk diffusion test Media that can differentiate organisms based on colony appearance are - ✔✔differential. Aseptic technique in obtaining clinical specimens is essential to ensure bacterial presence is due only to - ✔✔infection. T/F? If an individual is infected with a pathogen, the antibody titer to that pathogen will decrease. - ✔✔false Advantages of qPCR tests over traditional end-point PCR tests include - ✔✔- eliminating the need for agarose gel electrophoresis. - continuous monitoring. - determining the amount of target D N A present in an original sample. In the triple sugar iron test the reaction of hydrogen sulphide produced by bacteria with ferrous iron in the medium produces - ✔✔blackening of the agar Thayer Martin medium is a selective medium used for the clinical isolation of - ✔✔Neisseria gonorrhoeae Beta hemolysis on blood agar indicates - ✔✔complete hemolysis In a dipstick nucleic acid assay, dual reporter and capture probes are used. The capture probe - ✔✔binds to the dipstick During an infection with Salmonella enterica Serovar Typhi (typhoid fever) as the antibody titre increases - ✔✔bacteria are cleared from the blood T/F? Monoclonal antibodies are directed to a number of different epitopes on a bacterial antigen. - ✔✔false - bind to one epitope In a passive (indirect) agglutination test - ✔✔antibodies or antigens are absorbed or chemically coupled to cells or insoluble particles such as latex beads A Western blot usually involves - ✔✔protein The most prevalent STI globally is - ✔✔Chlamydia trachomatis Neisseria gonorrhoeae is a - ✔✔Gram-negative diplococcus The current treatment for gonorrhea is - ✔✔Combination therapy with ceftrixone and azithromycin Gonorrhea can be diagnosed by - ✔✔- nucleic acid amplification tests - Biochemichal tests - Gran stain, esp in men syphilis - ✔✔ What is a typical symptom of secondary syphilis - ✔✔generalized skin rash Which drugs would you use to treat penicillin-resistant Neisseria gonorrhoeae? - ✔✔ceftriaxone plus aszithromycin For a disease to become a pandemic, it must - ✔✔initially start out as an epidemic and have widespread infections. The incidence of BOTH fatal and nonfatal diseases in a population is called - ✔✔morbidity An endemic disease - ✔✔is constantly present in the populace. The prevalence of a disease is - ✔✔the total number of both new and existing cases. A disease that primarily infects an animal but is occasionally transmitted to humans is called a(n) - ✔✔zoonosis. Carriers contribute to the spread of which diseases? - ✔✔Hepatitis Typhoid fever HIV A disease outbreak that has a large number of cases diagnosed in a very short period of time is characteristic of - ✔✔a common source epidemic COVID-19 is primarily transmitted through - ✔✔aerosol droplet spread The region of the world with the highest burden of disease as measured by DALYs is - ✔✔sub-Saharan Africa