Mn 553 nursing exam questions with 100%verified answers graded a+, Exams of Nursing

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High-dose oral amoxicillin Benzathine penicillin G IM Factoring in the cost to the patient of the medication prescribed Mn 553 nursing exam questions with 100%verified answers graded a+ Saved Conjunctivitis in a child that is accompanied by acute otitis media is treated with: Question 1 options: Sulfacetamide 10% ophthalmic solution (Bleph-10) Bacitracin/polymyxin B (Polysporin) ophthalmic drops Ciprofloxacin (Ciloxan) ophthalmic drops Question 2 (4 points) Saved The drug of choice for treatment of early latent or tertiary syphilis is: Question 2 options: Ceftriaxone IM Oral azithromycin Oral ciprofloxacin Question 3 (4 points) Saved Clinical judgment in prescribing includes: Question 3 options: Always prescribing the newest medication available for the disease process Handing out drug samples to poor patients Prescribing all generic medications to cut costs Question 4 (4 points) Saved When considering which cholesterol-lowering drug to prescribe, which factor determines the type and intensity of treatment? Question 4 options: Coronary artery disease risk level Salmeterol, an inhaled long-acting beta-agonist Percentage of fat differs between genders. Azithromycin Mn 553 nursing exam questions with 100%verified answers graded a+ Total LDL Fasting HDL Fasting total cholesterol Question 5 (4 points) Saved Harold, a 42-year-old African American, has moderate persistent asthma. Which of the following asthma medications should be used cautiously, if at all? Question 5 options: Betamethasone, an inhaled corticosteroid Albuterol, a short-acting beta-agonist Montelukast, a leukotriene modifier Question 6 (4 points) Saved A client asks the NP about the differences in drug effects between men and women. What is known about the differences between the pharmacokinetics of men and women? Question 6 options: Body temperature varies between men and women. Muscle mass is greater in women. Proven subjective factors exist between the genders. Question 7 (4 points) Saved The first-line drug choice for a previously healthy adult patient diagnosed with community-acquired pneumonia would be: Question 7 options: Ciprofloxacin Mn 553 nursing exam questions with 100%verified answers graded a+ Isolation of the patient to prevent spread of the dermatitis Question 15 (4 points) Jamison has been prescribed citalopram (Celexa) to treat his depression. Education regarding how quickly selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) antidepressants work would be: Question 15 options: Appetite and concentration improve in the first 1 to 2 weeks. Sleep should improve almost immediately upon starting citalopram. Full response to the SSRI may take 2 to 4 months after he reaches the full therapeutic dose. His dysphoric mood will improve in 1 to 2 weeks. Question 16 (4 points) Sook has been prescribed gabapentin to treat neuropathic pain and is complaining of feeling depressed and having “strange” thoughts. The appropriate initial action would be: Question 16 options: Increase her dose Assess for suicidal ideation Discontinue the medication immediately Decrease her dose to half then slowly titrate up the dose Question 17 (4 points) Which of the following holds true for the pharmacokinetics of women? Question 17 options: Gastric emptying is faster than that of men. Organ blood flow is the same as that of men. Evidence is strong concerning renal differences in elimination. Medications that involve binding globulins are impacted by estrogen levels. Question 18 (4 points) Opiates are used mainly to treat moderate to severe pain. Which of the following is NOT true about these drugs? Mn 553 nursing exam questions with 100%verified answers graded a+ Question 18 options: All opiates are scheduled drugs which require a DEA license to prescribe. Opiates stimulate only mu receptors for the control of pain. Most of the adverse effects of opiates are related to mu receptor stimulation. Naloxone is an antagonist to opiates. Question 19 (4 points) The role of the NP in the use of herbal medication is to: Question 19 options: Maintain competence in the prescribing of common herbal remedies Recommend common over-the-counter herbs to patients Educate patients and guide them to appropriate sources of care Encourage patients to not use herbal therapy due to the documented dangers Question 20 (4 points) Gender differences between men and women in pharmacokinetics include: Question 20 options: More rapid gastric emptying so that drugs absorbed in the stomach have less exposure to absorption sites Higher proportion of body fat so that lipophilic drugs have relatively greater volumes of distribution Increased levels of bile acids so that drugs metabolized in the intestine have higher concentrations Slower organ blood flow rates so drugs tend to take longer to be excreted Question 21 (4 points) Jim is being treated for hypertension. Because he has a history of heart attack, the drug chosen is atenolol. Beta blockers treat hypertension by: Question 21 options: Increasing heart rate to improve cardiac output Reducing vascular smooth muscle tone Increasing aldosterone-mediated volume activity Reducing aqueous humor production Question 22 (4 points) Mn 553 nursing exam questions with 100%verified answers graded a+ Howard is a 72-year-old male who occasionally takes diphenhydramine for his seasonal allergies. Monitoring for this patient taking diphenhydramine would include assessing for: Question 22 options: Urinary retention Cardiac output Peripheral edema Skin rash Question 23 (4 points) All of the following statements about the Beer’s List are true except: Question 23 options: It is a list of medications or medication classes that should generally be avoided in persons 65 years or older because they are either ineffective or they pose unnecessarily high risk for older persons and a safer alternative is available. It is derived from the expert opinion of one geriatrician and is not evidence-based. These criteria have been adopted by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services for regulation of long-term care facilities. These criteria are directed at the general population of patients over 65 years of age and do not take disease states into consideration. Question 24 (4 points) Henry is 82 years old and takes two aspirin every morning to treat the arthritis pain in his back. He states the aspirin helps him to “get going” each day. Lately he has had some heartburn from the aspirin. After ruling out an acute GI bleed, what would be an appropriate course of treatment for Henry? Question 24 options: Add an H2 blocker such as ranitidine to his therapy. Discontinue the aspirin and switch him to Vicodin for the pain. Decrease the aspirin dose to one tablet daily. Have Henry take an antacid 15 minutes before taking the aspirin each day. Question 25 (4 points) Mn 553 nursing exam questions with 100%verified answers graded a+ If a patient with symptoms of gastroesophageal reflux disease states that he has been self-treating at home with OTC ranitidine daily, the appropriate treatment would be: Question 32 options: Prokinetic (metoclopramide) for 4 to 8 weeks Proton pump inhibitor (omeprazole) for 12 weeks Histamine2 receptor antagonist (ranitidine) for 4 to 8 weeks Cytoprotective drug (misoprostol) for 2 weeks Question 33 (4 points) A laboratory result indicates that the peak level for a drug is above the minimum toxic concentration. This means that the: Question 33 options: Concentration will produce therapeutic effects Concentration will produce an adverse response Time between doses must be shortened Duration of action of the drug is too long Question 34 (4 points) ACE inhibitors are contraindicated in pregnancy. While treatment of heart failure during pregnancy is best done by a specialist, which of the following drug classes is considered to be safe, at least in the later parts of pregnancy? Question 34 options: Diuretics ARBs Beta blockers Nitrates Question 35 (4 points) The most cost-effective treatment for two or three impetigo lesions on the face is: Question 35 options: Mupirocin ointment Retapamulin (Altabax) ointment Mn 553 nursing exam questions with 100%verified answers graded a+ Topical clindamycin solution Oral amoxicillin/clavulanate (Augmentin) Question 36 (4 points) Disease states in addition to hypertension in which beta blockade is a compelling indication for the use of beta blockers include: Question 36 options: Heart failure Angina Myocardial infarction Dyslipidemia Question 37 (4 points) Male patients who should not be prescribed phosphodiesterase type 5 (PDE-5) inhibitors include: Question 37 options: Diabetics Those who have had an acute myocardial infarction in the past 6 months Patients who are deaf Patients under age 60 years of age Question 38 (4 points) Preventative therapy for cluster headaches includes: Question 38 options: Massage or relaxation therapy Ergotamine nightly before bed Intranasal lidocaine four times a day during “clusters” of headaches Propranolol (Inderal) daily Question 39 (4 points) The Best Pharmaceuticals for Children Act: Question 39 options: Includes a pediatric exclusivity rule which extends the patent on drugs studied in children Establishes a committee that writes guidelines for pediatric prescribing Mn 553 nursing exam questions with 100%verified answers graded a+ Provides funding for new drug development aimed at children Encourages manufacturers specifically to develop pediatric formulations Question 40 (4 points) Rabi is being prescribed phenytoin for seizures. Monitoring includes assessing: Question 40 options: For phenytoin hypersensitivity syndrome 3 to 8 weeks after starting treatment For pedal edema throughout therapy Heart rate at each visit and consider altering therapy if heart rate is less than 60 bpm For vision changes, such as red-green blindness, at least annually Question 41 (4 points) Patients who are on chronic long-term proton pump inhibitor therapy require monitoring for: Question 41 options: Iron deficiency anemia, vitamin B12 and calcium deficiency Folate and magnesium deficiency Elevated uric acid levels leading to gout Hypokalemia and hypocalcemia Question 42 (4 points) Which diuretic agents typically do not need potassium supplementation? Question 42 options: The loop diuretics The thiazide diuretics The aldosterone inhibitors They all need supplementation Question 43 (4 points) Patients who are prescribed exogenous androgens need to be warned that decreased libido: Question 43 options: Is an unusual side effect of androgens and should be reported to the provider Mn 553 nursing exam questions with 100%verified answers graded a+ Precautions that should be taken when prescribing controlled substances include: Question 51 options: Faxing the prescription for a Schedule II drug directly to the pharmacy Using tamper-proof paper for all prescriptions written for controlled drugs Keeping any pre-signed prescription pads in a locked drawer in the clinic Using only numbers to indicate the amount of drug to be prescribed Question 52 (4 points) Patients who have a poor metabolism phenotype will have: Question 52 options: Slowed metabolism of a prodrug into an active drug, leading to accumulation of Prodrug Accumulation of inactive metabolites of drugs A need for increased dosages of medications Increased elimination of an active drug Question 53 (4 points) The drug of choice for type 2 diabetics is metformin. Metformin: Question 53 options: Decreases glycogenolysis by the liver Increases the release of insulin from beta cells Increases intestinal uptake of glucose Prevents weight gain associated with hyperglycemia Question 54 (4 points) Rose is a 3-year-old patient with an upper respiratory infection (URI). Treatment for her URI would include: Question 54 options: Amoxicillin Diphenhydramine Pseudoephedrine Nasal saline spray Question 55 (4 points) Mn 553 nursing exam questions with 100%verified answers graded a+ Sally has been prescribed aspirin 320 mg per day for her atrial fibrillation. She also takes aspirin four or more times a day for arthritis pain. What are the symptoms of aspirin toxicity for which she would need to be evaluated? Question 55 options: Tinnitus Diarrhea Hearing loss Photosensitivity Question 56 (4 points) Elena Vasquez’s primary language is Spanish, and she speaks very limited English. Which technique would be appropriate to use in teaching her about a new drug you have just prescribed? Question 56 options: Use correct medical terminology because Spanish has a Latin base. Use a family member who speaks more English to act as an interpreter. Use a professional interpreter or a reliable staff member who can act as an interpreter. Use careful, detailed explanations. Question 57 (4 points) Drugs that have a significant first-pass effect: Question 57 options: Must be given by the enteral (oral) route only Bypass the hepatic circulation Are rapidly metabolized by the liver and may have little if any desired action Are converted by the liver to more active and fat-soluble forms Question 58 (4 points) If an adult patient with comorbidities cannot reliably take oral antibiotics to treat pneumonia, an appropriate initial treatment option would be: Question 58 options: Mn 553 nursing exam questions with 100%verified answers graded a+ IV or IM gentamicin IV or IM ceftriaxone IV amoxicillin IV ciprofloxacin Question 59 (4 points) The Combat Methamphetamine Epidemic Act, which is part of the 2006 U.S. Patriot Act: Question 59 options: Requires all providers to screen their patients for methamphetamine use Restricts the prescribing of amphetamines to U.S. citizens Requires a prescription be written for all methamphetamine precursors in all states Restricts the sales of drugs that contain methamphetamine precursors, including a daily and 30-day limit on sales Question 60 (4 points) Absolute contraindications that clinicians must consider when initiating estrogen therapy include: Question 60 options: Undiagnosed dysfunctional uterine bleeding Deep vein or arterial thromboemboli within the prior year Endometriosis Both a. and b. All of the above Question 61 (4 points) Education of women who are being treated with ophthalmic antibiotics for conjunctivitis includes: Question 61 options: Throwing away eye makeup and purchasing new Redness and intense burning is normal with ophthalmic antibiotics When applying eye ointment, set the tip of the tube on the lower lid and squeeze in inch Use a cotton swab to apply ointment, spreading the ointment all over the lid and in the conjunctival sac Question 62 (4 points) Mn 553 nursing exam questions with 100%verified answers graded a+ Nurse practitioner prescriptive authority is regulated by: Question 69 options: The National Council of State Boards of Nursing The U.S. Drug Enforcement Administration The State Board of Nursing for each state The State Board of Pharmacy Question 70 (4 points) Laboratory values are actually different for TSH when screening for thyroid issues and when used for medication management. Which of the follow holds true? Question 70 options: Screening TSH has a wider range of normal values 0.02-5.0; therapeutic levels need to remain above 5.0. Screening values are much narrower than the acceptable range used to keep a person stable on hormone replacement. Therapeutic values are kept between 0.05 and 3.0 ideally. Screening values are considered acceptable up to 10. Screening values are between 5 and 10, and therapeutic values are greater than 10. Question 71 (4 points) The first-line therapy for mild-persistent asthma is: Question 71 options: High-dose montelukast Theophylline Low-dose inhaled corticosteroids Long-acting beta-2-agonists Question 72 (4 points) According to the U.S. Office of Minority Health, poor health outcomes among African Americans are attributed to: Question 72 options: The belief among African Americans that prayer is more powerful than drugs Poor compliance on the part of the African American patient The genetic predisposition for illness found among African Americans Discrimination, cultural barriers, and lack of access to health care Mn 553 nursing exam questions with 100%verified answers graded a+ Question 73 (4 points) Chee is a 15-month-old male whose screening hemoglobin is 10.4 g/dL. Treatment for his anemia would be: Question 73 options: 18 mg/day of iron supplementation 6 mg/kg per day of elemental iron 325 mg ferrous sulfate per day 325 mg ferrous sulfate tid Question 74 (4 points) Several classes of drugs have interactions with cholinergic blockers. Which of the following is true about these interactions? Question 74 options: Drugs with a narrow therapeutic range given orally may not stay in the GI tract long enough to produce an action. Additive antimuscarinic effects may occur with antihistamines. Cholinergic blockers may decrease the sedative effects of hypnotics. Cholinergic blockers are contraindicated with antipsychotics. Question 75 (4 points) Education for patients who use an inhaled beta-agonist and an inhaled corticosteroid includes: Question 75 options: Use the inhaled corticosteroid first, followed by the inhaled beta-agonists. Use the inhaled beta-agonist first, followed by the inhaled corticosteroid. Increase fluid intake to 3 liters per day. Avoid use of aspirin or ibuprofen while using inhaled medications. Question 76 (4 points) Alterations in drug metabolism among Asians may lead to: Question 76 options: Slower metabolism of antidepressants, requiring lower doses Faster metabolism of neuroleptics, requiring higher doses Mn 553 nursing exam questions with 100%verified answers graded a+ Altered metabolism of omeprazole, requiring higher doses Slower metabolism of alcohol, requiring higher doses Question 77 (4 points) When a pharmacoeconomic analysis looks at two or more treatment alternatives that are considered equal in efficacy and compares the costs of each it is referred to as: Question 77 options: Cost-minimization analysis Cost-of-illness analysis Cost-effectiveness analysis Cost-benefit analysis Question 78 (4 points) When determining drug treatment the NP prescriber should: Question 78 options: Always use evidence-based guidelines Individualize the drug choice for the specific patient Rely on his or her experience when prescribing for complex patients Use the newest drug on the market for the condition being treated Question 79 (4 points) Which of the following is a primary benefit of the use of computerized provider order entry for patient medications? Question 79 options: Reduces time that prescribing drugs takes Eliminates the need to chart drugs prescribed Decreases prescribing and transcription errors Helps keep the number of drugs prescribed to a minimum Question 80 (4 points) Goals when treating tuberculosis include: Question 80 options: Completion of recommended therapy Negative purified protein derivative at the end of therapy Mn 553 nursing exam questions with 100%verified answers graded a+ Question 88 (4 points) The reason that two MMR vaccines at least a month apart are recommended is: Question 88 options: The second dose of MMR “boosts” the immunity built from the first dose. Two vaccines 1 month apart is the standard dosing for all live virus vaccines. If the two MMR vaccine doses are given too close together there is a greater likelihood of severe localized reaction to the vaccine. Only 95% of patients are fully immunized for measles after the first vaccine, with 99% having immunity after two doses of MMR. Question 89 (4 points) IV forms of bisphosphonates are used for all the following except: Question 89 options: Severe gastric irritation with oral forms Known cancer mets into the bone Persons with advancing renal dysfunction Progression of bone loss on oral formulations Question 90 (4 points) Vicky, age 56 years, comes to the clinic requesting a refill of her Fiorinal (aspirin and butalbital) that she takes for migraines. She has been taking this medication for over 2 years for migraines and states one dose usually works to abort her migraine. What is the best care for her? Question 90 options: Switch her to sumatriptan (Imitrex) to treat her migraines. Assess how often she is using Fiorinal and refill her medication. Switch her to a beta blocker such as propranolol to prevent her migraine. Request she return to the original prescriber of Fiorinal as you do not prescribe butalbital for migraines. Question 91 (4 points) Mn 553 nursing exam questions with 100%verified answers graded a+ When discussing with a patient the different start methods used for oral combined contraceptives, the advantage of a Sunday start over the other start methods is: Question 91 options: Immediate protection against pregnancy the first week of using the pill No back-up method is needed when starting Menses occur during the week They can start the pill on the Sunday after the office visit Question 92 (4 points) When prescribing a tetracycline or quinolone antibiotic it is critical to instruct the patient: Question 92 options: Not to take their regularly prescribed medications while on these antibiotics Regarding the need for lots of acidic foods and juices, such as orange juice, to enhance absorption Not to take antacids while on these medications, as the antacid decreases absorption That there are no drug interactions with these antibiotics Question 93 (4 points) Lisa is a healthy nonpregnant adult woman who recently had a urinary tract infection (UTI). She is asking about drinking cranberry juice to prevent a recurrence of the UTI. The correct answer to give her would be: Question 93 options: Sixteen ounces per day of cranberry juice cocktail will prevent UTIs. 100% cranberry juice or cranberry juice extract may decrease UTIs in some patients. There is no evidence that cranberry juice helps prevent UTIs. Cranberry juice only works to prevent UTIs in children. Question 94 (4 points) Patient education regarding taking iron replacements includes: Question 94 options: Doubling the dose if they miss a dose to maintain therapeutic levels Taking the iron with milk or crackers if it upsets their stomach Iron is best taken on an empty stomach with juice Mn 553 nursing exam questions with 100%verified answers graded a+ Antacids such as Tums may help the upset stomach caused by iron therapy Question 95 (4 points) Developmental variation in renal function has what impact on prescribing for infants and children? Question 95 options: Lower doses of renally excreted drugs may be prescribed to infants younger than age 6 months. Higher doses of water soluble drugs may need to be prescribed because of increased renal excretion. Renal excretion rates have no impact on prescribing. Parents need to be instructed on whether drugs are renally excreted or not. Question 96 (4 points) Instructions for the use of nicotine gum include: Question 96 options: Chew the gum quickly to get a peak effect. The gum should be “parked” in the buccal space between chewing. Acidic drinks such as coffee help with the absorption of the nicotine. The highest abstinence rates occur if the patient chews the gum when he or she is having cravings. Question 97 (4 points) Varenicline (Chantix) may be prescribed for tobacco cessation. Instructions to the patient who is starting varenicline include: Question 97 options: The maximum time varenicline can be used is 12 weeks. Nausea is a sign of varenicline toxicity and should be reported to the provider. The starting regimen for varenicline is start taking 1 mg twice a day a week before the quit date. Neuropsychiatric symptoms may occur. Question 98 (4 points) Leonard is completing a 6-month regimen to treat tuberculosis (TB). Monitoring of a patient on TB therapy includes: Question 98 options: Monthly sputum cultures Monthly chest x-ray Bronchoscopy every 3 months