MN DENTAL JURISPRUDENCE EXAM Questions and Answers Latest Updates 2024 GRADE A+., Exams of Nursing

Download MN DENTAL JURISPRUDENCE EXAM Questions and Answers Latest Updates 2024 GRADE A+. and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! MN DENTAL JURISPRUDENCE EXAM Questions and Answers Latest Updates 2024 GRADE A+ TERMS - Answer __________ person - Answer includes an individual, corporation, partnership, or any other legal entity state - Answer when used in reference to a state other than MN, means any other state of the U.S., District of Columbia, and the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico CODA stands for - Answer Commission on Dental Accreditation Dental health care personnel (DHCP) - Answer individuals who work in a dental practice who may be exposed to body fluids such as blood or saliva assistant - Answer any person who assists a dentist in carrying out the basic duties of a dental office health care facility, program, or nonprofit organization includes - Answer hospital; nursing home; home health agency; group home serving the elderly, disabled, or juveniles; state operated facility licensed by the commissioner of human health services or the commissioner of corrections; federal, state, or local public health facility, community clinic, tribal clinic, school authority, head start program, or nonprofit organization that saves individuals who are uninsured or who are MN health care public program recipients General supervision - Answer The dentist has prior knowledge and has given consent for the procedures being performed during which the dentist is not required to be present in the dental office or on the premises Indirect supervision - Answer The dentist is in the office, authorizes the procedures, and remains in the office while the procedures are being performed by the allied dental personnel Direct supervision - Answer The dentist is in the dental office, personally diagnoses the condition to be treated, personally authorizes the procedure, and before dismissal of the patient, evaluates the performance of the allied dental personnel Personal Supervision - Answer The dentist is personally operating on a patient and authorizes the allied dental personnel to aid in treatment by concurrently performing supportive procedures Public health supervision - Answer A type of supervision in which a licensed dental hygienist may provide dental hygiene services, as specified by state law or regulations, when such services are provided as part of an organized community program in various public health settings, as designated by state law, and with general oversight of such programs by a licensed dentist designated by the state Medical emergency - Answer Medically necessary care which is immediately needed to preserve life, prevent serious impairment to bodily functions, organs, or parts, or prevent placing the physical or mental health of the patient in serious injury Patient - Answer A natural person who has received healthcare services from a provider for the treatment or examination of a medical, psychiatric, or mental condition, the surviving spouse & parents of a deceased patient or a person that the patient appoints in writing as a representative for minors: patient includes a parent or guardian or a person acting as a parent or guardian in the absence of a parent or guardian analgesia - Answer the diminution or elimination of pain as a result of the administration of an agent including but not limited to local anesthesia, nitrous oxide, & pharmacological & nonpharmalogical methods anxiolysis/minimal sedation - Answer has to do w/sedation; a relaxed state & usually the patient is awake; patient can follow directions or answer questions Deep sedation - Answer a depressed level of consciousness produced by a pharmacological or nonpharmological method or a combination of both during which patients can't be easily aroused but respond purposefully following repeated or painful stimulation; characterized by impairment of the patients ability to independently maintain ventilatory function, spontaneous ventilation potentially being inadequate to meet a patients needs & the need for assistance in maintaining a patients airway; patients cardiovascular function doesn't typically require assistance Enteral - Answer A technique of administration in which the agent is ABSORBED through the gastrointestinal tract or oral mucosa such as w/ oral, rectal, or sublingual administration General anesthesia - Answer An induced state of unconsciousness produced by a pharmacological or nonpharmacological method or combination during which patients are not arousable even by painful stimulation; characterized by the frequent impairment of the patient's need for assistance in maintaining a patent airway, the need for (+) pressure ventilation due to depressed spontaneous ventilation or drug induced depression of neuromuscular function, & potential impairment of cardiovascular function Inhalation - Answer A technique of administration in which the gaseous or volatile is introduced into the pulmonary tree & whose primary effect is due to absorption through the pulmonary bed requirements/scope of practice of a resident dentist - Answer ~obtain from the board a license to practice dentistry as a resident dentist (must be designated "resident license dentist") ~authorizes the licensee to practice dentistry only under the supervision of a licensed dentist ~license must be renewed annually does a resident dentist license qualify a person for licensure? - Answer no Resident dental provider scope of practice - Answer ~License is to practice as a resident hygienist or DT & license must be designated "resident dental provider license" ~licensee can only practice under the supervision of a licensed dentist or DT DT - Answer a person of good moral character who has graduated w/a bachelor or masters degree from a dental therapy education program that has been approved by the board per accredited by CODA or another board approved national accreditation organization Practice of Dental therapy (DT) - Answer 1) works under the supervision of a MN licensed dentist under a collaborative management agreement 2) practices in settings that serve low income, uninsured, & underserved patients or are located in dental health professional shortage areas 3) provides oral health care services including oral evaluation & assessment; educational, palliative, therapeutic, & restorative services within the context of the collaborative management agreement DH - Answer a person of good moral character who has graduated from a dental hygiene program (must be a minimum of 2 years) accredited by CODA & established by the U.S. department of education to offer college level programs Practice of Dental Hygienists - Answer 1) provide care that's educational, preventative, & therapeutic through observation, assessment, evaluation, counseling, and therapeutic services to establish & maintain oral health 2) evaluates patient health status through review of medical & dental histories, assess & plans dental hygiene care needs, performs a prophylaxis including complete removal of calculus deposits, accretions, & stains by scaling, polishing, & performs root planing & debridement 3)administers local anesthesia & nitrous oxide inhalation analgesia 4) provides other services as permitted by rules of the board Exemptions/exceptions to the practice of dentistry - Answer 1) dentist or DH in any branch of the armed services of the U.S., the U.S. public health service, or the U.S. veterans administration 2) any dental students attending an accredited school by the Commission on Dental Accreditation (CODA)when acting under indirect supervision of a MN licensed dentist & under instruction of a licensed dentist, DT, DH, or DA 3) practice of licensees from other states or countries while appearing as clinicians under the auspices of a duly approved dental school/college o a reputable dental society/club 4) people taking exams for licensure administered or approved by the board 5) dentists & DH licensed by the states during their functioning as examiners responsible for conducting licensing exams 6) use of x-rays or other diagnostic imaging modalities from making radiographs or other similar records in a hospital under the supervision of a physician or dentist or someone accredited in diagnostic imaging 7) those under a written work order by a DDS or ADT to construct, alter, repair, or duplicate a denture, partial dentures, crown, bridge, splint, ortho, prosthetic or other dental appliance DA - Answer a person of good moral character who has graduated from a dental assisting program accredited by CODA T/F a DA can take scans for Invisalign under indirect supervision - Answer True who has the authority to administer influenza vaccines - Answer the dentist what is the limitations on a dentist administering the flu vaccine - Answer can only be administered to patients 19 & older what are the requirements/regulations for dentists administering the flu vaccine - Answer 1) immediate access to emergency response equipment (must include oxygen, epinephrine, & other allergic rxn response equipment) 2) trained or have successfully completed a program approved by the MN Board of Dentistry in administration of vaccines 3) must comply with guidelines established by the federal advisory committee on immunization practices relating to vaccines 4) after dentist has administered, must report the administration of the immunization to the MN immunization information connection or notify the patients primary physician or clinic what must the training for administering immunizations include - Answer 1) education material on the disease and vaccination as a method of disease prevention 2) contraindications & precautions 3) intramuscular administration 4) communication of risks & benefits; legal requirements 5) reporting of adverse events 6) documentation required by federal law 7) storage & handling of vaccines what must a faculty member who practices dentistry before beginning duties in a school of dentistry or dental program do? - Answer apply for a limited or full faculty license Can a faculty dentist practice dentistry if they're not licensed? - Answer no how long is a faculty license valid - Answer during the time the holder remains a faculty member at a dental school or within a dental program limited faculty dental license - Answer entitles the holder to practice dentistry within the school & its affiliated teaching facilities but ONLY for the purposes of teaching or conducting research (unless the dentist was a faculty member on Aug 1, 1993) a limited faculty license must be renewed - Answer Annually full faculty dental license - Answer entitles the holder to practice dentistry w/in the school & its affiliated teaching facilities & elsewhere if the license holder is employed 50% or more by the school in the practice of teaching or research & upon successful review by the board of the applicants qualifications a full faculty license must be renewed - Answer Biennially speciality dentists - Answer the board may grant 1 or more specialty licenses in the areas of speciality defined by the board; limited to practice in their specialty as designated by their specialty license applicants for a specialty license must - Answer 1) successfully completed a postdoctoral specialty program accredited by CODA or announced a limitation of practice before 1967 2) have been certified by a specialty board approved by the MN board of dentistry or provide evidence of passing a clinical exam for licensure required in another state or Canada; oral & maxillofacial surgeons must have a MN medical license in good standing 3) been in active practice or a postdoctoral educational program or U.S. government service AT LEAST 2,000 HRS IN THE 36 MONTHS PRIOR TO APPLYING 4) be interviewed by board committee (if requested) 5) present complete records of sample patients treated by the applicant (SAMPLE MUST BE DRAWN FROM PATIENTS TREATED DURING THE 36 MONTHS PRIOR TO APPLICATION; if requested) 6) pass board approved English proficiency test if English is not the applicants primary language 7) pass all components of the national board dental exams 8) pass MN jurisprudence exam 9) abide by professional ethical conduct requirements 10) meet all other requirements specified by the board T/F an applicant applying for a specialty license in oral & maxillofacial surgery must have a MN medical license in good standing - Answer true specialty dentist application requirements - Answer 1) completed app from the board 2) at least 2 character references from 2 different dentists for each specialty area (1 from a dentist practicing in same specialty area & 1 from the director of each specialty program attended) 3) a licensed physicians statement attesting to the applicants physical & mental condition 4) statement from licensed ophthalmologist or optometrist attesting to applicants visual accuracy 5) app fee 7) pulptomies of primary teeth 8) indirect & direct pulp capping on primary & permanent teeth 9) stabilization of reimplemented teeth 10) extractions of primary teeth 11) suture removal 12) brush biopsy 13) repair of defective prosthetic devices 14) recementing of permanent crowns What drugs can a DT dispense under a collaborative management agreement with a dentist? - Answer analgesics, anti-inflammatories, & antibiotics T/F a licensed DT can dispense or administer narcotic drugs - Answer false ADT certification requirements - Answer 1) complete a DT education program 2) pass an exam to demonstrate competency under the DT scope of practice 3) be a licensed DT 4) complete 2,000 hrs of DT clinical practice under direct or indirect supervision 5) graduate from a masters ADT program 6) pass a board approved certification exam to demonstrate competency under ADT scope of practice 7) submit app & fee What distinguishes an ADT's scope of practice from a DT's scope of practice? - Answer An ADT can 1)conduct an oral evaluation & assessment of dental disease & the formation of an individualized treatment plan authorized by the collaborating dentist (general supervision) 2) perform nonsurgical extractions of periodontally diseased permanent teeth w/ tooth mobility of +3 to +4 if authorized in advance by the dentist 3) can administer & dispense analgesics, anti inflammatories, & antibiotics including the authority to dispense sample drugs (of course, the ADT can perform the same duties as a DT as well) T/F A ADT can extract a tooth for any patient if the patient if the tooth is unerupted, impacted, fractured, or needs to be sectioned for removal - Answer false What is required of licensees who have the authority to prescribe opioids and other controlled substances? - Answer licensees must obtain at least 2 hrs of continuing education credit during each renewal period on best practices in prescribing opioids & controlled substances including nonpharmalogical & implamentable device alternatives for treatment of pain & ongoing pain management T/F A DT, DH, or LDA can administer general anesthesia, deep sedation, moderate sedation, or minimal sedation - Answer false general anesthesia or deep sedation educational training requirements - Answer 1) a didactic & clinical program at a board accredited dental school, hospital, or graduate medical or dental program resulting in the dentist becoming clinically competent in the administration of general anesthesia (program must be equivalent to a program for advanced specialty education in oral & maxillofacial surgery) OR a 1 yr residency in general anesthesia at an institution certified by the American society of anesthesiology, the American medical association, or the joint commission on hospital accreditation resulting in the dentist becoming clinically competent in the administration of general anesthesia (residency must include a minimum of 390 hrs of didactic study, 1,040 hrs of clinical anesthesiology, & 260 cases of administration of anesthesia to an ambulatory outpatient) 2) ACLS or PALS course w/ continued certification 3) CPR certification w/continued certification what must a dentist who administers general anesthesia/deep sedation or moderate sedation be prepared & competent to do? - Answer diagnose, resolve, & reasonably prevent any untoward reaction or medical emergency that may develop any time after the administration. Dentist shall apply current standard of care to continuously monitor & evaluate a patients bp, pulse, respiratory function (requires the monitoring of tissue oxygenation or the use of a superior method of monitoring), & cardiac activity How should a dentist administer general anesthesia/deep sedation or moderate sedation? - Answer only by the application of the appropriate systems & drugs for the delivery of general anesthesia/deep sedation T/F Prior to the discharge of a patient under general anesthesia/deep sedation or moderate sedation, a dentist must assess the patient to ensure the patient is no longer at risk for cardiorespiratory depression - Answer true T/F A patient who was given general anesthesia/deep sedation or moderate sedation is able to take care of themselves after discharge - Answer false; a patient must be discharged into the care of a responsible adult moderate sedation educational training requirements - Answer 1) a course resulting in the dentist becoming clinically competent to administer moderate sedation & documentation from the instructor on successful completion to be submitted to the board ***must include a minimum of 60 hrs of didactic education in bother enteral & parenteral administration; personally administering & managing at least 10 individual supervised cases of parenteral moderate sedation (max of 5 cases can be performed on a patient simulated manikin) 2) ACLS or PALS course w/continued certification 3) CPR certification w/continued certification What is required of dentists, DT, DH, & LDA to administer nitrous oxide inhalation analgesia? - Answer ~CPR certification & continued certification ~must only use fail-safe anesthesia equipment capable of (+) pressure respiration ~satisfactory completion of a course on the administration of nitrous oxide inhalation analgesia from a board accredited institution & submit original documentation to the board ***must be a minimum of 12 hrs of didactic instruction; personally administering & managing at least 3 individual supervised cases of analgesia; supervised clinical experience using fail safe anesthesia equipment capable of (+) pressure respiration What is required of DT, DH, & LDA to administer nitrous oxide inhalation analgesia - Answer ~must be under the appropriate level of supervision by a dentist who is currently licensed & can administer nitrous oxide inhalation analgesia Does a dentist who is administrating general anesthesia/deep sedation, moderate sedation, or nitrous oxide inhalation analgesia need to inform the board? - Answer yes Can DH & LDA graduates prior to Sept. 2, 2004 administer nitrous oxide inhalation analgesia? - Answer yes but they must inform the board & provide the board w/ the name, address, & phone number of the accredited dental school/program in which they graduated; current CPR certification w/continued certification Can DT graduates prior to Aug. 1, 2013 administer nitrous oxide inhalation analgesia? - Answer yes but they must inform the board & provide the board w/ the name, address, & phone number of the accredited dental school/program in which they graduated; current CPR certification w/continued certification who can administer analgesia - Answer a dentist who is currently licensed to practice dentistry in MN who can administer minimal sedation - Answer a dentist who is currently licensed to practice dentistry in MN When must a dentist, DT, DH, or LDA report to the board of any incident that arises from the administration of nitrous oxide inhalation analgesia, general sedation/deep sedation, moderate sedation, local anesthesia, analgesia, or minimal sedation? - Answer ~a serious or unusual outcome that produces a temporary or permanent physiological injury, harm, or other detrimental effect to 1 or more of a patients body systems ~minimal sedation unintentionally becoming moderate sedation or deep sedation/general anesthesia when the licensee doesn't have a certificate for administering general anesthesia or moderate sedation how long does a dentist, DT, DH, or LDA have to report to the board of any incident that arises from the administration of nitrous oxide inhalation analgesia, general sedation/deep sedation, moderate sedation, local anesthesia, analgesia, or minimal sedation? - Answer with/in 10 business days of the incident T/F a dentist can not administer general anesthesia/deep sedation or moderate sedation unless the dentist possess a general anesthesia or moderate sedation certificate from the board - Answer true general anesthesia certificate from the board - Answer authorizes a dentists to administer general anesthesia/deep sedation, moderate sedation, or to provide dental services to patients under general anesthesia/deep sedation or moderate ~monitor a patient who has been induced by a dentist into nitrous oxide inhalation analgesia ~place initial arch wires on ortho appliances ~dry root canals w/paper points ~place cotton pellets & temporary restorative materials into endodontic access openings ~etch appropriate enamel surfaces; apply & adjust pit & fissure sealants (must have completed a course on pit & fissure sealants from an accredited school) ~restorative procedures if completed a board approved course on specific procedure includes: -place, contour, & adjust amalgam restorations -place, contour, & adjust glass ionomer -adapt & cement stainless steel crowns -place, contour, & adjust class I, II, & V supragingival composite restorations on primary & permanent teeth ~maintain & remove intravenous lines (must have completed a board approved course comprised of intravenous access & general anesthesia & moderate sedation training) ~monitor a patient during preop, intraop, & postop phases of general anesthesia or moderate sedation using noninvasive instrumentation such as pulse oximeters, electrocardiograms, bp monitors, & capnography (must have completed a board approved course comprised of intravenous access & general anesthesia & moderate sedation training) DIRECT SUPERVISION ~remove access bond material from ortho appliances ~remove bond material from teeth w/rotary instruments after removal of ortho appliances (must have completed a board approved course in the use of rotary instruments for the express purpose of the removal of bond material from teeth) ~etch appropriate enamel surfaces before bonding of ortho appliances by a dentist ~fabricate, cement, & adjust temporary restorations intraorally or extraorally ~remove temporary restorations w/HAND INSTRUMENTS ONLY ~place & remove matrix bands ~administer nitrous oxide inhalation analgesia ~attach prefit & preadjusted ortho appliances remove fixed ortho bands & brackets ~initiate & place an intravenous line in preparation for intravenous medications & sedation for a dentist who holds a certificate in general anesthesia or moderate sedation (must have completed a board approved course comprised of intravenous access & general anesthesia & moderate sedation training) ~place nonsurgical retraction material for gingival displacement (must have completed a board approved course in nonsurgical retraction material for gingival displacement) PERSONAL SUPERVISION ~if the dentist holds a certificate in general anesthesia or moderate sedation & is personally treating a patient, an LDA can aid in the physical management of medications including the preparation & administration of medications into an existing intravenous line (must have completed a board approved course comprised of intravenous access & general anesthesia & moderate sedation training) limited license dental assistant permit delegated duty - Answer can take dental radiographs under general supervision if completed a board approved course & passing exam in radiographs DH delegated duties (all) - Answer ****for a DH to perform ortho duties, must either have graduated a DH program prior to Sept. 1, 2019 or if graduated after Sept. 1, 2019 DH program must also have included training in Ortho procedures & received a Ortho procedure certificate from school or successfully completed a board approved course in ortho procedures & received certificate from course sponsor! GENERAL SUPERVISION ~complete preliminary charting of the oral cavity & surrounding structures including case histories, initial & periodic exams & assessments to determine periodontal status; creation of a DH treatment plan in coordination w/dentists treatment plan ~take extraoral & intraoral photos ~take vital signs as directed by a dentist ~obtain informed consent ~make referrals to dentists, physicians, & other practitioners in consultation w/ the dentist ~complete debridement, prophylaxis, & nonsurgical periodontal therapy ~etch appropriate enamel surfaces; apply & adjust pit & fissure sealants ~administer local anesthesia (must have completed a didactic & clinical program sponsored by an accredited dental or DH school & results in the DH becoming clinically competent) ~administer nitrous oxide inhalation analgesia ~take radiographs ~apply topical medications including topical fluoride, bleaching agents, cavity varnishes, & desensitizing agents ~place sub gingival medicaments ~fabrication & delivery of custom fitted trays ~nutritional counseling ~salivary analysis ~remove marginal overhangs ~remove sutures ~place & remove periodontal dressings ~place & remove isolation devices or materials for restorative purposes ~polish restorations ~remove excess cement from inlays, onlays, crowns, bridges, or ortho appliances ~fabrication, placement, replacement, cementation, & adjustment of temporary crowns or restorations ~remove temporary crowns or restorations w/ HAND INSTRUMENTS ONLY ~place & remove matrix systems & wedges ~place nonsurgical retraction material for gingival displacement (must have completed a board approved course in nonsurgical retraction material for gingival displacement) ~cut arch wires on ortho appliances ~remove loose bands on ortho appliances ~remove loose brackets on ortho appliances ~remove access bond material from ortho appliances ~preselect ortho bands ~place & remove elastic ortho separators ~remove & place ligature ties & remove & replace existing arch wires on ortho appliances ~deliver vacuum formed ortho retainers INDIRECT SUPERVISON ~restorative procedures if completed a board approved course on specific procedure includes: -place, contour, & adjust amalgam restorations -place, contour, & adjust glass ionomer -adapt & cement stainless steel crowns -place, contour, & adjust class I, II, & V supragingival composite restorations on primary & permanent teeth ~place initial arch wires on ortho appliances ~maintain & remove intravenous lines (must have completed a board approved course comprised of intravenous access & general anesthesia & moderate sedation training) ~monitor a patient during preop, intraop, & postop phases of general anesthesia or moderate sedation using noninvasive instrumentation such as pulse oximeters, electrocardiograms, bp monitors, & capnography (must have completed a board approved course comprised of intravenous access & general anesthesia & moderate sedation training) DIRECT SUPERVISION ~etch appropriate enamel surfaces before bonding of ortho appliances by a dentist ~remove bond material from teeth w/rotary instruments after removal of ortho appliances ~attach prefit & prefitted ortho appliances ~remove fixed ortho bands & brackets ~initiate & place an intravenous line in preparation for intravenous medications & sedation for a dentist who holds a certificate in general anesthesia or moderate sedation (must have completed a board approved course comprised of intravenous access & general anesthesia & moderate sedation training) PERSONAL SUPERVISION ~if the dentist holds a certificate in general anesthesia or moderate sedation & is personally treating a patient, a DH can aid in the physical management of medications including the preparation & administration of medications into an existing intravenous line (must have completed a board approved course comprised of intravenous access & general anesthesia & moderate sedation training) T/F for a DH to perform ortho duties, must either have graduated a DH program prior to Sept. 1, 2019 or if graduated after Sept. 1, 2019 DH program must also have included training in Ortho procedures & received a Ortho procedure certificate from school or successfully completed a board approved course in ortho procedures & received certificate from course sponsor! - Answer true cut arch wires on ortho appliances - Answer LDA-general DH-general ADT-general apply pit & fissure sealants - Answer LDA-indirect DH-general DT-general ADT-general adjust pit & fissure sealants - Answer LDA-indirect DH-general DT-general ADT-general restorative procedures if completed a board approved course on specific procedure includes: - Answer -place, contour, & adjust amalgam restorations -place, contour, & adjust glass ionomer -adapt & cement stainless steel crowns -place, contour, & adjust class I, II, & V supragingival composite restorations on primary & permanent teeth LDA-indirect DH-indirect maintain & remove intravenous lines (must have completed a board approved course comprised of intravenous access & general anesthesia & moderate sedation training) ****DENTIST MUST HOLD A GENERAL ANESTHESIA OR MODERATE SEDATION CERTIFICATE - Answer LDA-indirect DH-indirect monitor a patient during preop, intraop, & postop phases of general anesthesia or moderate sedation using noninvasive instrumentation such as pulse oximeters, electrocardiograms, bp monitors, & capnography (must have completed a board approved course comprised of intravenous access & general anesthesia & moderate sedation training) ****DENTIST MUST HOLD A GENERAL ANESTHESIA OR MODERATE SEDATION CERTIFICATE - Answer LDA-indirect DH-indirect remove excess bond material from ortho appliances - Answer LDA-direct DH-general remove bond material from teeth w/rotary instruments after removal of ortho appliances - Answer LDA-direct DH-direct ***both must have board approved course etch appropriate enamel surfaces before bonding of ortho appliances by a dentist - Answer LDA-direct DH-direct Remove fixed ortho bands and brackets - Answer LDA-direct DH-direct initiate & place an intravenous line in preparation for intravenous medications & sedation for a dentist who holds a certificate in general anesthesia or moderate sedation (must have completed a board approved course comprised of intravenous access & general anesthesia & moderate sedation training) - Answer LDA-direct DH-direct place nonsurgical retraction material for gingival displacement (must have completed a board approved course in nonsurgical retraction material for gingival displacement) - Answer LDA-direct DH-general Perform preliminary charting of the oral cavity & surrounding structures to include case histories, perform initial & periodic exams & assessments to determine periodontal status & formulate a dental hygiene treatment plan in coordination w/ a dentist's treatment plan - Answer DH-general make referrals to dentists, physicians, & other practitioners in consultation w/a dentist - Answer DH-general ADT-generral obtain informed consent w/in the scope of practice - Answer DH-general LDA-general perform mechanical polishing to clinical crowns NOT INCLUDING INSTRUMENTATION (removal of calculus by instrumentation must be done by a dentist or DH before mechanical polishing) - Answer DH-general LDA-indirect complete debridement, prophylaxis, & nonsurgical periodontal therapy - Answer DH- general place sub gingival medicaments - Answer DH-general salivary analysis - Answer DH-general Administer nitrous oxide inhalation analgesia - Answer DH-general LDA-direct DT-general ADT-general monitor a patient who has been induced by a dentist into nitrous oxide inhalation analgesia - Answer DH-general LDA-indirect fabrication & delivery of custom fitted trays - Answer DH-general Remove marginal overhangs - Answer DH-general place & remove isolation devices or materials for restorative purposes - Answer DH- general place & remove matrix bands - Answer LDA-direct place & remove matrix systems & wedges - Answer DH-general T/F An LDA can replace temporary crowns or restorations - Answer false; an LDA can only fabricate, cement, & adjust under direct supervision Replacement of temporary crowns or restorations must be done by a dentist or a DH under general supervision place temporary fillings NOT including temporization of inlays, inlays, crowns, or bridges - Answer LDA-general recement intact temporary restorations - Answer LDA-general remove temporary crowns or restorations w/hand instruments only - Answer DH- general LDA-direct remove excess cement from inlays, onlays, crowns, bridges, or ortho appliances - Answer DH-general; must have Ortho certificate or board approve course to remove excess cement from ortho appliances if graduated in 2019 or later LDA-indirect (hand instruments only) polish restorations - Answer DH-general T/F An LDA can apply desensitizing agents - Answer false T/F if the dentist holds a certificate in general anesthesia or moderate sedation & is personally treating a patient, a LDA & a DH can aid in the physical management of medications including the preparation & administration of medications into an existing intravenous line (must have completed a board approved course comprised of intravenous access & general anesthesia & moderate sedation training) under personal supervision - Answer true Administer local anesthesia - Answer DH-general (must have completed a didactic & clinical program sponsored by an accredited dental or DH school & results in the DH becoming clinically competent) DT-general ADT-general apply desensitizing agents - Answer DH-general DT-general ADT-general minimum conditions for a dental office - Answer 1) premises must be kept neat & clean, free of rubbish, ponded water, or other conditions that would have a tendency to create a public health nuisance 2) housekeeping facilities & services utilized to ensure comfortable & sanitary conditions 3) office must be kept free of ants, flies, roaches, rodents, insects, or vermin 4) refuse must be kept in approved containers & emptied frequently 5) heating, lighting, & other service equipment must conform to state & local heating regulations & codes; individual room heaters must be kept away from combustible materials 6) water supply must be of a safe, sanitary quality from a source that's approved by the agent of a community health board; must be piper under pressure & according to required regulations 7) plumbing must be in compliance w/ all plumbing codes; hand w ashing stations must be located conveniently to working areas & must have soap, towels, & drain must be trapped & connected directly to the waste disposal system 8) disposal of liquid & human waste-all must be disposed through trap drains into a public sanitary sewer system 9) rooms must be clean 10) compliance w/ most up to date infection control standards 11) sharps & infectious waste disposed of according to MN statutes 12) hazardous waste requirements must be followed 13) ionizing radiation requirement compliance clinical practice location - Answer site at which a regulated person practices contaminated - Answer the presence or the reasonably anticipated presence of potentially infectious materials on an item or surface Decontamination - Answer the removal, inactivation, or destruction of HBV & HIV on a surface or item to the point where HBV &/or HIV are no longer capable of causing infection & the surface or item is rendered safe for barehanded touching, use, or disposal disinfection - Answer ~destroys MOST pathogenic and other microorganisms by physical or chemical means ~does not ensure the degree of safety associated with sterilization processes sterilization - Answer destroys ALL microorganisms, including substantial numbers of resistant bacterial spores, by heat (steam autoclave, dry heat, and unsaturated chemical vapor) or liquid chemical sterilants use surface Barries on - Answer light handles, back of patient chair, keyboards, drawer handles, radiograph equipment or any other surface thats hard to clean The ______________ regulates LOW & INTERMEDIATE LEVEL disinfectants - Answer Environmental protection agency (EPA) The _________________ regulates CHEMICAL STERILANTS/HIGH LEVEL disinfectants - Answer food & drug administration (FDA) Any disinfectant used in a dental setting should be registered by the ____________ and be approved for use in health care settings - Answer Environmental protection agency (EPA) digital radiograph sensors are considered - Answer semi critical What type of floors are NOT RECOMMENDED especially in patient treatment rooms/operatory - Answer carpeting Dental health care personnel should use water that meets environmental protection agency regulatory standards for drinking water - Answer ≤500 colony forming units (CFU)/mL Can dental unit waterlines (DUWL) transmit disease - Answer yes how long should air-water syringe be purged for to prevent disease transmission? - Answer 1 minute at the beginning of the day; 30s between patients exposure incident - Answer a person has eye, mucous membrane, non intact skin, or parenteral contact w/potentially infectious material at a clinical practice location DHCP should receive infection prevention training - Answer 1)When they are hired 2) When new procedures affect their occupational exposure 3) Annually 4) According to state or federal requirements high level disinfection - Answer the elimination of viability of all microorganisms except bacterial spores commissioner - Answer commissioner of health regulated person - Answer a licensed dentist, DH, dentist physician (dentist w/ medical license), or a registered dental assistant who currently practices HBV - Answer the hepatitis B virus with the e antigen present in the most recent blood test HCV - Answer the hepatitis C virus HIV - Answer the human immunodeficiency virus T/F A person with actual knowledge that a regulated person has been diagnosed as infected with HIV, HBV, or HCV may file a report with the commissioner - Answer true A dentist, LDA, DH, or a dental physician who's diagnosed w/ HIV, HBV, or HCV must report that information to the commissioner promptly & as soon as medically necessary for disease control purposes but no more than __________ days after learning of the diagnosis or becoming licensed or registered by the state - Answer 30 days A licensed dentist, LDA, DH, DT, or ADT shall within ____________, report to the board personal knowledge of a serious failure or pattern of failure by another dentist, LDA, DH, DT, ADT, or any person working in a dental facility to comply w/ accepted & prevailing infection control procedures relating to the prevention of HIV, HBV, or HCV transmission - Answer 10 days A board may refuse to grant a license or registration or may impose disciplinary or restrictive action against a licensee who - Answer 1) fails to follow accepted and prevailing infection control procedures, including a failure to conform to current recommendations of the Centers for Disease Control for preventing the transmission of HIV, HBV, and HCV, or fails to comply with infection control rules promulgated by the board. Injury to a patient need not be established; 2) fails to comply with infection control requirements 3) fails to comply with any monitoring or reporting requirement infection control monitoring contract between the commissioner & the board must include - Answer 1) board shall inform the commissioner of a licensee who is infected w/ HIV, IBV, or HCV 2) commissioner has a right to provide any information necessary to the board about a licensee infected w/ HIV, HBV, or HCV 3) board shall not take action on grounds relating solely to the HIV, HBV, or HCV status of a regulated person until after referral by the commissioner 4) board shall forward to the commissioner any information on a regulated person who is infected with HIV, HBV, or HCV that the department of health requests Monitoring plan for a regulated person infected w/ HIV, HBV, or HCV includes - Answer 1) addresses the scope of professional practice & determines that the practice constitutes an identifiable risk of transmission from regulated person to patient 2) submission of frequency of reports relating to the health status of regulated person 3) any other requested information T/F the board, w/o hearing, can temporarily suspend a regulated persons license who fails to submit or comply w/ monitoring requirements - Answer true T/F the board is not authorized to conduct infection control inspections of the clinical practice of a regulated person - Answer false the board must provide __________ notice to the clinical practice prior to infection control inspection - Answer at least 3 business days Where/what does the infection control inspector from the board have access to? - Answer ~all areas of the practice setting where patient care is rendered or drugs or instruments are held that come into contact with a patient ~An inspector is authorized to interview employees and regulated persons in the performance of an inspection ~observe infection control procedures ~work surfaces must be decontaminated immediately or as soon as possible after the surfaces become contaminated & prior to treatment of the next patient T/F items & surfaces must be precleaned before they can be disinfected - Answer true T/F a regulated person can transfer contaminated disposable sharps or potentially infected material from one container to another - Answer false infection controls for disposable & reusable contaminated sharps - Answer ~immediately or as soon as possible after use & until the sharps are disposed of, store disposable contaminated sharps in a container (typically red w/ a biohazard label) that is puncture resistant, leakproof on sides & bottom & closable ~do not store in a manner that allows a person to reach by hand into the containers where the sharps are placed ~containers for sharps must be placed where they're easily accessible to healthcare workers & as close as possible to the immediate area where sharps are used & can reasonably be expected to be found ~place containers for sharps where the contents do not impose undue risk of exposure incident at a clinical practice location ~must maintain containers for disposable contaminated sharps upright through/o use ~must replace container for sharps before it becomes full general infection controls for PPE - Answer ~must wear appropriate PPE in situations where its reasonably anticipated that the person may have skin, eye, mucous membrane, or parenteral contact w/ potentially infectious material ~appropriate PPE must be worn in situations where potentially infectious materials may be splashed, sprayed, spattered, or otherwise generated ~contaminated disposable PPE must not be used in the care of more than 1 patient ~PPE must be replaced as necessary to protect oneself & patients from transmission of HBV or HIV ~PPE must be discarded after tis ability to function as a barrier is compromised ~contaminated PPE must be stored to not pose undue risk of an exposure incident gloves must be worn when - Answer ~it can be reasonably anticipated that contact w/potentially infectious material, mucous membranes, or non intact skin may occur ~vascular access procedures are performed ~contaminated surfaces or items are touched sterile gloves must be worn for & during - Answer surgery requiring sterile technique what type of gloves are worn for cleaning, disinfecting, or sterilizing? - Answer utility gloves T/F its acceptable to use sterile non-latex gloves for surgical procedures - Answer true infection controls for gloves - Answer ~must replace gloves for every new patient ~disregard & change gloves (examination, sterile, & utility) when they become worn or punctured or after their ability to function as a barrier is otherwise compromised infection controls regarding masks, face shields, & eyewear - Answer ~must change your mask for each new patient ~change your mask every 3 hrs ~change mask if it becomes contaminated ~face shields, reusable masks, &/or protective eyewear must be disinfected between patients & decontaminated as necessary ~PATIENTS MUST ALWAYS WEAR PROTECTIVE EYEWEAR DURING TREATMENT T/F surfaces must be decontaminated immediately or as soon as possible after potentially infectious materials are spilled - Answer true contaminated linen/laundry - Answer ~must be handled as little as possible w/minimum agitation ~must be placed in bags that prevent leakage at the location where its used ~must not be stored or rinsed in patient care areas OSHA (Occupational Safety and Health Act) requires - Answer employers make hep B vaccine available to all employees who have potential contact w/ blood or OPIM (other potentially infectious materials) What employees need Hep B vaccination? - Answer any employee that has potential for contact with blood T/F Every dental office needs to have a written exposure plan; written policies and procedures for prompt reporting, evaluation, counsel, treatment, & follow-up to occupational exposures - Answer true Exposure training should include - Answer 1) Description of their exposure risks 2) Review of prevention strategies & infection control policies/procedures 3)Discussion regarding how to manage work related illnesses and injuries 4) Review of work restrictions for the exposure/infection Fingernails should be kept SHORT; Artificial nails carry greater ______ and are implicated in fungal and bacterial infections - Answer gram (-) organisms T/F chemical indicators prove that items are sterile - Answer false biological indicators - Answer SPORE TESTING assesses sterilizing equipment by killing highly resistant microbe ~best way to tell if sterilizing equipment is working properly ~MUST be performed WEEKLY if a spore test comes back (+) - Answer ~indicates that the sterilizer is not working properly and items are NOT sterile ~needs to be corrected and temporarily be out of service T/F autoclaving is a form of sterilization & kills all microbes - Answer true what testing should be available to all DHCW for those concerned that they may be infected by HIV - Answer serologic testing T/F OSHA aims to protect the providers/clinicians and CDC aims to protect all patients - Answer true single use items - Answer items that are only used once on one patient EXAMPLES patient napkins, surface barriers, syringe needles, plastic orthodontic brackets, and sterilization pouches sterilant - Answer Destroys all microorganisms including high numbers of bacterial spores high level disinfectant - Answer Destroys all microorganisms but not necessarily high numbers of bacterial spores intermediate level disinfectant - Answer Destroys vegetative bacteria, most fungi and most viruses, inactivates mycobacterium tuberculosis var. bovis (is tuberculocidal) low level disinfectant - Answer Destroys vegetative bacteria, some fungi and some viruses, doesn't inactivate M. Tuberculosis var. bois (isn't tuberculocidal) What is the primary role of the CDC in dentistry - Answer establish recommendations and guidelines for infection control What type waste is extracted teeth considered to be and how should they be disposed of - Answer Extracted teeth are potentially infectious materials. If they are given to the patient directly, extracted teeth must be disinfected first. However, if extracted teeth aren't given to the patient, the dental office may chose to use them for educational purposes which requires the extracted teeth to be sterilized. If the dental office chooses not to keep the extracted teeth, different procedures to dispose of them depend on if the teeth contain amalgam fillings. For example, if the teeth contains amalgam, they must be immersed in full strength glutaraldehyde for thirty minutes and then can be disposed of according to office local regulation critical instruments - Answer those that touch bone or penetrate soft tissue EXAMPLES ~surgical instruments, forceps, scalpels, bone chisels, scalars, and burs STERILIZATION METHOD sterilization semi critical instruments - Answer touch mucous membranes but won't touch bone or penetrate soft tissue EXAMPLES mouth mirrors, amalgam condenser STERILIZATION METHOD sterilization OR high level disinfectant non critical instruments - Answer contact only with intact skin T/F dental or other health services may be given to minors of any age w/o the consent of a parent or guardian when in the professionals judgement, the risk to the minors life or health is of such a nature that treatment should be given w/o delay & the requirement of consent would result in delay or denial of treatment - Answer true T/F A minor must also have the consent of a parent or legal guardian to receive a hepatitis B vaccine - Answer false Dental records must include ___________ for each patient - Answer 1) personal data ~name ~address ~DOB ~if the patient is a minor, name of the patients parent or guardian ~name & phone # of an emergency contact ~name of the patients insurance carrier & insurance identification # 2) Patients reason for visit ("CC" in quotes!) 3) dental & medical history ~must be updated/checked at each visit 4) clinical exam ~recording of existing oral health status ~any radiographs used/taken ~facsimiles/results of any other diagnostics used 5) diagnosis 6) treatment plan ~must be agreed upon written & dated treatment plan except fir routine dental care 7) informed consent ~the dentist, ADT, DT, DH, LDA discussed w/the patient the treatment options & the prognosis, benefits, & risks of each treatment that's w/in the scope of practice of the licensee ~the patient has consented to the treatment chosen 8) progress notes ~must be in chronological order of treatment & each separate treatment line must be dated ~all treatment provided ~all medications used & materials placed ~treatment provider by the license #, name, or initials ~if applicable, the identity of the collaborating dentist authorizing treatment by license # ~administration info for nitrous oxide inhalation analgesia including indication for use, dosage, duration of administration, posttreatment oxygenation period prior to discharge, patients status at discharge How do you correct dental records? - Answer DO NOT USE WHITE OUT OR ERASURES ~crossed out w/a single line (should still be able to see/read initial record recorded) & include the initials, license #, & date of healthcare worker who corrected the record how long does a dentist need to maintain a patients dental records? - Answer 7 yrs beyond the time the dentist last treated the patient; if a minor, 7 yrs past the age of majority transfer of dental records - Answer digital radiographs shall be transferred by compact or optical disc, electronic communication, or printing on high quality photographic paper ****must reveal images of diagnostic quality using proper exposure settings & processing procedures T/F when electronic records are kept, a dentist must keep either a duplicate hard copy record or use an unalterable electronic record - Answer true ETHCIS (6% of exam) - Answer ____________________________ if a licnesed dental professional fails to report the habitual use of drugs and alcohol by their employing dentist, the licnesed dental professions shall be subject to which of the following? a. civil penalties b. censure c. tort liability d. discrimination - Answer civil penalties T/F it's acceptable for a dentist to send out a flier to a community about the dental practice that has some of his/her educational credentials on it - Answer false; ALL credentials must be on the flier/ad Is it acceptable behavior for a dentist to leave a group practice & open up their own practice in the same community? - Answer yes; dentist CANNOT advertise anything about the former clinic Grounds for refusal, suspension, revoke, limit, or modifying licensure - Answer 1) fraud or deception in connection w/ the practice of dentistry or securing a license certificate 2) conviction of a felony or gross misdemeanor reasonably related to the practice of dentistry 3) conviction of an offense involving moral turpitude 4) habitual overindulgence in the use of intoxicating liquors 5) improper or unauthorized prescription, dispensing, administering, or personal or other use of any legend drug, any chemical, or any controlled substance 6) conduct unbecoming a person licensed to practice dentistry, DT, DH, or DA or conduct contrary to the best interest of the public 7) gross immortality 8) any physical, mental, emotional, or other disability which adversely affects the ability to perform the services for which the person is licensed in 9) revocation or suspension of a license or equivalent authority to practice in another state, territory, or country 10) failure to maintain adequate safety & sanitary conditions for a dental office in accordance w/the standards established by the board 11) employing, assisting, or enabling in any manner an unlicensed person to practice dentistry 12) failure or refusal to attend, testify, & produce records as directed by the board 13) violation or failure to comply w/ the rules of the board of dentistry or any disciplinary order issued by the board 14) knowingly providing false or misleading info that's directly related to the care of the patient unless done for an accepted therapeutic purpose such as the administration of a placebo 15) aiding suicide or aiding attempted suicide Conduct unbecoming - Answer fraud upon a patient's or third party payers if a dental therapist, dental hygienist,or a dental assistant performs a services not authorized by the dentist, &/or fails to cooperate with the MN board of dentistry that behavior is called - Answer Conduct of unbecoming of a licensee What can the board do if a licensee gets their license refused, suspended, revoked, limited, or modified? - Answer 1) impose a fixed civil penalty not exceeding $10,000 for each violation to deprive a licensee of any economic advantage gained by reason of violation, to discourage similar violations, or to reimburse the board for the cost of the investigation & proceeding 2) order the dentist, DT, DH, or DA to provide unremunerated service 3) censor or reprimand 4) any other action as allowed by law & justified by the facts of the case what is the common tort liability in dentistry - Answer Negligence what concept is demonstrated in ethical principles that all patients should receive the same quality of dental care? - Answer justice what is the term for voluntary standards for behavior established by a leader or an individual in authority - Answer code of ethics Good Samaritan Law - Answer a person at the scene of an emergency who knows that another person is exposed to or has suffered harm shall give reasonable assistance to the exposed person Criminal Law/crime against society - Answer law that deals with crime and the legal punishment of criminal offenses Civil law - Answer disputes between individual vs individual, organization vs organization, or individual vs organization; compensation is awarded to the victim Is a person excused from testifying at proceedings initiated by the board of dentistry on the ground that it may tend to incriminate the person - Answer no What must a person do to not be prosecuted on a case initiated by the board of dentistry - Answer Must claim a privilege against self incrimination (DOES NOT apply to prosecution for perjury or for producing evidence) If additional services are needed outside the scope of practice, patient referral must be - Answer kept in the patients health care record Collaborative agreement between dentist & DH - Answer a written agreement w/a licensed dentist who authorizes & accepts responsibility for the services performed by the DH How many DA's can a DT enter into a collaborative agreement with at one practice setting? - Answer no more than 4 licensed DA's or unlicensed DA's How many DA's can a dentist enter into a collaborative agreement with w/o board authorization - Answer no more than 2 licensed DA's Collaborative practice for DA's in community settings without the patient first being examined by the dentist, without the dentists diagnosis or treatment plan, & without the dentist being present at the location where services are being performed requires the DA to - Answer 1) practice in a health care facility, program, or nonprofit organization 2) DA must be in a collaborative agreement w/ a dentist & DH that designates authorization for the services provided by the DA 3) must have documented completion of a course on medical emergencies w/in each continuing education cycle Scope of practice under a collaborative agreement between DA & dentist - Answer *****GENERAL SUPERVISION 1) provide oral health promotion, disease prevention education 2) take vital signs 3) obtain informed consent for treatments authorized under collaborative agreement 4) apply topical preventative agents including fluoride varnishes & pit & fissure sealants 5) perform mechanical polishing to clinical crowns not including instrumentation 6) complete preliminary charting of the oral cavity & surrounding structures except periodontal probing & assessment of the periodontal structure 7) take intramural & extraoral photos 8) take radiographs A collaborating dentist is limited to entering into a collaborative agreement with no more than __________ DT's or ADT's at any one time - Answer no more than 5 The Collaborative agreement between a dentist & DT must include - Answer 1) practice settings where services may be provided & the populations to be served 2) any limitations on the services provided including the level of supervision required by the collaborating dentist 3) age & procedure specific practice protocols including case selection criteria, assessment guidelines, & imaging frequency 4) procedure for creating & maintaining dental records for patients that are treated by the DT 5) plan to manage medical emergencies in each practice setting where care is provided 6) quality assurance plan for monitoring care providing by the DT including patient care review, referral follow up, & a quality assurance chart review 7) protocols for administering & dispensing medications including the specific conditions & circumstances under which these medications are to be dispensed & administered 8) criteria relating to the provision of care to patients w/specific medical conditions or complex medical histories including requirements for consultation prior to caer 9) supervision criteria for DA 10) plan for the provision of clinical resources & referrals in situations which are beyond the scope of practice of the DT T/F A collaborating dentist must ensure that a dentist is available to the ADT for timely consultation during treatment if needed - Answer true Under a collaborative agreement between dentists, DA's, DH's, DT's, and ADT's, who is held responsible if the DA, DH, DT, or ADT practices outside of their scope of practice - Answer the dentist & the DA, DH, DT, or ADT Collaborative agreement between a supervising dentist (must be licensed for at least 5 yrs) & a limited general dentist - Answer ~duties are performed under general supervision ~practice limitations ~acknowledgement that the limited dentist agrees to practice clinical dentistry for at least 1,100 hrs annually for 3 consecutive yrs how many limited licensed general dentists can a supervising dentist supervise during the collaborative agreement - Answer 1 how many limited licensed general dentists can practice in one dental facility - Answer no more than 2 how long does the supervising dentist have to submit a written performance evaluation to the board of a limited licensed general dentist - Answer no earlier than 90 days before limited dentists practice period & no later than 7 business days following completion of limited dentists practice period Graduates of nonaccredited dental programs - Answer ~must be in a 3yr collaboration between the licensee and the dentist to practice under general supervision ~if no disciplinary action needed in 3yr collab, unlimited license is granted BOARD OF DENTISTRY, LICENSING REQUIREMENTS, PORTFOLIOS - Answer _______________________ if the executive director of the board decides a formal complaint needs an investigation, they will forward the complaint to whom? - Answer the board & the boards members take action; the complaint is not forwarded to anyone Which of the following is NOT a core subject? a) office management b) patient communications c) medical emergencies d) ethics - Answer A office management Display of names & certificates - Answer The initial license & renewals of every dentist, DT, DH, or DA must be displayed in every office in which the person practices in plain sight of the patients near or on the entrance door to every office ~when approved by the board, can display a wallet sized initial license & renewals at nonprimary practice locations T/F a dentist can accept money for making a referral (renumeration = $) to another dentist? - Answer false a patient can be terminated for - Answer ~failure to comply with treatment or professional advice ~consistent tardiness or failed appts ~failure to pay for services rendered ~behavior management issues Licensed by credentials for dentists, DH, DA - Answer 1) pass all boards & certified 2) good moral character & abides by code of ethics 3) passed English proficiency if English is not primary language 4) licensed in another state or Canada & does not have/any pending disciplinary action -Dentist & DH only: must have been in active practice for at least 2,000 hours within 36 months of app date or passed board approved reentry program w/in 36 months of app date -DA only: must meet all expanded functions curriculum equivalency requirements of a board approved DA program in MN Denial of licensure by credentials for dentists, DH, or DA - Answer ~board may notify the applicant of any specific remedy that the applicant could take which when passed, would qualify applicant for licensure ~denial DOES NOT prohibit applicant from applying for licensure T/F its acceptable behavior to write a patient a letter dismissing them from the practice - Answer true Emeritus inactive license requirements - Answer ~applicant must be in compliance w/board requirements ~can't be the subject of current disciplinary action resulting in suspension, revocation, disqualification, condition, or restriction of the licensee to practice dentistry Emeritus inactive license - Answer NOT a license to practice; formal recognition of completion of a persons dental career in good standing 4) completed dental questionnaire 5) personal letter/curriculum/resume 6) an original or notarized copy of dental diploma & translation if applicable 7) proof of clinical dental practice 8) an original or notarized copy of other dental credentials 9) completed board approved infection control training 10) an original or notarized copy of national dental board exams 11) application & fee 12) evidence of having passed board approved clinical exam w/in 5 yrs proceeding application (if applicant fails a third time even after additional education/training, the applicant is PROHIBITED from retaking the exam & cannot practice!) 13) evidence of passing jurisprudence exam 14) written agreement between applicant & supervising dentist 15) documentation of current CPR certification 16) statement from licensed physician attesting to applicants physical & mental condition completed w/in 12 months proceeding app 17) statement from ophthalmologist or optometrist attesting to applicants visual acuity w/in 12 months proceeding application limited general dentists professional development requirements - Answer 1) minimum of 2 different core subjects as part of fundamental activities 2) self assessment exam 3) current CPR certification ***total hrs of professional development activities is 75 hrs (minimum of 45 hrs in fundamental; max of 30 hrs in electives); must complete at least 25 hrs each year biennial renewal license requirements - Answer 1) application & fee (must be postmarked no later than the last day of the licensee's birth month) 2) applicants signature 3) compliance w/professional development requirements & current CPR certification 4) applicants office & office address 5) license number 6) whether the licensee has been engaged in the active practice of dentistry during the preceding 2 yrs whether w/in or w/o the state 7) any other information requested by the board what happens if a licensee does not meet the renewal deadline? - Answer The board will send a notice to the last address on file w/ any additional late fees required & a new application deadline (must be at least 33 days after the notice is sent out by the board); failure to respond by new deadline results in the termination of a right to practice the minimum number of required hrs of fundamental professional development activities per biennial cycle is - Answer Dentists & DT: 50 hrs DH & LDA: 25 hrs the minimum number of required hrs of elective activities per biennial cycle is - Answer Dentists & DT: 30 hrs DH & LDA: 15 hrs T/F A licensee can earn all required hrs in fundamental activities - Answer true the maximum number of elective activities directly related or supportive of dental practice is - Answer Dentists & DT: 20 hrs DH & LDA: 10 hrs professional development is credited on an - Answer hr per hr basis what happens if the licensee is unable to meet professional development requirements due to extenuating circumstances? - Answer may apply for an extension to the board via a written request ***must include a complete explanation, the renewal period, # of credits earned, & plan for completing the rest of the needed credits T/F An infection control course is not mandatory to maintain licensure - Answer false professional development activities - Answer include but not limited to continuing education, community services, publications, & career accomplishments through/o a professionals life documenting professional development activities - Answer ~completed self assessment exam ~copy of the front & back of a completed CPR card from the American heart association or the American red cross ~confirming documentation from the presenting organization that provides the attendees name, license #, name of organization or presenter, course date, # of cr hrs, subject matter, program title ~personal log of published articles read by the licensee including the title, name of author, name of journal, & date of publication ***must be in a professional portfolio how long does a licensee need to keep documentation of fundamental & elective activities - Answer 24 months after each biennial renewal period for the purpose of an audit requested by the board How long does a licensee have to submit their portfolio if they're randomly selected for an audit by the board? - Answer 60 days from the notification date T/F a licensee is not considered to be actively licensed during the portfolio audit process - Answer false What happens if a licensee fails a portfolio audit? - Answer 1) the board may grant the licensee up to 6 months to comply w/written requirements to resolve deficiencies OR 2) the board may initiate disciplinary actions against the licensee What are some possible reasons that a licensee may fail a portfolio audit issued by the board - Answer 1) lack of proof of documentation or participation 2) credit earned outside of renewal period being audited 3) excess of earned hrs in a category having a maximum if a deficiency exits 4) lack of earned hrs in a category having a minimum of a deficiency exits 5) failure to submit the portfolio 6) unacceptable professional development sources 7) fraudulently earned or reported hrs T/F failure to comply w/ the board's requirements by the end of the grace period for a failed portfolio audit will result in the termination of a license and right to practice - Answer true the board shall notify in writing each licensee regarding the # of continuing education credits earned during their current ____________ year CDE cycle as of that date - Answer five T/F a full faculty dentist may not apply previous continuing education credits towards the applicable professional development requirements when establishing a biennial professional development portfolio if the dentist earned the credits during the five yr period prior to Jan 1, 2005 - Answer false how long does a dentist have to respond to a written advertising complaint from the board w/o receiving a violation - Answer 30 days annual reports to be submitted to the board must include - Answer ~name & registered office of the firm ~address(s) at which the firm is providing dental services ~name & address of each director, officer, shareholder, & their position title ~a certification as to the licensure status of each shareholder, director, officer, employee, & agent Board - Answer the state board of dentistry state - Answer when used in reference to a state other than MN, means any other state of the U.S., District of Columbia, and the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico Board of Dentistry members - Answer 2 public members, 5 dentists, 1 DA (dental assistant), 1 DH (dental hygienist) Who appoints the Board of Dentistry Members? - Answer the governor Board of Dentistry members maximum term - Answer two four year terms (8 yrs. total) 90 days prior to end of term for Board of Dentistry members - Answer dental associations recommend at least 2 dentists, 2 LDA's or 2 DH's How long does the governor have prior to the end of term to make appointments to the Board of Dentistry? - Answer 30 days What happens if there is a vacancy on the Board of Dentistry - Answer within 60 days after the occurrence of a vacancy, dental associations must recommend at least 2 dentists, 2 LDA's, or 2 DH's; governor makes appointment within 30 days