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What group issued the ACR white paper MRI safety? a. Food and drug association. b. OSHA c. EPA d. American college of radiology blue ribbon panel on MR safety. - โโd. American college of radiology blue ribbon panel on MR safety. This individual must have an in-depth understanding of the risks associated with the MRI environment? a. level 1 personnel b. level 2 personnel c. non-MR personnel d. the patient - โโb. level 2 personnel Which of the following statements is true of non-MR personnel? a. They must pass an MR safety screening process before entering zone IV. b. They must pass an MR safety screening process before entering zone III. c. They may enter zone III for any reason but cannot enter zone IV. d. They must understand the MR environment. - โโb. They must pass an MR safety screening process before entering zone III.
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What group issued the ACR white paper MRI safety? a. Food and drug association. b. OSHA c. EPA d. American college of radiology blue ribbon panel on MR safety. - โโd. American college of radiology blue ribbon panel on MR safety. This individual must have an in-depth understanding of the risks associated with the MRI environment? a. level 1 personnel b. level 2 personnel c. non-MR personnel d. the patient - โโb. level 2 personnel Which of the following statements is true of non-MR personnel? a. They must pass an MR safety screening process before entering zone IV. b. They must pass an MR safety screening process before entering zone III. c. They may enter zone III for any reason but cannot enter zone IV. d. They must understand the MR environment. - โโb. They must pass an MR safety screening process before entering zone III.
Which of the following are reasons why metal detectors are not recommended in MR implant detection? a. They vary in sensitivity b. They cannot detect small ferromagnetic objects. c. They cannot discriminate an implant with magnetic properties or not. d. All the choices. - โโd. All the choices. Which of the following can enter zone III and IV but not escort a patient into these zones? a. MR personnel level 1 b. MR personnel level 2 c. Non-MR personnel d. Patient - โโa. MR personnel level 1 Which of the following is considered level 1 MR personnel? a. MR tech aid b. MR tech c. The person being scanned d. A patients family member wanting to sit with the patient. - โโa. MR tech aid What organization has produced the terms used in MR labeling (MR safe, conditional ect...) a. ASTM international b. ACR c. OSHA
d. EPA - โโa. ASTM international A tester magnet should be how strong? a. Equal or greater than 1000 gauss b. Equal or greater than 500 Gauss c. Greater than 3000 gauss d. 1.5 Tesla - โโa. Equal or greater than 1000 gauss What does the the yellow triangle with mr in the center represent? a. MR conditional b. MR safe c. MR compatible d. MR unsafe - โโa. MR conditional Sound level is limited by the international standard IEC 60601- 2 - 33 to what dba during acquisition? a. 60db b. 99db c. 120db d. 200db - โโb. 99db The victim in a criminal case is referred to as? a. The plantiff b. The defendent
c. The accused d. The victim - โโa. The plantiff A tort case results in which of the following if the defendant is found guilty? a. Paying for damages b. Paying a fine to the government c. Serving a sentence d. None - โโa. Paying for damages What is a deposition in a court case? a. A testimony of what happened. b. The final verdict in a case. c. The reason why a defendant is on trial. d. The opening words in a court case. - โโa. A testimony of what happened. What is defined in the captain of the ship doctrine? a. It defines the fact that there is a person who is responsible for the care of another. b. It does not apply in medicine. c. It states that the technologist is responsible for the care of a patient. d. none - โโa. It defines the fact that there is a person who is responsible for the care of another. An MRI tech has heart disease and requires a pacemaker. What does this mean for this tech? a. They are unable to work in the MR environment
b. They can go into the MR environment as long as scanning is not taking place. c. They must limit their time in zone IV. d. None of the choices. - โโa. They are unable to work in the MR environment What is the ICNIRP occupational workers dose for magnetic flux limit for the head and torso? a. 2 T b. 8 T c. 400mT d. 14T - โโa. 2 T What is the ICNIRP occupational workers dose magnetic flux limit for the extremities? a. 2T b. 8T c. 400mT d. 14T - โโb. 8T Which of the following can be used to reduce Lenz's force risks to an object? a. Advance the patient fast into the MR unit. b. Advance the patient slowly in the MR unit. c. Do not scan the patient because this is unsafe. d. Have the patient approach the gantry at a 45 degree angle. - โโb. Advance the patient slowly in the MR unit.
A deflection of 45 degrees in a tested implant indicates that it deflects at a force equal to what? a. 1 gravity force b. 2 gravity force c. .05 gravity force d. .25 gravity force - โโa. 1 gravity force A deflection of 90 degrees due to translation force indicates how much force is experienced in the implant? a. 1 gravity force b. 2 gravity force c. 0.5 gravity force d. undetermined - โโd. undetermined Magnetophosphenes can be described as what? a. Visually seeing flashing light while moving around the MRI unit. b. Iron in a patient's blood that becomes magnetized. c. When the room lights dim due to the changing magnetic fields. d. Visualizing an elevated T wave on the cardiac cycle - โโa. Visually seeing flashing light while moving around the MRI unit. The magnetohydrodynamic effect describes artifacts seen where in the cardiac cycle? a. T wave b. R wave
c. QRS complex d. P wave - โโa. T wave What is nystagmus? a. Vision loss b. Experiences different scents that are not really there. c. Involuntary movement of the eyes from side to side. d. Involuntary coughing and sneezing. - โโc. Involuntary movement of the eyes from side to side. Which of the following are true? I. MRI has been associated with teratogenises. II. MRi can cause an increase in spontaneous abortion. III. MRI promotes female offspring in working MR techs. IV. MRI can cause infertility. - โโNone What is teratogenesis? a. The development of congenital abnormalities in an embryo or fetus. b. The development of cancers in tissues. c. The process of hormones in a patient changing due to external forces. d. The ability and speed that a wound heals. - โโa. The development of congenital abnormalities in an embryo or fetus. The differences in magnetic field strength as you approach the MRI unit is termed what?
a. Spatial magnetic gradient. b. RF energy c. Gradient coils d. Gauss line - โโa. Spatial magnetic gradient. Translational force is typically the strongest where? a. By the control panel n the MR unit. b. Isocenter c. Along th table d. At every 10cm from isocenter - โโa. By the control panel n the MR unit. What is the unit of measurement used to measure the spatial magnetic gradient? a. dB/dx b. dB/dt c. W/kg d. Gauss - โโa. dB/dx The spatial magnetic gradient has the most influence on which of the following? a. Translational force b. Peripheral nerve stimulation c. Noise d. Heating - โโa. Translational force
Active shield is performed how? a. A magnetically conductive material surrounds the MR unit, shapes and contains the magnetic field. b. A coil of wire in the MR unit has a current running through it which produces a magnetic field opposing the B0. c. Bricks of permanent magnets are stacked around the MR unit to contain the fringe field. d. Nothing is used with active shielding. - โโb. A coil of wire in the MR unit has a current running through it which produces a magnetic field opposing the B0. Rotational force is strongest where? a. Isocenter b. At the control panel on the MR unit. c. On the table d. It is uniform everywhere - โโa. Isocenter How do we calculate the maximal spatial gradient? a. dB/dx *B b. dB/dt *W/kg c. B d. W/kg - โโa. dB/dx *B The vectors of the static magnetic field can be produced in what direction? a. Vertical b. Horizontal
c. Diagonal d. Vertical or Horizontal - โโd. Vertical or Horizontal 4T/m is equal to what? a. 400 G/cm b. 40 G/cm c. 4000 G/cm d. 4 G/cm - โโa. 400 G/cm Which of the following will be able to handle the most RF heating? a. Neonates b. Adult c. Obese adult d. Elderly patient - โโa. Neonates Which of the following statements is true? a. Larger patients will heat up the most. b. Smaller patients will heat up the most c. Larger patients are ferromagnetic d. Induction occurs in smaller patients. - โโa. Larger patients will heat up the most. How much more heating does a 360 degree RF pulse have than a 180 degree pulse? a. 4 times more
b. 3 times more c. 2 times more d. Equal heating - โโa. 4 times more The electric fields associated with RF causes what? a. Burning b. Peripheral nerve stimulation c. Translational force d. Rotational force - โโa. Burning When discussing the distance from an RF transmitter and the biological effects witnessed,which of the following describe the area where burns can occur in proximity closest to the transmitter? a. Near field b. Far field c. Circular polarization d. Danger zone - โโa. Near field Energy deposition is limited to what in first level controlled operating mode? a. 0.5 deg Celsius b. 1 deg Celsius c. 2 deg Celsius d. 3 deg Celsius - โโb. 1 deg Celsius
Which of the following mechanisms of patient burning is associated with the antenna effect? a. Proximity burning b. Far field c. Ferrous induction d. Resonant circuitry - โโd. Resonant circuitry _____diameter loop formed by tissue or devices with a ____diameter contact point will increase the chance for patient burns. a. Large; narrow b. Narrow; large c. Large; large d. Narrow; narrow - โโa. Large; narrow Which of the following is a heat sink in MRI? a. Ice pack b. Insulated wire c. Ferrous object d. All of the choices - โโa. Ice pack Which of the following will increase patient heating? a. Increasing the echo train length. b. Decreasing the TE c. Increasing the TR
d. Decreasing the flip angle - โโa. Increasing the echo train length. Which of the following techniques can be used t reduce the heating in a fast spin echo? a. Increase the TE spacing b. Reduce the TR c. Increase the flip angle d. Tell them to hold their breath. - โโa. Increase the TE spacing Why does a fast spin echo produce more heat than a conventional spin echo sequence? a. It does not. b. It contains more 180 degree refocusing pulses. c. It has more gradient activations. d. It doesn't uses a 180 degree RF pulse. - โโb. It contains more 180 degree refocusing pulses. Which of the following are considered time-varying magnetic fields? a. Static magnetic field b. RF c. Changing gradient magnetic field d. RF and changing gradient magnetic field - โโd. RF and changing gradient magnetic field What is the name of the gradient coil used to produce sagittal and coronal images? a. Golay coil b. Maxwell coil
c. Receiver coil d. Transverse coil - โโa. Golay coil What is the name of the coil used to produce axial images? a. Golay coil b. Maxwell coil c. Receiver coil d. Transverse coil - โโb. Maxwell coil Which of the following is measured in mT/m? a. The rise time b. Maximum gradient peak c. The slew rate d. Spatial gradient - โโb. Maximum gradient peak Which of the following is measured in T/m/s? a. The rise time b. Maximum gradient peak c. The slew rate d. Spatial gradient - โโc. The slew rate 1.5T and 3T MR units typically have a maximium gradient peak of what? a. 30-45 mT/m
b. 20-35mT/m c. 0-20 mT/m d. 10-20 mT/m - โโa. 30-45 mT/m Which of the following is true if we increase the field of view from 200mm to 400mm? a. We use a weak time-varying gradient magnetic field b. We use a stronger time-varying gradient magnetic field. c. We increase the patient heating d. We reduce patient heating - โโa. We use a weak time-varying gradient magnetic field Which of the following will produce the greatest possibility of peripheral nerve stimulation when using the same slew rate? a. 160 x160 image matrix b. 350mm FOV c. 192x192 image matrix d. 120mm FOV - โโd. 120mm FOV Which of the following concerns can be caused by the time-varying gradient magnetic field? a. Arrhythmia b. Anaphylaxis c. Muscle fatigue d. All of the choices - โโa. Arrhythmia
What is true of peripheral nerve stimulation? a. It can cause discomfort to the patient. b. It is always life threatening c. An exam must be stopped if this occurs. d. All of the choices - โโa. It can cause discomfort to the patient. What is the limit for the effects of peripheral nerve stimulation? a. What the patient can tollerate. b. 300mT/m c. 300 W/kg d. 1 deg Celsius - โโa. What the patient can tollerate. Which of the following pulse sequences will produce the greatest chance for peripheral nerve stimulation? a. Conventional spin echo b. Gradient echo c. EPI d. Fast spin echo - โโc. EPI Which of the following will produce the lowest chance for peripheral nerve stimulation? a. Conventional spin echo. b. Gradient echo c. EPI
d. Fast spin echo - โโa. Conventional spin echo. Lorentz force in MRI is responsible for which of the following? a. Noise b. Heating c. Missile effect d. All of the choices - โโa. Noise The NRR is a unit of measurement used to measure what? a. Function of hearing protection. b. Potential of heating c. Peripheral nerve stimulation d. Translational force - โโa. Function of hearing protection. Which of the following is the most common symptom post gadolinium contrast injection? a. Headache b. Emesis c. Hives d. Swelling - โโa. Headache A patient develops hives after a gadolinium injection. This is considered what? a. Allergic reaction b. Non-allergic reaction
c. Anaphylaxis d. None of the choices. - โโa. Allergic reaction What is the difference between an allergic reaction to contrast media and an anaphylactic reaction? a. Anaphylactic reactions are more serious. b. Allergic reactions are more serious. c. Anaphylactic reactions are non-allergic reactions. d. Allergic and anaphlactic reactions are the same. - โโa. Anaphylactic reactions are more serious. A ligand that attaches a gadolinium ion in a chain like molecure is called what? a. Linear b. Macrocyclic c. Polarized d. Captured - โโa. Linear A macrocyclic agent refers to a gadolinium ion that is what? a. caged in b. Attached to a linear chain c. Polarized d. Small - โโa. caged in Which of the following is true of a gadolinium contrast osmolarity? a. It is greater than blood.
b. It is less than blood. c. It is equal to blood. d. It is less than water. - โโa. It is greater than blood. The degree that a tissue demonstrates T1 and T2 relaxation post contrast injection refers to what? a. Relaxivity b. Viscosity c. Osmolarity d. Chelation - โโa. Relaxivity When a T1 weighted image is performed on a vial of gadolinium contrast, how will it appear? a. Bright b. Dark c. Gray d. Blue - โโb. Dark The detection of gadolinium in the drinking water is called? a. Anthropogenic b. Gadolinium retention c. Teratogenesis d. NSF - โโa. Anthropogenic What does a cryogen do to the static magnetic field?
a. It makes it stronger. b. Maintains homogeneity. c. Reduces heat produced during acquisition. d. It makes it weaker. - โโa. It makes it stronger. What is the cryogen used in MRI? a. Helium b. Oxygen c. Hydrogen d. Carbon dioxide - โโa. Helium What types of cryogen is used in a duel cryogen system? a. Helium and nitrogen. b. Helium and oxygen. c. Helium and carbon dioxide d. Helium and hydrogen - โโa. Helium and nitrogen. In order for cryogen to not harm a patient, what needs to happen? a. The cryogen needs to be vented outside. b. The cryogen needs to be warmed to room temp. c. The cryogen must be filtered to make it safe to breath. d. The cryogen should be vented underground. - โโa. The cryogen needs to be vented outside.
If a cryogen touches a patient's skin, what would happen? a. Frostbite/tissue necrosis b. 2nd degree burn c. Infection d. It would freeze solid. - โโa. Frostbite/tissue necrosis If a cryogen is released into the MR room, what could occur in the patient? a. Asphyxia b. Bronchitis c. Neuropathy d. Peripheral nerve stimulation. - โโa. Asphyxia During a quench, what will occur? a. The magnetic field will change. b. The gradient coils will activate c. RF frequencies will heat the helium. d. Scan time will decrease. - โโa. The magnetic field will change. What occurs if a quench vent pathway fails? a. Pressure will increase in the MR scan room. b. A quench will not occur. c. The static magnetic field will increase in strength. d. The gradient coils will be activated. - โโa. Pressure will increase in the MR scan room.
Which of the following is true of all types stainless steel? Select all the correct answers. a. All are non-ferrous b. All will demonstrate rotational force. c. All will cause artifacts in our image. d. It is not used in medicine. - โโc. All will cause artifacts in our image. A technologist walks in the MRI room to check on a patient and sticks their head into the scanner quickly. a. Vertigo b. Elevated blood pressure c. Nausea d. Magnetophosphenes - โโa. Vertigo c. Nausea d. Magnetophosphenes Which of the following are true? a. MRI has been associated with teratogenesis b. MRI can cause an increase in spontaneous abortion. c. MRI promotes female offspring in working MR techs. d. MRI can cause infertility. e. None - โโe. None
Which of the following are recommedations of the ACR guidance document on MRI safety 2013? a. All MR sites need MRI policies and should be reviewed on a regular basis. b. Every site should have a MR medical director. c. The MR technologist has the right to administer an MR exam at will without an order. d. All incidents or near incidents should be reported to the medical director within one business day. - โโa. All MR sites need MRI policies and should be reviewed on a regular basis. b. Every site should have a MR medical director. d. All incidents or near incidents should be reported to the medical director within one business day. Which of the following are true of Zone III? Select all that apply. a. A key lock system is recommended. b. Accessible by level 1 and 2 personnel. c. Might cause harm to patient implants. d. An area for patients to wait. - โโa. A key lock system is recommended. b. Accessible by level 1 and 2 personnel. Which of the following considerations for pregnancy are found in MRI? a. Pregnant patients can be scanned in their first, second, and third trimester. b. A pregnant MR technologist may enter the zone IV but not be present during acquisition. c. Contrast media is safe to be delivered. d. When an ultrasonography exam will not help in diagnosing the patient. - โโa. Pregnant patients can be scanned in their first, second, and third trimester. b. A pregnant MR technologist may enter the zone IV but not be present during acquisition.
d. When an ultrasonography exam will not help in diagnosing the patient. Which of the following ways does a patient manage heating? a. Convection b. Evaporation c. Conduction d. Radiation - โโa. Convection b. Evaporation c. Conduction d. Radiation Which of the following will determine the amount of heating that a patient will receive? a. Body size b. Surface area c. Pulse sequence used. - โโa. Body size b. Surface area c. Pulse sequence used. Which of the following will influence the amount of heating produced from the RF? a. Flip angle b. Field strength c. Implant outside of the gantry d. Patient weight. - โโa. Flip angle
b. Field strength d. Patient weight. Which of the following are mechanisms of patient burning in MRI due to the RF transmitter? a Near field effects b. Resonant circuitry c. Electrical conductivity d. Micro metal effect - โโa Near field effects b. Resonant circuitry c. Electrical conductivity Heating is common in which of the following? a. In devices with sharp points or edges b. In round small objects c. In insulated wire d. Inareas outside the RF field. - โโa. In devices with sharp points or edges c. In insulated wire Which of the following techniques can be used to increase the echo spacing? a.Increase receiving bandwidth b. Increase field of view c. Decrease receiving bandwidth d. Increase flip angle