MSN571 PHARMACOLOGY EXAM QUSTIONS WITH ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY TESTED AND VERIFIED SOLUTION, Exams of Nursing

Download MSN571 PHARMACOLOGY EXAM QUSTIONS WITH ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY TESTED AND VERIFIED SOLUTION and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! MSN571 PHARMACOLOGY EXAM QUSTIONS WITH ANSWERS 100% CORRECTLY TESTED AND VERIFIED SOLUTIONS 1. Fluoroquinolone antibiotics are most likely indicating in which of the conditions Asthma Genital infections Follicular conjunctivitis GERD 2. Which of the following is most likely an intervention for otitis media? Amoxicillin Aspirin Immunoglobulins Corticosteroids 3. Which of the following best classifies penicillin, cephalosporins, and Protein synthesis inhibitors Mycolic acid synthesis inhibitors RNA synthesis Cell wall inhibitors 4. Beta lactamase inhibitors are often located in which of the following? May decrease absorption First dose effect Often combined with penicillin antibiotics Delayed absorption of oral drugs 5. Which of the following drug classes is/are used in initial hypertension management of African American population? Clonidine primary Beta blockers primary Thiazide or calcium channel blocker primary ACE-I primary ARB primary 6. Which of the following groups of antibiotics is notable for side effects such as nephrotoxicity or ototoxicity? Beta-lactams Aminoglycosides Tetracyclines 7. Which of the following groups of antibiotics has a beta-lactam ring in the molecular Structure Sulfonamides Macrolides Tetracyclines Fluoroquinolone Cephalosporins 8. Which of the follow medication is a fluoroquinolone antibiotic? Ciprofloxacin Azithromycin Amikacin Penicillin 9. Which of the following medications or drugs classes is commonly indicated for managing gestational hypertension? Spironolactone (Aldactone) Loop diuretics Calcium channel blockers Dobutamine Calcium gluconate 10. Which of the following best classifies aminoglycosides, macrolides and clindamycin? Protein synthesis inhibitor Folic acid synthesis inhibitors Cell wall inhibitors Mycolic acid synthesis inhibitors 11. The long half-life of amiodarone contributes to which complications Enhanced therapeutic effects Liver toxicity Decreased dosing Short onset of action 12. Pharmacokinetics involves the study of which factor? Distribution rates among various body compartment Physiologic interactions of drugs Interactions among various drugs Adverse reactions to medications Patient is pale and reports feeling tired Patient’s stools appear black Patients heart rate is 98 beats/min respiration are 20 and the blood pressure is 100/50 mm hg What order will the provider take initially to best assure appropriate care for this patient? Packet red blood cells Hemoglobin and hematocrit Hypertonic fluid bolus Stool guaiac 24. A woman taking a drug for high LDL-cholesterol experience muscle tenderness and pain with no apparent cause. Which agent is less likely to cause this adverse effect. Fenofibrate Niacin Atorvastatin Colestipol 25. Which drug inhibits the intestinal absorption of cholesterol? Colestipol Fenofibrate Ezetimibe Colesevelam 26. An elderly patient with hypertension and hyperlipidemia who has been prescribed a statin medication comes for a follow up visit after 4 months of therapy. The patient’s laboratory reports show elevated blood cholesterol level and the urine examination reveals rhabdomyolysis. What could be the reason for the condition? Select all the apply The patient is taking amiodarone along with statin The patient is taking grapefruit juice with statins The patient is not responding to the treatment The patient is taking cyclosporine along with statin & verapamil The patient is eating fiber-rich food along with the statins 27. Match the correct drug teratogenic effect during pregnancy THIS ONE IS HARD IDK - found a table on the pharm book. Table 8.1 NSAIDS-Microcephaly; premature closure of the ductus arteriosus Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors- renal failure; renal tubular dysgenesis, skull hypoplasia (from exposure during 2nd & 3rd trimester) Warfarin-Craniofacial defects; skeletal & CNS defects Isotretinoin- multiple defects (CNS, craniofacial, cardiovascular, others) HMG CoA reductase inhibitors-neural tube defects, facial malformations & CNS anomalies, including holoprosencephaly (single-lobed brain) 28. When planning care for a patient receiving a sulfonaminde antibiotic. Which is the appropriate intervention? Insert foley catheter for accurate input and output measurement Encourage liquids that produce acidic urine Encourage a diet that causes alkaline ash Force fluids to at least 2000 ml/day 29. A 30 years old pregnant female has cellulitis caused by MRSA. Which of the following antibiotics would be the most appropriate option of outpatient therapy? Quinupristin/dalforpristin Doxycycline Clindamycin Tigecycline 30. What is important teaching to a patient taking minocycline? Wear sunscreen as your skin may become sensitive to light This medication can cause an increase in uric acid levels precipitating a gout attack If you have diabetes this medication can worsen hyperglycemia You must take this medication with calcium in order for it to be absorbed better 31. Which answer is true regarding cephalosporin Similar to macrolide structure Bacteriostatic High toxicity Beta-lactam antibiotic. 32. What are the two serious side effects that can occur with Aminoglycoside use? Nephrotoxicity and neurotoxicity Nephrotoxicity and hepatotoxicity Ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity Hepatotoxicity and ototoxicity 33. Adverse effects of fluoroquinolone antibiotics include? QT prolongation All the answer are Correct Tendinitis and tendon rupture Seizures 34. A provider would prescribe which antibiotic to a patient diagnosed with methicillin- resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) Ciprofloxacin Daptomycin Norfloxacin Levofloxacin 35. Which order for furosemide is written appropriately by the prescribe? Furosemide (Lasix) 20 mg po qd Furosemide (Lasix) 20 mg po daily Furosemide (Lasix) 20 mg daily Furosemide (Lasix) 20 mg po QD 36. How can the prescriber’s regular collaboration with a pharmacist? Pharmacist can suggest foods that will help with the medications Pharmacists have additional information on drug interaction The pharmacist can suggest adequate medication dosing Pharmacy can alter prescriptions when necessary to prevent patient harm Pharmacists have firsthand knowledge of the facility formulary 37. A six-year-old who has never received an inactivated influenza vaccine has been brought to the office by his mother to be vaccinated to help protect his four month-old-baby sister during influenza “season”. You inform the boy’s mother that he will require A single vaccination administered annually Children under age eight years should not receive the inactivation influenza vaccination Two inactivated influenza vaccinations the first scheduled about one month prior to the start of influenza season (October/November) and the second scheduled four weeks after the first. Two inactivated influenza vaccinations scheduled four or more weeks apart 38. All the medications are safe to use during pregnancy except Acyclovir Famciclovir Valacyclovir Prescription drugs that cannot be refilled Prescription that is valid for only 1 year 51. Which of the following is not a side effect of morphine? Urinary retentions Biliary colic Respiratory depression All are side effect of morphine 52. The 4th to the 10th week of gestation is the period time when there is the greatest concern about drug induced Fetal hemorrhage Fetal cardiac arrest Fetal malformation Labor 53. Which pediatric client is at gestation risk for medication toxicity? A 10-year-old recovering from an appendectomy A 6-years-old being treated with first degree burn A 15-years-old diagnosed with exercised-induced asthma A 1-year-old diagnosed with a heart valve problem 54. When calculating pediatric dosages, what should you take into consideration? Dosage calculation by body surface area is the most accurate method because it takes into account the difference in size of the child and or neonates Calculated doses based on body weight should be increased by 10% because of immature renal and hepatic functions Dosage calculation according to the body weight is the most accurate method because it takes into account different in maturational development Usage of drug reference recommendation based on milligram per kilogram of the body weight is the preferred method. 55. A health care professional advises a pregnant woman to add supplement of which nutrient to her diet prevent birth defects? Iron Vitamin C Zinc Folate 56. A parent of a 5-year-old child with allergic rhinitis is seeking an approved treatment to make the child feel better. Which of the following recommended? Diphenhydramine Meclizine Promethazine Cetirizine 57. Which of the following is non-neurotoxin treatment for head lice? Permethrin 1%?jk Malathion (ovide) Benzoyl alcohol (ulesfia) Lindane shampoo 58. Monitoring of a patient who is taking allopurinol for gout includes Blood glucose c-reactive protein Bun, creatinine, and creatinine clearance Complete blood count 59. All of the following are true regarding the treatment of scabies except? Treatment of scabies includes crotamiton, malathion, and lindane Permethrin 5% cream (elimites) is the drug of choice for the treatment of scabies in infants greater than 2 months and approved to use in pregnant women Lindane does not carry risk for toxicity and can be used in children more than 2 years of age. Lindane though usually effective carries a risk for toxicity and should be sued in children 60. Which of the following will you find in a patient taking warfarin and levothyroxine? Cardiac dysrhythmias Shortness of breath Excessive bleeding 61. Idarucizumab is used to reverse the activity of which antithrombotic drugs in cases of Bleeding? Warfarin Alteplase Dalteparin Dabigatran 62. The patient is receiving anticoagulant therapy. The INR value for the patient today is 1.5. in response to this what will you do? Prescribe an additional dose of warfarin Hold the next of warfarin Prescribe protamine sulfate Increase the heparin drip rate 63. A 24 years old patient is diagnosed with genital herpes simplex virus infections. Which of the following agents is indicated for use in this diagnosis? Cidofovir Valacyclovir Zanamivir Lamivudine 64. A 19 years old female is diagnosed with bacterial vaginosis. What is a common treatment Prescribed Amoxicillin Metronidazole Azithromycin Ciprofloxacin 65. A 19-years-old female comes to your clinic with greenish, malodorous discharge Vulvar pruritis is also present. On pelvic exam, vaginal mucosa is erythematous, Wet mount of the discharge shows a motile organism. The patient is started on an appropriate therapy. Later that evening. The patient develops flushing, nausea, and vomiting after eating dinner with a glass of wine. The patient was most likely treated with which of the following medications? Azithromycin Metronidazole Ceftriaxone fluconazole 1. Drugs with a narrow therapeutic window have: d. Serum uric acid level of 10.4 14. Which lab test is an indirect measure of atherosclerotic plaque? a. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) b. LDL c. Homocysteine d. CRP 15. What is the MOA of ezetimibe? a. It inhibits absorption of dietary and biliary cholesterol in the small intestine b. It decreases the adhesion of cholesterol on the arterial walls c. It inhibits the absorption of bile, thus causing the liver to produce bile from cholesterol d. It inhibits the biosynthesis of cholesterol in the liver 16. Which drug is the most effective for lowering LDL cholesterol? a. Atorvastatin b. Gemfibrozil c. Cholestyramine d. Ezetimbe 17. Nystatin is used for a variety of conditions. Which condition is not treated with Nystatin? a. Vaginal candidiasis b. Oral candidiasis c. Intestinal candidiasis d. Onychomycosis 18. Isotretinoin (Accutane) is a drug employed in the treatment of severe recalcitrant cystic acne. Which one of the following is NOT an adverse effect associated with its use? a. Conjunctivitis b. Fetal abnormalities c. Hypertriglyceridemia d. Hyponatremia 19. Zanamivir is indicted for which of the following? a. Indicated for both treatment and prophylaxis of influenza b. Treatment of influenza c. Treatment of RSV d. Prophylaxis of influenza 20. What is the treatment option for a patient who reported small, vesicular lesions on his genitals that lasted between 10 and 20 days? a. Acyclovir (Zovirax) b. One-time dose of azithromycin c. Test of cure d. Three injections of penicillin 21. Which microorganism is directly affected by acyclovir? a. Proteus vulgaris b. Staphylococcus aureus c. Pneumocystis jiroveci d. Herpes zoster 22. A 24-year-old patient is diagnosed with genital HSV infection. Which of the following agents is indicated for use in this diagnosis? a. Zanamivir b. Cidofovir c. Maivudine d. Valacyclovir 23. A patient diagnosed with lymphagitis has an allergy to penicillin, the allergy is a rash. What would you give the patient? a. TMP/SMZ b. Penicillin VK PO c. Penicillin G IV d. Clindamycin (In Dr. Hu’s notes) 24. Which of the following statements best explains the observation that morphine is more likely to cause nausea and vomiting in ambulatory patients? a. Opioids cause sedation, which makes walking more difficult b. Morphine inhibits chemoreceptor trigger zones c. Opioids increase vestibular sensitivity d. Morphine sensitizes medulla cough center neurons 25. A patient is given Naloxone for Morphine sulfate who has a respiratory rate of 6 bpm. What is the MOA of Naloxone? a. Naloxone is a partial agonist, requiring a lesser dose to achieve pain relief b. Naloxone is an agonist, leading to desensitization of the opioid receptors c. Naloxone causes hypersensitivity of the opioid receptors d. Naloxone prevents the activation of opioid receptors 26. Which of the following will you find in a patient taking warfarin and levothyroxine? a. Cardiac dysrhythmias b. SOB c. Weight loss 5 kg d. Excessive bruising 27. There is a pregnant patient in your office that states she was given Gentamicin when she was unknowingly pregnant which of the following adverse effects would you explain to the patient can result from taking Gentamicin in pregnancy? a. Cardiac malformation b. Discoloration of developing teeth c. Irreversible hearing loss d. Vision loss 28. When prescribing Metronidazole (Flagyl) to treat bacterial vaginosis, patient education would include: a. HA are a sign of serious ADR and need immediate evaluation b. Consuming alcohol in any form may cause a severe reaction c. Sexual partners need concurrent therapy d. Metronidazole is safe in the first trimester of pregnancy 29. A patient is to undergo orthopedic surgery, and the prescriber will order a cephalosporin to be given preoperatively as a prophylaxis against infection. Which generation of cephalosporin will the provider order? a. First b. Fourth c. Second d. Third 30. A patient has a penicillin allergy and needs to be treated for strep throat. Which drug can be used as an alternative therapy for patients with a penicillin allergy? a. Linezolid b. Tetracycline c. Clindamycin a) High dose pcn b) High dose fluoroquinolone c) High dose cephalosporin d) High dose macrolide 6. A patient diagnosed with lymphangitis has an allergy to pcn, the allergy is a rash. What would you give this patient? CX is a 46-year-old patient diagnosed with lymphangitis. CX has a penicillin allergy, the allergy is a rash. Select the best antimicrobial to treat the lymphangitis in CX. A. Penicillin G (IV) B. Penicillin VK (oral) C. Clindamycin (IV) D. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (IV) E. Vancomycin (oral) 7. MRSA and DRSP (drug-resistant strep pneumoniae) mechanism of bacterial resistance is: a) Altered membrane permeability b) Enzyme destruction with Beta-Lactamase c) None of the answers are correct d) Binding site alteration 8. A patient has localized skin infection, which is most likely caused by positive cocci. Until the culture and sensitivity results are available, you order a -spectrum agent a) Narrow; systemic b) Broad; systemic c) Broad; topical d) Narrow; topical 9. A patient has glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency (G6PD) and needs an antibiotic. Which class of antibiotic should be avoided in this patient? Sulfonamides, streptomycin, and furazolidone. a) Cephalosporins b) Macrolides c) Sulfonamides d) Penicillins 10. A patient receiving a cephalosporin develops a secondary intestinal infection caused by c- diff. What action will the provider take to the provide effective care for this patient? a) Discontinuing the cephalosporin and beginning metronidazole b) Increasing the dose of the cephalosporin and providing isolation measures c) Discontinuing all antibiotics and providing fluid replacement d) Adding an additional antibiotic to the patient’s regimen 11. Select the term that refers to antibiotics that inhibit bacterial growth: a. Bacteriolytic b. Bacteriogenic c. Bactericidal d. Bacteriostatic 12. A man is brought to the ER complaining of nausea and vomiting, blurred and abnormally colored vision, and palpitations. Which drug is most likely responsible for these? A) dobutamine B) lisinopril C) digoxin D) milrinone E) furosemide 13. Which drug is the most effective for lowering LDL cholesterol? a. Ezetimibe b. Cholestyramine c. Gemfibrozil d. Atorvastatin 14. Which one of the following is the most common side effect of antihyperlipidemia drug therapy? a. Heart palpitations b. GI disturbance c. Elevated BP d. Neurologic problems 15. A patient has been receiving iron supplement therapy for 2 days after hip replacement surgery. The provider is alerted to the following assessment data: Black stools; pale and reports feeling tired; HR 98; RR 20; BP 100/50 What order will the provider take initially to best assure appropriate care for this patient? a. Hypertonic fluid bolus b. H&H c. PRBC d. Stool guaiac 16. Bioconversion of a prodrug to its active derivative may be enhanced by an enzyme inducer. a. True b. False 17. A patient presents to the ED after accidentally taking to much Warfarin. HR 78, BP 120/80. Urine dipstick normal. The patient does not have any obvious hematoma or petechiae and does not report any pain. What will the provider order initially to address the patient’s current condition? a. Protamine sulfate d. Systemic steroids are more toxic in children 26. Which statement by a patient about the use of aspirin during pregnancy indicates need for further learning? a. “ASA can be used to relieve pain during pregnancy.” b. “ASA is most harmful when used in late pregnancy.” c. “ASA can affect hemostasis in newborns.” d. “ASA can cause antepartum hemorrhage.” 27. Gross malformations by teratogens are most likely to occur during which stage of fetal development? repeat a. Weeks 12-20 b. Weeks 3-8 c. Week 1-2 d. Weeks 24-30 28. What changes in drug distribution with aging would influence prescribing a medication in a 90 y/o patient? a. Decrease plasma proteins b. Decreased lipid solubility c. Increased volume of distribution d. Increased muscle-to-fat ratio 29. Which of the following disease or disorders are most likely treated with ACE inhibitors? Repeat from above a. Hyperthyroidism b. Pulmonary HTN c. Cushing’s Syndrome d. Angina e. CKD (w/ or w/o diabetes) 30. Which of the following terms best describe the mechanism of action of metoprolol? repeat a. Alpha-1 antagonist effects b. Beta-1 selective c. d. Nonselective Alpha-blockers 31. Which of the following medications or drug classes is commonly indicated for managing gestational HTN? repeat a. Spironolactone b. Loop diuretics c. CCBs d. Dobutamine e. Calcium gluconate 32. A patient diagnosed with otitis externa and taking a fluoroquinolone/ glucocorticoid combination medication asks the NP what the benefit is to taking the medications together. You reply? a. “The glucocorticoid reduces the swelling cause by the inflammation and decreased pain, while the fluoroquinolone treats the infection.” b. “The glucocorticoid decreases the adverse effects of the fluoroquinolone.” c. “The two medications are contraindicated for use together.” d. “The glucocorticoid decreased the likelihood of antibiotic resistance developing to the fluoroquinolone.” 33. A 6 y/o child presents with crying d/t ear pain. Tympanic membranes are erythematous, bulging, and immobile, but intact. In addition to antibiotic therapy, what will the provider recommend for pain management? a. Low dose ASA b. Lidocaine for ear drops c. A tympanostomy to relieve pressure in the middle ear d. Prednisone 34. Tretinoin is commonly employed in the treatment of which of the following? a. Seborrheic dermatitis b. Psoriasis c. MS d. Acne 35. A 20 y/o female presents to your clinic with nodulocystic acne. You prescribe Isotretinoin. What are the special considerations? a. Obtain LFTs at baseline and as indicated b. Adverse effects of Isotretinoin can be increased by tetracyclines and Vitamin A c. All of the choices are correct d. Pregnancy test at baseline x2 1. When prescribing acyclovir, patients should be educated regarding the: a. Eccentric dosing schedule b. High risk developing diarrhea c. Need to drink lots of fluids during treatment d. Risk for life-threatening rash such as Stevens-Johnson 2. A patient is taking oral ketoconazole for a systemic fungal infection. The medication administration record notes that the patient is also taking omeprazole for reflux disease. What instructions will the provider give the patient to maximize medication effectiveness? a. Take the omeprazole at least 2 hours after the ketoconazole. b. Take the omeprazole 1 hour before the ketoconazole. c. Wear sunglasses when outdoors to manage photosensitivity. d. Restrict intake of dairy products. 3. A patient with a history of congestive heart failure and renal impairment is diagnosed with esophageal candidiasis. Which antifungal agent will the provider prescribe this patient? a. Fluconazole b. Itraconazole c. Voriconazole a. Iron compounds are not taken orally. b. Antacids should not be taken with iron. c. Iron does not absorb. d. Iron should only be taken at night. 15. A patient is diagnosed with impetigo. Which topical medication will you prescribe? a. Bacitracin b. Hydrocortisone c. Mupirocin d. Polymyxin B 16. Appropriate initial treatment for psoriasis would be: a. An immunodulator (Protropic or Elidel) b. Wet soaks with Burrow’s or Domeboro solution c. Anthralin (Drithocreme) d. Intermittent therapy with intermediate potency topical corticosteroids 17. A patient is diagnosed with lymphagitis has an allergy to penicillin, the allergy is a rash. What would you give this patient? a. Penicillin VK by mouth b. Clindamycin c. Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole (TMP/SMZ) d. Penicillin G IV 18. A 19-year old female is diagnosed with bacterial vaginosis. What is common treatment prescribed? a. Amoxicillin b. Azithromycin c. Ciprofloxacin d. Metronidazole 19. A man is brought to the emergency department complaining of nausea and vomiting, blurred and abnormally colored vision, and palpitations. Which drug is most likely responsible for these effects? a. Lisinopril b. Dobutamine c. Mirinone d. Digoxin 20. Therapeutic drug levels are drawn when a drug reaches steady state. Drugs reach steady state: a. One hour after IV administration b. After four to five half-lives c. When the patient feels the full effect of the drug d. After the second dose. 21. A generic medication is considered equal, or bioequivalent to its parent brand-name medication, and must undergo stringent safety and equivalency testing and comply with specific criteria established by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA). a. True b. False 22. Which drug administration routes avoid first-pass metabolism in the liver? a. All the answers are correct b. Intraocular c. Intranasal d. Transdermal 23. When two drugs interact what are the possible outcomes? a. One drug may reduce the effects of the other b. One drug may intensify the effects of the other c. All the answers are correct d. The combination of drugs may produce a new response not seen with either drug alone. 24. Which of the following groups of people are at risk for early hypertension? a. African American b. Adolescents are young adults c. Mexican American culture d. Old females 25. Which of the following terms best describes the mechanism of action of metoprolol? a. Alpha-1 antagonist effects b. Beta-1 selective c. Nonselective beta with alpha blocking d. Nonselective alpha-blockers 26. Which of the following drug classes is/are used in initial hypertension managements of African-American population? a. Clonidine primary b. Beta blockers primary c. Thiazide of Calcium channel blocker primary d. ACE-I primary e. ARB primary 27. What is the first rule of antimicrobial therapy? a. Use maximum dose b. Watch for resistance c. Always do sensitive testing d. Match drug with the bug 28. Which statement about Ciprofloxacin is accurate? a. Organisms that commonly cause ear infections are highly resistant b. Most “first-time” urinary tract infections are resistant to Ciprofloxacin c. Ciprofloxacin is active against MRSA strains of staphylococci d. Tendinitis may occur during treatment 29. Risk factors for extended spectrum Beta Lactamase producing organisms include all except: a. Recent abdominal surgery b. A gastrostomy tube c. Attending daycare d. Use of corticosteroids 30. Select the term that refers to antibiotics that inhibit bacterial growth: a. Bacteriocidal b. Bacteriostatic c. Bacteriogenic d. Bacteriolytic 31. Which of the following medications is classified as macrolides? a. Tobramycin b. Gentamycin c. Azithromycin d. Vancomycin