MSSC SAFETY ASSESSMENT TEST Questions and Answers Latest Version 2024 TOP RATED, Exams of Nursing

Download MSSC SAFETY ASSESSMENT TEST Questions and Answers Latest Version 2024 TOP RATED and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! MSSC SAFETY ASSESSMENT TEST Questions and Answers Latest Version 2024 TOP RATED in exchange for compensation. a) Internal b) External c) In-house d) Departmental Answer: External 2. Improving external customer satisfaction is the main objective of . a) Customer service department. b) Retired employees c) Maintenance departments d) HR departments. Answer: customer service 3. Vendors could be considered what type of customer? a) Main b) Substantial c) Internal d) External Answer: external 4. Customer satisfaction should always be the first objective considered when developing . a) Vendors b) New or improved products c) Teamwork d) Training matrix Answer: new or improved products 5. The of the product describes the features requested for the product to perform the tasks for which it was intended. a) Form b) Function c) Cost d) Utilization Answer: function 6. Product designers should always consider the effects of tooling design and cost during . a) Prototype development b) Process capability studies c) Team kickoff meetings d) Maintenance of a machine Answer: prototype development 7. Product design teams should provide an environment that encourages . a) Criticize other team members at any time b) Add their design ideas freely c) Attend meetings whenever they are available d) Report team meetings to the boss Answer: Add their design ideas free 8. Teamwork, concurrent engineering, tools and techniques are needed in order to make . a) Product introduction b) Sales c) Product scam prevention efforts d) Safety tests Answer: Product introduction 9. Engineers working with manufacturing to become aware of tooling limitations and other problems that may increase production time and cost is an example of . a) Brainstorming b) Product analysis c) Concurrent engineering d) Production processing Answer: Concurrent engineering 10. is a design methodology that designs features into the product that makes it cheaper to manufacture, while maintaining its ability to perform its intended function. a) Design for Manufacturing and Assembly (DFMA) b) Design Criteria and Performance (DCP) c) Design, Manufacture, Deliver (DMD) d) Design for Production and Performance (DPP) Answer: Design for Manufacturing and Assembly (DFMA) 11. to be successful must be tied to the company's business plan. a) Team goals b) Donations to the community c) The stock market d) Cross-Training assignments Answer: team goals 12. A team should develop a spending plan as part of their decision making process . a) to ensure that they do not exceed the amount of money allocated to the project b) to ensure that they use all the money allocated to the project c) in case they are audited d) because it is a requirement of all teams Answer: to ensure that they do not exceed the amount of money allocated to the project 13. Supervisors should set measurable objectives to have a way to . a) Eliminate the need to review employees b) Limit the number of employees who can receive a bonus c) Have good performance criteria for review of employee performance performance criteria for review of employee performance 14. People working together discussing issues and making decisions are key elements of a . a) successful work group b) SPC program c) JIT process d) Histogram Answer: successful work group 15. Company objectives and production goals are important pieces of data to . a) Retired employee c) milestone d) consensus Answer: consensus 33. To be successful in achieving a goal, must be capable of bringing people together, motivating them and finally focusing them in the right direction. a) Quality worker b) Leader c) vendor d) maintenance worker Answer: Leader 34. One method used by to get a team started in the right direction is to sequence the start up activities. a) A team leader b) a vendor c) An outside consultant d) Top management Answer: A team leader 35. A team leader is responsible for setting up internal quality audits . a) The team is not spending too much money b) The teams increased pay rate is justified c) Production rates have increased d) Procedures are in place and being followed Answer: Procedures are in place and being followed 36. The specific tasks an employee will be required to perform are described in . a) Company newsletter b) Job descriptions c) Employee evaluations d) Machine operation manuals Answer: job descriptions 37. Project management should include enable team leaders on other projects to identify availability of potential team members. a) Guarantee of long term work for team members b) Planned release of personnel as the project comes to an end c) Record of underperforming team members d) Planned transfer of unused funds to other teams Answer: Planned release of personnel as the project comes to an end 38. Cross-training increases an employee's value to the company because they have additional skill and . a) Are eligible for increased pay b) Shorter work periods c) A better understanding of related job functions d) Can demand more benefits. Answer: A better understanding of related job functions A training matrix or database that contains a list of employees and their specific skills . a) Is an invasion of privacy b) Is used by HR for payroll c) Should be sold to telemarketers d) Should be used to assign people to jobs in areas where they already contain the required skills Answer: Should be used to assign people to jobs in areas where they already contain the required skills 40. Communicating is important when training employees. a) At the appropriate level b) Loudly c) In writing d) In multimedia Answer: At the appropriate level 41. An average worker's productivity would be included in . a) His or her time report b) Job standards description c) Calculation of break times d) Job Safety Analysis Answer: Job standards description 42. Demonstrating the skills and abilities learned is a common component of a(n) . a) Orientation program b) Apprentice program c) Quality circle meeting d) Team kickoff meeting. Answer: Apprentice program 43. Companies have a better ability to match workers to specific job needs if they use . a) Statistical Process Control b) Cross-training c) Sensitivity d) Better background hiring checks Answer: Cross-training 44. In today's competitive markets, processes and people are constantly changing, resulting in a large need for . a) Unskilled workers b) Training c) Decreased quality d) Longer cycle times Answer: Training 45. An employee will receive an update to their training record to reflect their certification when . a) Forklift training is completed b) Forklift training is started c) New employee training is completed d) Packaging training is completed Answer: Forklift training is completed a) Training on a new piece of equipment b) Training on your company's policies and procedures c) Product cost analysis d) Employee interviews Answer: Training on a new piece of equipment 46. The equipment manufacturer is often the best source of . a) Training on a new piece of equipment b) Training on your company's policies and procedures c) Product cost analysis d) Employee interviews Answer: Training on a new piece of equipment 47. Manufacturing companies use to save time and reduce cost of operation. a) Doctor visits b) Reactive maintenance c) OSHA regulations d) Training Answer: Training 48. Job shadowing requires an employee that is being cross-trained to . a) Do all the work while the experienced worker observes b) Create a set of procedures for the job. c) Work closely alongside an experienced worker as their shadow d) Come in after hours for training Answer: Work closely alongside an experienced worker as their shadow 49. Companies often add production by adding another shift. If operators are hired for a new shift what will be needed? a) Customer shipment records b) Records of vacation time owed to existing operators c) Personnel records of existing operators d) Training records of existing operators Answer: Training records of existing operators 50. A machinist who has learned to weld has undergone . a) Transformation b) Cross-training c) Special training d) Rehabilitation Answer: Cross-training 51. Measurable are important to the training process. a) Regulations b) Profits c) Objectives d) Restrictions Answer: Objectives 52. When is the best time to offer safety-related training to employees? . a) Before an OSHA audit b) After there has been a serious accident c) At the end of the workday d) At new employee orientation Answer: At new employee orientation Communication skills used by team members should include written communication, oral communication, and listening skills. a) Written communication b) Brainstorming c) Indirect communication d) Direct communication Answer: Written communication 54. Clear statement of expectations are needed when . a) Training employees b) Ordering lunch c) Writing safety manuals d) Giving directions Answer: Training employees A good manager will attempt to develop a compromise between two workers . a) Want to work together b) Use SPC charts c) Have developed a conflict d) Are married to each other Answer: Have developed a conflict 56. When you give positive feedback, always make sure that you are . a) Believable whether or not you are being honest b) Sincere c) Encouraging them to do more d) Vacation abuse Answer: Violent behavior 74. An assessment of safety and environmental compliance is required when . a) Making repairs b) installing new equipment c) hiring contractors d) packaging equipment for shipment Answer: installing new equipment 75. If you notice an employee acting in a manner that jeopardizes the safety of others, and you do not feel comfortable approaching that person, you should tell your coworkers to approach the person. a) Report the person to a supervisor immediately b) tell your coworkers to approach the person c) report the actions to a supervisor at the end of the shift d) write a note and leave it at the person's workstation Answer: Report the person to a supervisor immediately 76. An employee should perform an immediate emergency shutdown of their machine a) An evacuation alarm goes off whether or not there is a sign of danger b) An evacuation alarm goes off and there is clearly a sign of danger c) An evacuation alarm goes off and there is no sign of danger d) The weather service issues a sever weather warning Answer: An evacuation alarm goes off whether or not there is a sign of danger a) Work training manuals b) Equipment manuals c) SOP manuals d) Emergency manuals Answer: Work training manuals 78. Which of the following should be done when a new or different machine is installed? a) A lockout\tagout b) A job safety analysis c) An environmental test d) An MSDS report Answer: A job safety analysis a) Supervision of other employees b) Handling of hazardous materials c) Performing any job in the company d) Preventing unsafe conditions Answer: Preventing unsafe conditions 80. When a supervisor is aware of a personal argument between two employees, what should he\she do? a) Do not get involved b) Make sure there are no threats to an employee's safety. c) Warn both employees to keep their problems outside work d) Choose a side and stick to it Answer: Make sure there are no threats to an employee's safety 81. The human resources department is the most common source of information about . a) Machine start-up procedures b) Appropriate behavior c) Productivity improvements d) Quality Answer: Appropriate behavior 82. If you notice a forklift truck driver operating the forklift while falling asleep, you should . a) Call the supervisor the first chance you get b) Ignore it. It's not your job c) Get them off the forklift d) Yell loudly to wake them up Answer: Get them off the forklift 83. Anyone who notices another employee engaging in an unsafe practice should . a) Send an anomonous letter to the supervisor b) Report the incident to the safety committee c) get constructive input to the employee to encourage good safety practice. Answer: get constructive input to the employee to encourage good safety practice 84. The should be informed if one of the contractors is creating or operating in an unsafe condition. a) Company president b) Safety officer c) Company security d) Project manager Answer: Project manager 85. When an alarm sounds, you should initiate emergency shutdown procedures and evacuate . a) Immediately b) As soon as you see others doing so c) Before power fails d) After you confirm it is not a false alarm Answer: Immediately 86. A walk-through safety inspection is performed by the company's . a) Safety Officer b) Safety Committee c) Floor Supervisor d) OSHA inspector Answer: Safety Committee 87. If you notice that an air handling machine is making a noise you think might be abnormal what should you do? a) Ignore it since you are not assigned to this machine b) Contact the maintenance department c) Assume the maintenance department will fix it when they can d) Assume it is normal operation Answer: Contact the maintenance department 88. Everyone is responsible for . a) Giving employees performance reviews b) Recording SPC data c) Performing quality system audits d) accident prevention Answer: accident prevention 89. The company handbook usually contains policies on a wide variety of topics, including . a) Safety regulations b) Specific job task descriptions c) Names of team members d) Employee hire dates Answer: Safety regulations 90. A safety team may decide a safety audit is required a) An accident occurs involving an oil spill b) OSHA is planning a visit c) The team's budget is being considered for reduction d) A new person is hired Answer: An accident occurs involving an oil spill 91. The team leader or supervisor should immediately be told of . a) Your desire to change jobs. b) Any industrial injuries c) Your interest in attending college classes d) Stable machine operation. Answer: Any industrial injuries 92. What is a symptom of drug or alcohol use a) Decreased absenteeism b) Improved interpersonal interactions c) Clear speech d) Decreased productivity Answer: Decreased productivity. 93. OSHA conducts inspections for a number of reasons, which are categorized into five priority levels according to their severity. A Priority one indicates . a) Employee complains of alleged violations or unhealthy conditions b) Imminent danger- a danger that may cause death or serious physical harm. c) After any accidental death, or when an accident causes five or more employees to be injured d) Follow-up To ensure that a noted imminent hazard has been removed from the workplace Answer: Imminent danger- a danger that may cause death or serious physical harm 94. Potential hazards associated with equipment should be identified when . a) The engineer does not know what he\she is doing b) Bidding on jobs c) new equipment is being designed for a process. d) Identifying cost of labor Answer: new equipment is being designed for a process 95. is the cause of many industrial accidents. a) Carelessness b) Sabotage c) Re work d) Adherence to outdated safety requirements Answer: Carelessness 96. Hearing protection includes ear plugs, canal caps and . a) Headphones b) Ear muffs c) Head bands d) Ear wraps Answer: Ear muffs 97. When working under equipment or personnel, . a) Head protection is needed b) Eye protection is needed c) The use of fall arrest equipment is required d) Entering plant production areas is prohibited Answer: Head protection is needed 98. Welding creates a bright light that can damage the . a) Eyes b) Ears c) Face d) Hands Answer: Eyes 99. Safety glasses with side shields should be used when working with a for additional eye protection. a) A grinding wheel b) Computers c) A screwdriver d) Steel toe Answer: Sole 118. Leather shoes are worn during welding to protect the feet from . a) Sharp metal on the floor b) Extreme temperature c) UV radiation d) from stray drops of molten metal. Answer: from stray drops of molten metal 119. shoes provide foot protection against falling objects. a) Reinforced b) Electrostatic dissipating c) Rubber d) Steel toe Answer: Steel toe 120. One of the most common causes of head injuries is . a) Chemical splashes b) Toxic vapors c) Banging your head into an unseen object d) Welding splatter Answer: Banging your head into an unseen object 121. Painting on a hard hat should be avoided because it might . a) Cover any safety labels b) React with the composition of the headwear and reduce its effectiveness c) Be offensive to other workers d) Reduce the thermal properties of the headwear Answer: React with the composition of the headwear and reduce its effectiveness 122. Class G hard hats are and provide some protection from contact with live electrical circuits. They are tested at 2200 volts. a) Non-conductive b) Conductive c) Called bump hats d) Designed for electrical trades Answer: Non-conductive 123. hazards include anything that can cause cuts, scrapes, punctures or impacts. a) Fire b) Chemical c) Mechanical d) Hazardous material Answer: Mechanical 124. Clothing worn to protect against electrical shock must be . a) Non-conductive b) Conductive c) Flame resistant d) Designed for the voltage to which they will be exposed Answer: Non- conductive 125. are commonly made from leather and designed to go over a welder's pants to protect their legs from molten metal or sparks. a) Coveralls b) Sleeves c) Chaps d) Pant guards Answer: Chaps 126. are formed when a solid such as a metal, is heated above its boiling point and then condensed in cool air. a) Dusts b) Gases c) Vapors d) Fumes Answer: Fumes 127. is the most common way for a chemical to enter the body. a) Electrical current b) Inhalation c) Chemical d) Water Answer: Inhalation 128. OSHA defines air as oxygen-deficient if it contains less than percent oxygen. a) 20.2 b) 15.8 c) 28 d) 19.5 Answer: 19.5 129. Before workers work in areas that require , they should have a medical exam to determine if they have a pre-existing health problem. a) Safety glasses b) Ear plugs c) Respirators d) Hard hats Answer: Respirators 130. An employee should not enter a confined space that has an oxygen level less than . a) 17 percent b) 20 percent c) 19.5 percent d) 80 percent Answer: 19.5 percent 131. A respirator only covers the nose and mouth of the user. a) Quarter- mask b) Half-mask c) Full-mask d) Hood Answer: Quarter- mask 132. respirators purify the air by filtering the air to reduce the concentration of substances such as dusts, mists and fumes. a) Particulate removing b) Vapor orGas Removing c) Atmosphere-supplying d) Self-Contained Answer: Particulate removing 133. When working in areas that have extreme respiratory conditions, such as a confined space with toxic fumes, a apparatus should be used. a) HEPA filter b) Disposable mask c) Self-contained breathing apparatus d) Full mask Answer: Self-contained breathing apparatus 134. To check for leaks on a half-mask respirator when inhaling, cover the with the palms of your hands. a) Exhalation port b) Cartridges c) Directional valve d) Sides of the mask Answer: Cartridges 135. A class C fire is one that consists of burning . a) Exotic flammable metals b) Live electrical lines or equipment c) Paper, wood and rubber d) Chemicals Answer: Live electrical lines or equipment 136. fires are considered Class C fires. a) Paper b) Wood c) Electrical d) Smokeless Answer: Electrical 137. Open flames should not be used in a dust area because of . a) Cleanliness b) Sanitation c) Possible ignition or explosion d) Clogs breathing apparatus Answer: Possible ignition or explosion 138. To allow for proper fire protection, which of the following is important? . a) Air hoses properly stored b) Door ways are closed and paths be clear c) Safety manuals be available d) Windows be closed Answer: Door ways are closed and paths be clear 139. To avoid potential fires, combustible materials must be kept a minimum of feet from any potential ignition sources. a) 100 b) 35 c) 10 d) 65 Answer: 35 140. In an area that consistently contains dust, or other combustibles you should . a) Use kerosene heaters b) Allow smoking c) Allow use of flames or other ignition sources d) Remove all sources of ignition Answer: Remove all sources of ignition 141. In the event of a fire, it is important to . a) Panic b) Maintain a clear path to the exit c) Prop fire doors open to make getting people out a faster process d) Store combustible materials in the stairwell, away from the fire Answer: Maintain a clear path to the exit 142. To prevent fire hazard, the following action should be taken. . a) Keep new rags nearvy b) Wipe up water spills promptly c) Clean metal chips from a machine d) Dispose of rags promptly Answer: Dispose of rags promptly 143. An odor is added to so that it is detected easier. a) Natural gas . Answer: ask a bystander to call 911 while you attend to the victim 164. When attending to a person with possible broken bones you should . Answer: only move the person if they are in immediate danger 165. Call 911 immediately if you notice that another worker has . Answer: swallowed a cleaning chemical 166. Cold water is the best treatment for . Answer: minor burns 168. To treat a minor burn you . Answer: should run the burn under cold water 170. When responding to a workplace accident do not . a) Look for clues that caused the accident b) Ask bystanders for help c) Put yourself in danger d) Call 911 Answer: Put yourself in danger 171. A safety officer should place by the telephones in case they are needed. a) Vendor's telephone number b) Financial officer's telephone number c) Emergency telephone numbers d) Team leaders' telephone numbers Answer: Emergency telephone numbers 172. An eyewash station is required within a 10 second walk of workers who use . a) Acids or caustics on a daily basis b) Cutting tools c) Packaging materials or metal d) Any type of machinery Answer: Acids or caustics on a daily basis 173. A suitable eyewash station should provide continuous water flow for at least . a) 10 minutes b) 15 minutes c) 30 minutes d) 40 minutes Answer: 15 minutes 174. Emergency showers and eyewashes must be available where are used. a) Bases b) Fluids c) Caustics or acids d) Power tools Answer: Caustics or acids 175. If a worker gets a caustic chemical in his or her eyes, what is the first action that should be taken? . a) Call the safety manager b) Look up the MSDS sheet c) Flush eys with water d) Call a doctor Answer: Flush eys with water 176. Tetanus is a possible result from . a) Puncture wounds from a nail b) Broken bones c) Second hand smoke d) Sprains Answer: Puncture wounds from a nail 177. If you have even a minor accident at work, you should . a) Contact your supervisor immediately b) Contact the company management c) Contact human resources d) Contact OSHA Answer: Contact your supervisor immediately 178. Keeping your workbench clean and following all safety rules are essential to . a) Qualify for the weekly bonus b) Proper SPC procedures c) Ensure FCC compliance d) Maintaining a safe work area Answer: Maintaining a safe work area 179. Ergonomics guidelines help create a well-designed work setting that will . a) Increase machine reliability b) Increase the market share of the product c) Reduce worker fatigue d) Reduce non-compliant parts Answer: Reduce worker fatigue 180. A worker should clean up a small spot of liquid on the floor immediately if the liquid is . a) Oil b) Caustic chemical c) Radioactive d) Explosive Answer: Oil 181. Which of the following situations is considered a safety hazard in the plant? a) Maintain operating at maximum speed b) Oil spots on the floor. c) Pallet with boxes stored on it d) Workstation with wear on the work surface. Answer: Oil spots on the floor 182. Oil spots should be cleaned . a) Immediately b) Within 24 hours c) By Hazmat teams d) By maintenance people only Answer: Immediately 183. To prevent a worker from being injured in a fall, . a) Training on proper falling should be provided b) Oil and water spots should be wiped up immediately c) The worker should wear protective padding d) First responders should be immediately available Answer: Oil and water spots should be wiped up immediately 184. Pedestrian walkway areas that need to be cleanable should not have . a) Handrails b) Painted surfaces c) Lines d) Added traction Answer: Added traction 185. Mirrors help make a safe pedestrian walkway by . a) Aiding in backing vehicles b) Reflecting light into dark areas c) Helping control blind spots d) Allowing workers to check their clothing Answer: Helping control blind spots 186. A wet floor is a common cause of . a) Fall accidents b) Reduced machine productivity c) Employee illness d) Forklift skid accidents Answer: Fall accidents 187. A worker should use pedestrian walkways and doors when . a) To keep from getting lost b) When forklifts are operating in the area c) To meet OSHA requirements d) To reach your destination in the least time Answer: When forklifts are operating in the area 188. It is especially important that employees stay within marked pedestrian aisles when walking through a plant if . a) Machines are operating at peak efficiency b) Forklifts are being used c) Trucks are docked at the shipping department d) There are many people walking through the plant Answer: Forklifts are being used 189. Safe work are a means of ensuring all precautions have been taken when a worker has to perform tasks in a situation that may endanger his or her health. a) Permits b) Records c) Habits d) Passports Answer: Records 190. Plant personnel should receive training and have proper authorization before . a) Entering a permit-required confined space b) Entering office areas c) Taking a course at a community college d) Leaving work Answer: Entering a permit-required confined space 191. Outside contractors who are hired to clean permit-required confined spaces must provide . a) Nothing b) History of similar work done c) Insurance d) Proof of certification as certified entry personnel Answer: Proof of certification as certified entry personnel 192. Only employees who are authorized and trained are allowed to . a) Enter a permit-required confined space b) Use the washroom c) Identify safety hazards d) Participate in an evacuation drill Answer: Enter a permit-required confined space 193. Licensure or certification is required . a) To perform a lock out tag out 211. A hazardous material may be defined as any material that . a) Creates a dangerous situation b) Harms a person, property or the environment c) Causes pain d) Poses no serious health hazard Answer: Harms a person, property or the environment 212. The idea that each person has the right to know about the hazardous substances with which they work is written in . a) The Hazardous Communication Standard b) The Right to Know Law c) The Hazardous Material Handling and Safety Act d) The Constitution Answer: The Hazardous Communication Standard 213. Hazardous material training should include which of the following? . a) Statistical data collection b) Histogram operation c) JIT training d) How to read MSDSs Answer: How to read MSDSs 214. A vehicle is overloaded when . a) The weight is shifted too far to the front b) The weight is placed too high c) It carries too much weigh d) It is at its capacity Answer: It carries too much weigh 215. should not be placed near an ignition source because it is explosive. a) Propane b) Oxygen c) Argon d) Neon Answer: Propane 216. A physical hazard resulting from a substance that may spontaneously combust when exposed to air is called . a) Flammable b) Pyrophoric c) Compressed gas d) Explosive Answer: Pyrophoric 217. A(n) is any organic compound containing two joined oxygen atoms. This substance is highly explosive and sensitive to shock. a) Oxidizer b) Explosive c) Organic peroxide d) Flammable Answer: Organic peroxide 218. A is a chemical that has been scientifically proven to cause acute or chronic health problems to the exposed person. a) Physical hazard b) Health hazard c) Biological hazard d) Radioactive chemical Answer: Health hazard 219. A(n) is a labeling system designed to quickly and accurately identify hazardous materials. a) DOT b) MSDS c) Hazardous Communications Standard d) Hazardous material identification system Answer: Hazardous material identification system 220. The labeling system was designed to help firefighters in the event of an emergency. a) DOT b) NFPA c) NCPA d) UN Answer: NFPA 221. The red diamond on the NFPA identification label represents . a) Reactivity level b) Health hazard level c) Flammability level d) Personal protection required Answer: Flammability level 222. An internationally recognized number assigned to a chemical for identification purposes is called the . a) United Nations Identification Number b) International Standards Organization Number c) United Parcel Service Tracking Number d) Vendor Identification Number Answer: United Nations Identification Number classification of hazards on board a truck transporting hazardous materials. a) Central Intelligence Agency b) Department of Transportation c) Department of Social Services d) Department of Agriculture Answer: Department of Transportation 224. A flammable liquid falls into which category number in the DOT hazardous material identification system? a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 6 Answer: 3 225. Hazardous materials being shipped internationally are given a four-digit number preceded by the letters to identify the material being shipped. a) HM (Hazardous Material) b) HT ( Hazardous Transport) c) UN (United Nations) d) OT (Overseas Transport) Answer: UN (United Nations) 226. It is important to clearly label the containers of material before shipping. a) Soap b) Scrap steel c) Plastic pellets d) Flammable Answer: flammable 227. The HMIS II is a labeling system developed by the NPCA and is represented by . a) A diamond broken down into four smaller diamonds of blue, red, white, and yellow b) Four colored bars, blue, red, orange, and white. c) A single diamond with classification number of the hazard d) Sheet containing first aid information Answer: Four colored bars, blue, red, orange, and white 228. If safe handling information about a chemical cannot be found on its chemical label, its should be checked. a) MSDS b) EPA label c) Chemical composition d) Toxicity label Answer: MSDS 229. The identifies chemicals and sets limits for their use. a) HAZMAT b) DOT c) MSDS d) OSHA Answer: MSDS 230. The amount of exposure to a chemical without the unreasonable risk of injury is listed on the MSDS as the . a) MXT (Maximum eXposure Time) b) TLV (Threshold Limit Value) c) MCE (Maximum Chemical Exposure) d) TOE (Time of Exposure) Answer: TLV (Threshold Limit Value) 231. The PEL (Permissible exposure Limit) for exposure to hazardous substances are set by . a) OSHA b) EPA c) NAFTA d) FDA Answer: OSHA 232. MSDS sheets contain information regarding first aid, the manufacturer, and proper personal protection equipment for use. a) TRUE b) FALSE Answer: TRUE 233. The is a guideline published by the American Conference of Governmental Industrial Hygienists and outlines how much of a particular chemical a worker can be exposed to without an unreasonable health risk. a) Permissible Exposure Limit (PEL) b) Threshold Limit Value (TLV) c) Chemical Abstracts Service Registry Number (CAS NO.) d) Poison Control Center Limit (PCCL) Answer: Threshold Limit Value (TLV) 234. An employer is responsible for having an MSDS sheet for every chemical that . a) They consider dangerous b) They manufacture, sell or use c) Is made d) Is highly toxic Answer: They manufacture, sell or use 235. An MSDS sheet should be locked away in a file and only available to a worker under certain conditions. a) TRUE b) FALSE Answer: FALSE 236. When selecting a new chemical to use in the plant, its should be reviewed as part of the decision making process. a) EPA b) MSDS c) ANSI c) Hazardous material problem d) Raw parts source Answer: Storm water contamination source 254. Drains should be protected when unloading . a) Oil b) Soap c) Metal d) food Answer: Oil 255. The environmental coordinator . a) Works directly for the EPA b) Handles all requests for recycling c) Should know the proper disposal procedures for waste material d) Is always the leader of the plant's emergency response team Answer: Should know the proper disposal procedures for waste material 256. Regulations must always be followed when cleaning up . a) Small amounts of asbestos b) Small amounts of oil c) Any amount of grease d) Any amount of water Answer: Small amounts of asbestos 257. Safety guidelines do not permit to be removed by unauthorized personnel. a) Fiberglass insulation b) Waste lubricant c) Ferrous metals d) Asbestos Answer: Asbestos 258. is a silvery liquid that when spilled emits an extremely toxic vapor into the air. a) Mercury b) Asbestos c) Silver d) Cordite Answer: Mercury 259. The emergency response team should be notified immediately if you observe a(n) . a) Inefficient work process b) Machine guard that needs repair c) Employee showing up late d) Hazardous material spill Answer: Hazardous material spill 260. When storing lubricants, never . a) Store lubricants with other flammable materials b) Prohibit smoking in or around the area c) Have water hoses available d) Use explosion proof lighting Answer: Store lubricants with other flammable materials 261. The reason that grease is not recycled like oil . a) It is not cost efficient b) It is very difficult to remove the impurities c) Both A and B d) Neither A or B Answer: Both A and B 262. One of the simplest, but slowest methods of recycling oil is . a) Straining b) Filtering c) Centrifuge d) Gravity separation Answer: Gravity separation 263. Used oil should be . a) Sold as fuel oil b) Collected by a local environmental service c) Pumped into the nearest sewer d) Burned Answer: Collected by a local environmental service 264. When operating machinery, always wear to protect your eyes. a) Sunglasses b) Safety glasses with side shields c) A welding mask d) Netting Answer: Safety glasses with side shields 265. Loose fitting sleeves is a safety violation for . a) Managers b) Machine operators c) Postal workers d) OSHA inspectors Answer: Machine operators 266. One of the best ways to learn how to operate an unfamiliar machine is to . a) Observe an experienced operator b) Make sure guards are in place c) Just do it d) take it apart, and put it back together Answer: Observe an experienced operator 267. The only person that should turn on a piece of machinery is the . a) The supervisor b) The assigned operator c) A co-worker d) A licensed professional Answer: The assigned operator 268. In terms of safety, everyone is responsible for reporting . a) Unclean areas b) Unsupervised labor c) Lazy employees d) Improperly guarded equipment Answer: Improperly guarded equipment 269. A worker should immediately lockout a machine if he or she finds . a) Guard has been bypassed b) Machine is about to fail but is not producing bad parts c) Machine is running inefficiently d) Nearby machine has failed Answer: Guard has been bypassed 270. When drilling a hole in a part using a drill press, . a) Always firmly clamp the part b) Wear loose clothing c) Hold the part by hand d) Use motor oil as a lubricant Answer: Always firmly clamp the part 271. Machine guards that require the operator to be able to see the process should be made from to protect the worker in case it breaks. a) Plate glass b) Safety glass c) Opaque glass d) Window glass Answer: Safety glass 272. A(n) machine guard prevents a machine from turning on if the guard is not in place. a) Fixed b) Interlocked c) Adjustable d) Automatic Answer: Interlocked 273. A(n) interlock physically prevents a machine's operation when the guard is out of place. a) Hydraulic b) Electrical c) Mechanical d) Pneumatic Answer: Mechanical 274. The components NOT usually used to prevent entry into a machine during operation are . a) Magnetic sensors and capacitive sensors b) Regulators and valves c) Limit switches and photocells d) Guards and light curtains Answer: Regulators and valves 275. Presence sensing is one type of . a) Emergency stop control b) Interlock c) Guard d) Release system Answer: Emergency stop control 276. Which agency suggests that a worker inspect and test all equipment, assuming all to be energized until proven de-energized? a) EPA b) OSHA c) UAW d) ANSI Answer: OSHA a) Prevents a piece of machinery from being energized while maintenance is being performed on it b) Allows unauthorized c) Use of important machinery d) Allows use by only trained personnel Answer: Prevents a piece of machinery from being energized while maintenance is being performed on it 278. The procedure by which each person places his\her own lock on a piece of equipment before performing work on it is called . a) OSHA lockout b) Lockout tagout c) Lockout d) Tagging out Answer: Lockout 279. Working areas at 6 feet or higher require . a) Fall protection b) Two people working together c) Ladder d) Avoid work hazards Answer: Avoid work hazards 297. A step ladder is sometimes referred to as a(n) . a) Extension ladder b) A-frame ladder c) Multi-purpose ladder d) Straight ladder Answer: A-frame ladder 298. When using pneumatic tools . a) Place hoses across walkways as needed b) Use the compressed air to clean clothing and skin c) Do not use compressed air to clean clothing or skin d) Use the maximum psi available Answer: Do not use compressed air to clean clothing or skin 299. After a regulator is installed on an oxygen cylinder, the cylinder valve should always be . a) Opened all the way to prevent leakage around the valve b) Opened slightly to prevent leakage around the valve c) Transported with the regulator in place d) Stored on its side Answer: Opened all the way to prevent leakage around the valve 300. When performing a lockout\tagout procedure you should . a) Apply a lock that every worker has a key for b) Apply your own lock, tag, and test for power c) Apply a tag, lock and call your supervisor d) Leave the key in the lock in case someone needs to use the equipment Answer: Apply your own lock, tag, and test for power 301. Never use a hand tool . a) To cut steel b) When a power tool can be used c) For anything other than its intended purpose d) To remove excess material Answer: For anything other than its intended purpose 302. A pneumatic lockout\tagout uses a to prevent use a) Lockable valve b) Switch c) Pressure relieving cylinder d) Saddle cut switch Answer: Lockable valve 303. Always face the ladder when . a) Climbing, and face away when descending b) Descending, and face away when climbing c) When climbing and descending d) Climbing with your hands full Answer: When climbing and descending 304. You should wear gloves when handling sheet metal because . a) Sheet metal is slippery and can be damaged easily b) Sheet metal is very sharp and may cut you c) Sheet metal is very dirty d) sheet metal is highly toxic Answer: Sheet metal is very sharp and may cut you 305. All electrical circuits should be de-energized before maintenance by to prevent accidents. a) Pushing emergency stops b) Using lockout procedures c) Unplugging all machines d) Deactivating the circuit breaker Answer: Using lockout procedures 306. Stamps on the body of compressed gas cylinders indicate . a) Replacement costs b) Temperature requirements c) Expiration date d) the safety test date Answer: the safety test date 307. A person should always face the ladder . a) With no exceptions b) Unless the load being carried requires them to lean back against the ladder for support c) Unless the ladder is at an angle greater than 15 degrees d) Unless it is a locking-type ladder Answer: With no exceptions 308. A bucket should be used to . a) Carry finished parts b) Remove trash c) Carry tools d) Transfer tools up and down a ladder Answer: Transfer tools up and down a ladder 309. Interrupting the power circuit at the motor disconnect is the only reliable way to . a) Satisfy OSHA b) Safely ground a motor c) Turn off a motor d) Lock out a motor Answer: Lock out a motor 310. The highest load rating a ladder may have is . a) Type II b) Type IA c) Type IAA d) Type A Answer: Type IAA 311. The document that identifies chemicals and sets limits for their use is called a . a) OSHA safety data sheet b) Hazardous material data sheet c) Material Safety Data sheet d) Chemical safety data sheet Answer: Material Safety Data sheet The use of eye protection and proper electrical grounding are important when . a) Using power tools b) Working with hammers c) Flying d) Painting with enamel Answer: Using power tools 313. When using a power tool . a) Make sure all guards are in place b) Defeat or remove the guards if necessary c) Modify the tool to suit your needs d) Unplug it first Answer: Make sure all guards are in place 314. A single pry truck can be used to move a load . a) A great distance b) A short distance c) Up a steep slope d) Through uneven terrain Answer: A short distance 315. You should always know the of any load you are going to move. a) Weight b) Cost c) Origination d) Manufacturer Answer: Weight 316. When inserting a pry truck under a load, the lip of the pry truck should . a) Engage the load for half its' length b) Be clamped firmly to the load c) Be greased to allow it to slip under the load d) Engage the load as far as possible Answer: Engage the load as far as possible 317. is the act of securing a load to prepare it for a lifting operation. a) Rigging b) Shoring c) Jibing d) Traversing Answer: Rigging 318. Attachment devices such as are used to connect the load to the sling and the sling to the lifting device. a) Pressure fittings b) Eyebolts and shackles c) Socket head cap screws d) Flanges Answer: Eyebolts and shackles a) Increase b) Decrease c) Remain the same d) Cancel out Answer: Increase 321. When attempting to lift a long I-beam, use at least strap(s) that is (are) placed . a) One, 10 percent as wide as the beam b) Two, placed on the ends c) Two, placed equally from the center d) Two, close together Answer: Two, placed equally from the center 322. In which of the sling arrangements shown is sling 1 experiencing the greatest load. Answer: Second example 323. When is it OK to use a hoist to lift something that weighs more that the rating on a hoist? a) When it does not exceed5 percent of capacity b) Never c) When the load is lifted carefully d) When it does not exceed 10 percent of capacity Answer: Never 324. Do not leave a load while the hoist is unattended. a) Sitting on crib blocks b) Secured to a pallet c) Attached to the sling d) Suspended Answer: Suspended