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MSSC SAFETY ASSESSMENT-with 100% verified solutions -2024-2025 .docx, Exams of Advanced Education

MSSC SAFETY ASSESSMENT-with 100% verified solutions -2024-2025 .docx

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Download MSSC SAFETY ASSESSMENT-with 100% verified solutions -2024-2025 .docx and more Exams Advanced Education in PDF only on Docsity! MSSC SAFETY ASSESSMENT-with 100% verified solutions -2024-2025 1. An customer is a person or organization that receives services or products in exchange for compensation. a) Internal b) External c) In-house d) Departmental External 2. Improving external customer satisfaction is the main objective of . a) Customer service department. b) Retired employees c) Maintenance departments d) HR departments. customer service 3. Vendors could be considered what type of customer? a) Main b) Substantial c) Internal d) External external 4. Customer satisfaction should always be the first objective considered when developing _. a) Vendors c) Design, Manufacture, Deliver (DMD) d) Design for Production and Performance (DPP) Design for Manufacturing and Assembly (DFMA) 11. to be successful must be tied to the company's business plan. a) Team goals b) Donations to the community c) The stock market d) Cross-Training assignments team goals 12. A team should develop a spending plan as part of their decision making process . a) to ensure that they do not exceed the amount of money allocated to the project b) to ensure that they use all the money allocated to the project c) in case they are audited d) because it is a requirement of all teams to ensure that they do not exceed the amount of money allocated to the project 13. Supervisors should set measurable objectives to have a way to . a) Eliminate the need to review employees b) Limit the number of employees who can receive a bonus c) Have good performance criteria for review of employee performance d) Have a way to collect data to satisfy management reports Have good performance criteria for review of employee performance 14. People working together discussing issues and making decisions are key elements of a . a) successful work group b) SPC program c) JIT process d) Histogram successful work group 15. Company objectives and production goals are important pieces of data to . a) Retired employee b) Forklift training certification data c) Self-directed work team d) Predictive maintenance program Self-directed work team 16. Promoting competition among teams or departments . a) Helps management set their own goals b) Helps establish the baseline to set team goals c) Is a reason to set measurable team goals d) Is not a reason to set measurable team goals Is not a reason to set measurable team goals 17. Top level management must support a team for it to be . a) Successful b) Ratified c) Certified Fully staffed Successful 18. When a team sets objectives that they wish to accomplish, care should be taken to ensure that these objectives are . a) Aggressive b) Predictable c) Measurable d) Justifiable measurable 19. To ensure that a team has meetings, rules for team behavior should be enforced. a) Weekly b) Unproductive c) Productive d) Long productive 20. The first step in a team development process is an awkward stage for the team members called . d) Facilitator selection arguing 27. Which type of customer service information stored in a database could help to improve product quality? . a) concerns customers have with specific problems b) customer orders c) customer banking information d) customer addresses. concerns customers have with specific problems 28. When a customer service agent answers the phone, they should try to answer between the . a) second and the fourth ring b) third and the fifth ring c) first and the second ring d) fourth and the fifth ring second and the fourth ring 29. Which of the following is not used as a problem analysis tool? . a) Brainstorming b) Shipping Manifest c) Cause and effect diagrams d) Root cause analysis shipping manifest 30. In a team, the is the one who will stimulate or guide the group to think of ideas. a) facilitator b) recorder c) president d) supervisor facilitator 31. involves every employee in the company continually looking for ways to improve processes, and eliminate wasteful actions. a) Concurrent engineering b) Continuous improvement c) Customer service d) Product development continuous improvement 32. Reaching a means that although the chosen solution may not be the first choice of everyone on the team, each member supports that solution as a viable option. a) impass b) majority c) milestone d) consensus consensus 33. To be successful in achieving a goal, must be capable of bringing people together, motivating them and finally focusing them in the right direction. a) Quality worker b) Leader c) vendor d) maintenance worker Leader 34. One method used by to get a team started in the right direction is to sequence the start up activities. a) A team leader b) a vendor c) An outside consultant d) Top management A team leader 35. A team leader is responsible for setting up internal quality audits _. a) The team is not spending too much money b) The teams increased pay rate is justified c) Production rates have increased d) Procedures are in place and being followed Procedures are in place and being followed 36. The specific tasks an employee will be required to perform are described in . c) Quality circle meeting d) Team kickoff meeting. Apprentice program 43. Companies have a better ability to match workers to specific job needs if they use . a) Statistical Process Control b) Cross-training c) Sensitivity d) Better background hiring checks Cross-training 44. In today's competitive markets, processes and people are constantly changing, resulting in a large need for . a) Unskilled workers b) Training c) Decreased quality d) Longer cycle times Training 45. An employee will receive an update to their training record to reflect their certification when . a) Forklift training is completed b) Forklift training is started c) New employee training is completed d) Packaging training is completed Forklift training is completed 46. The equipment manufacturer is often the best source of . a) Training on a new piece of equipment b) Training on your company's policies and procedures c) Product cost analysis d) Employee interviews Training on a new piece of equipment 46. The equipment manufacturer is often the best source of . a) Training on a new piece of equipment b) Training on your company's policies and procedures c) Product cost analysis d) Employee interviews Training on a new piece of equipment 47. Manufacturing companies use to save time and reduce cost of operation. a) Doctor visits b) Reactive maintenance c) OSHA regulations d) Training Training 48. Job shadowing requires an employee that is being cross-trained to . a) Do all the work while the experienced worker observes b) Create a set of procedures for the job. c) Work closely alongside an experienced worker as their shadow d) Come in after hours for training Work closely alongside an experienced worker as their shadow 49. Companies often add production by adding another shift. If operators are hired for a new shift what will be needed? _ a) Customer shipment records b) Records of vacation time owed to existing operators c) Personnel records of existing operators d) Training records of existing operators Training records of existing operators 50. A machinist who has learned to weld has undergone . a) Transformation b) Cross-training c) Special training d) Rehabilitation Cross-training 51. Measurable are important to the training process. a) Regulations b) Profits 58. Priority jobs should be discussed at . a) At the beginning of shift meetings b) At the end of shift meetings c) Only when management is present d) Once a month at team meetings. At the beginning of shift meetings 59. management presents the information about the production process in a visual format so that the workers can use it to improve efficiency and promote safety. a) Top-down b) Self-directed c) Visual d) Concurrent Visual 60. When team members reach a significant point in their work to improve a process, it is called a . a) Signature turning point b) Milestone c) Turn for the worse d) Starting point Milestone 61. A is used to establish a baseline measurement for evaluation of the process. a) Metric b) Pinnacle c) Process chart d) Production schedule Metric 62. Data results are required to be made available to employees who participate in team building exercises. a) Team building exercises b) Environmental tests c) Holiday activities d) Fire drills Environmental tests 63. When circumstances at work create a dangerous situation, you should . a) Not proceed until the dangerous situation is eliminated b) Proceed with the utmost care c) Ensure that personal protective equipment is used d) Apply for hazardous duty pay. Not proceed until the dangerous situation is eliminated 64. What should a worker do if a paint filtering system breaks down and paint is being blown out on top of the roof? a) The system should be shut down. b) The system can be safely run until the maintenance team arrives. c) The employees should be notified The system should be shut down. 65. Everyone in the workplace is responsible for . a) SPC analysis b) Product inspections c) Understanding JIT guidelines d) Accident prevention Accident prevention 66. is the federal agency that publishes and enforces safety and health regulations for companies in the United States. a) OSHA b) FDA c) FCC d) FICA OSHA 67. Taken corrective action based on safety regulations from employees will . a) encourage employees to report safety suggestions. b) prevent employees from reporting safety suggestions. c) increase the overall cost of the product. 74. An assessment of safety and environmental compliance is required when . a) Making repairs b) installing new equipment c) hiring contractors d) packaging equipment for shipment installing new equipment 75. If you notice an employee acting in a manner that jeopardizes the safety of others, and you do not feel comfortable approaching that person, you should tell your coworkers to approach the person. a) Report the person to a supervisor immediately b) tell your coworkers to approach the person c) report the actions to a supervisor at the end of the shift d) write a note and leave it at the person's workstation Report the person to a supervisor immediately 76. An employee should perform an immediate emergency shutdown of their machine and evacuate the building if _. a) An evacuation alarm goes off whether or not there is a sign of danger b) An evacuation alarm goes off and there is clearly a sign of danger c) An evacuation alarm goes off and there is no sign of danger d) The weather service issues a sever weather warning An evacuation alarm goes off whether or not there is a sign of danger 77. Operating procedures would normally be found in . a) Work training manuals b) Equipment manuals c) SOP manuals d) Emergency manuals Work training manuals 78. Which of the following should be done when a new or different machine is installed? a) A lockout\tagout b) A job safety analysis c) An environmental test d) An MSDS report A job safety analysis 79. Every person in the company is responsible for . a) Supervision of other employees b) Handling of hazardous materials c) Performing any job in the company d) Preventing unsafe conditions Preventing unsafe conditions 80. When a supervisor is aware of a personal argument between two employees, what should he\she do? a) Do not get involved b) Make sure there are no threats to an employee's safety. c) Warn both employees to keep their problems outside work d) Choose a side and stick to it Make sure there are no threats to an employee's safety 81. The human resources department is the most common source of information about . a) Machine start-up procedures b) Appropriate behavior c) Productivity improvements d) Quality Appropriate behavior 82. If you notice a forklift truck driver operating the forklift while falling asleep, you should . a) Call the supervisor the first chance you get b) Ignore it. It's not your job c) Get them off the forklift d) Yell loudly to wake them up Get them off the forklift 83. Anyone who notices another employee engaging in an unsafe practice should . a) Send an anomonous letter to the supervisor b) Report the incident to the safety committee c) get constructive input to the employee to encourage good safety practice. b) OSHA is planning a visit c) The team's budget is being considered for reduction d) A new person is hired An accident occurs involving an oil spill 91. The team leader or supervisor should immediately be told of . a) Your desire to change jobs. b) Any industrial injuries c) Your interest in attending college classes d) Stable machine operation. Any industrial injuries 92. What is a symptom of drug or alcohol use a) Decreased absenteeism b) Improved interpersonal interactions c) Clear speech d) Decreased productivity Decreased productivity. 93. OSHA conducts inspections for a number of reasons, which are categorized into five priority levels according to their severity. A Priority one indicates . a) Employee complains of alleged violations or unhealthy conditions b) Imminent danger- a danger that may cause death or serious physical harm. c) After any accidental death, or when an accident causes five or more employees to be injured d) Follow-up To ensure that a noted imminent hazard has been removed from the workplace Imminent danger- a danger that may cause death or serious physical harm 94. Potential hazards associated with equipment should be identified when . a) The engineer does not know what he\she is doing b) Bidding on jobs c) new equipment is being designed for a process. d) Identifying cost of labor new equipment is being designed for a process 95. is the cause of many industrial accidents. a) Carelessness b) Sabotage c) Re work d) Adherence to outdated safety requirements Carelessness 96. Hearing protection includes ear plugs, canal caps and . a) Headphones b) Ear muffs c) Head bands d) Ear wraps Ear muffs 97. When working under equipment or personnel, . a) Head protection is needed b) Eye protection is needed c) The use of fall arrest equipment is required d) Entering plant production areas is prohibited Head protection is needed 98. Welding creates a bright light that can damage the _. a) Eyes b) Ears c) Face d) Hands Eyes 99. Safety glasses with side shields should be used when working with a for additional eye protection. a) A grinding wheel b) Computers c) A screwdriver d) Other people A grinding wheel d) 120 90 107. OSHA provides regulations to limit the . a) Exposure to noise b) Number of hours an employee can work c) Speed of machinery in the plant d) Waste products that can go in a sewer Exposure to noise 108. In areas where noise levels are excessive, should be utilized. a) Robots b) Safety glasses c) Hearing protection d) White noise Hearing protection 109. Earplugs should be replaced when they are no longer . a) Covered by the warranty b) Pliable c) Rigid d) Inflexible Pliable 110. are cylindrical pieces of foam stamped from a foam sheet. a) Disposable polyurethane foam plugs b) Disposable PVC foam plugs c) Banded ear plugs d) Ear muffs Disposable polyurethane foam plugs 111. The first step in inserting a foam earplug is to . a) Roll and compress the plug between your thumb and forefinger b) Wet it slightly c) Press it firmly into the ear canal d) Flatten the plug with the heel of your hand Roll and compress the plug between your thumb and forefinger 112. wounds are caused by narrow sharp objects penetrating deep into the skin tissue. a) Cut b) Abrasion c) Puncture d) Chemical Puncture 113. Screwdrivers are a frequent cause of injury to . a) Hands b) Eyes c) Legs d) Ears Hands 114. To protect your hands, you should only wear gloves approved by . a) STMA b) ASTM c) DOT d) OSHA ASTM 115. Working around live electrical circuits requires a worker to wear gloves approved by . a) ASTM b) OSHA c) FDA d) DOT ASTM 116. gloves protect against electrical surges. a) Cloth b) Heat resistant c) Insulated d) Metal mesh Insulated d) Hazardous material Mechanical 124. Clothing worn to protect against electrical shock must be . a) Non-conductive b) Conductive c) Flame resistant d) Designed for the voltage to which they will be exposed Non-conductive 125. are commonly made from leather and designed to go over a welder's pants to protect their legs from molten metal or sparks. a) Coveralls b) Sleeves c) Chaps d) Pant guards Chaps 126. are formed when a solid such as a metal, is heated above its boiling point and then condensed in cool air. a) Dusts b) Gases c) Vapors d) Fumes Fumes 127. is the most common way for a chemical to enter the body. a) Electrical current b) Inhalation c) Chemical d) Water Inhalation 128. OSHA defines air as oxygen-deficient if it contains less than percent oxygen. a) 20.2 b) 15.8 c) 28 d) 19.5 19.5 129. Before workers work in areas that require , they should have a medical exam to determine if they have a pre-existing health problem. a) Safety glasses b) Ear plugs c) Respirators d) Hard hats Respirators 130. An employee should not enter a confined space that has an oxygen level less than _. a) 17 percent b) 20 percent c) 19.5 percent d) 80 percent 19.5 percent 131. A respirator only covers the nose and mouth of the user. a) Quarter- mask b) Half-mask c) Full-mask d) Hood Quarter- mask 132. respirators purify the air by filtering the air to reduce the concentration of substances such as dusts, mists and fumes. a) Particulate removing b) Vapor orGas Removing c) Atmosphere-supplying d) Self-Contained Particulate removing 133. When working in areas that have extreme respiratory conditions, such as a confined space with toxic fumes, a apparatus should be used. 140. In an area that consistently contains dust, or other combustibles you should . a) Use kerosene heaters b) Allow smoking c) Allow use of flames or other ignition sources d) Remove all sources of ignition Remove all sources of ignition 141. In the event of a fire, it is important to . a) Panic b) Maintain a clear path to the exit c) Prop fire doors open to make getting people out a faster process d) Store combustible materials in the stairwell, away from the fire Maintain a clear path to the exit 142. To prevent fire hazard, the following action should be taken. . a) Keep new rags nearvy b) Wipe up water spills promptly c) Clean metal chips from a machine d) Dispose of rags promptly Dispose of rags promptly 143. An odor is added to so that it is detected easier. a) Natural gas b) Oxygen c) Cleaning fluids d) Paint Natural gas 144. The dates and charge on the fire extinguishers should be checked . a) During the yearly fire system inspection b) When the fire alarm control panel (FACP) is repaired c) When performing a weekly inspection of fire system d) When inspecting the fire sprinkler system When performing a weekly inspection of fire system 145. A person should work on a live electrical circuit . a) Never b) Only when it is believed safe to do so c) Whenever it is convenient d) Always Never 146. A fire extinguisher operates by removing the fuel, heat, or oxygen from the fire. . a) TRUE b) FALSE TRUE 147. Someone throws a cigarette into a trash can and the contents of the can catch on fire. The employee that notices the fire should . a) Sound the alarm b) Drag the trash can outside c) Attempt to extinguish the fire with a Type 3 fire extinguisher d) Place the lid on the trash can to smother the fire Sound the alarm 148. When a small fire is noticed near a cabinet of flammable materials you should first . a) Remove the flammable materials to a safe place b) Run to the nearest phone to call for help c) Sound the alarm d) Put it out with a portable fire extinguisher Sound the alarm 149. The fire extinguisher does not leave a harmful residue and is sometimes used to put out fires on planes and expensive equipment. a) Carbon dioxide b) Water-Pressurized c) Halon d) Powder infused Halon 150. A paper fire can be safely extinguished using a Class fire extinguisher. d) Hasp, tag, key Lock, hasp, tag 157. First aid is . a) the immediate care given to an injured person until professional medical personnel arrive b) calming the victim c) helping out. d) Doing the best to calm person the immediate care given to an injured person until professional medical personnel arrive 158. First aid training enables a person to provide . a) help with safety rules. b) Look for violations. c) Working faster d) First aid until professional medical help arrives First aid until professional medical help arrives 159. The action taken to treat an injury until medical help arrives is called . First aid 160. A blood borne pathogen is transmitted . by coming in to contact with blood or other bodily fluids. 161. Blood or other bodily fluids are a source of transmission from one person to another of blood borne pathogens. 162. An effective way to kill any potential blood borne pathogen is to . clean the blood spill with a 10% solution of bleach and water 163. If you are the only trained first aid provider at the scene of an accident you should . ask a bystander to call 911 while you attend to the victim 164. When attending to a person with possible broken bones you should . only move the person if they are in immediate danger 165. Call 911 immediately if you notice that another worker has . swallowed a cleaning chemical 166. Cold water is the best treatment for . minor burns 167. If a person has swallowed a chemical you should . call 911 or poison control and tell them what chemical was taken 168. To treat a minor burn you . should run the burn under cold water 169. The first thing to do when treating someone for electric shock the first thing you should do is . remove the source of the electric shock 170. When responding to a workplace accident do not . a) Look for clues that caused the accident b) Ask bystanders for help c) Put yourself in danger d) Call 911 Put yourself in danger 171. A safety officer should place by the telephones in case they are needed. a) Vendor's telephone number b) Financial officer's telephone number c) Emergency telephone numbers d) Team leaders' telephone numbers Emergency telephone numbers 172. An eyewash station is required within a 10 second walk of workers who use . a) Acids or caustics on a daily basis 179. Ergonomics guidelines help create a well-designed work setting that will . a) Increase machine reliability b) Increase the market share of the product c) Reduce worker fatigue d) Reduce non-compliant parts Reduce worker fatigue 180. A worker should clean up a small spot of liquid on the floor immediately if the liquid is _. a) Oil b) Caustic chemical c) Radioactive d) Explosive Oil 181. Which of the following situations is considered a safety hazard in the plant? a) Maintain operating at maximum speed b) Oil spots on the floor. c) Pallet with boxes stored on it d) Workstation with wear on the work surface. Oil spots on the floor 182. Oil spots should be cleaned . a) Immediately b) Within 24 hours c) By Hazmat teams d) By maintenance people only Immediately 183. To prevent a worker from being injured in a fall, . a) Training on proper falling should be provided b) Oil and water spots should be wiped up immediately c) The worker should wear protective padding d) First responders should be immediately available Oil and water spots should be wiped up immediately 184. Pedestrian walkway areas that need to be cleanable should not have . a) Handrails b) Painted surfaces c) Lines d) Added traction Added traction 185. Mirrors help make a safe pedestrian walkway by . a) Aiding in backing vehicles b) Reflecting light into dark areas c) Helping control blind spots d) Allowing workers to check their clothing Helping control blind spots 186. A wet floor is a common cause of . a) Fall accidents b) Reduced machine productivity c) Employee illness d) Forklift skid accidents Fall accidents 187. A worker should use pedestrian walkways and doors when . a) To keep from getting lost b) When forklifts are operating in the area c) To meet OSHA requirements d) To reach your destination in the least time When forklifts are operating in the area 188. It is especially important that employees stay within marked pedestrian aisles when walking through a plant if . a) Machines are operating at peak efficiency b) Forklifts are being used c) Trucks are docked at the shipping department d) There are many people walking through the plant Forklifts are being used d) Automobile frames Pressure rated devices 196. Ergonomics guidelines help create a well-designed work setting that will . a) Increase machine reliability b) Increase the market value of the product c) Reduce worker fatigue d) Reduce non-conforming parts Reduce worker fatigue 197. Adapting the work area to fit the person to reduce stress is called . a) Environmental adaptation b) Ego c) Ergonomics d) Excessive Ergonomics 198. Carpal tunnel syndrome is a condition caused by . a) Tight fitting clothing b) Repetitive movements c) Allergy to being exposed to fish d) Extended reach movement Repetitive movements 199. Achieving a match between the worker, task, tools and environment is called . a) Task matching b) Adaptation c) Smart hiring d) Worker-task fit Worker-task fit 200. A worker should always place both feet shoulder width apart and bend at the knees before . a) Starting up a machine b) Sitting on a forklift c) Looking under a machine for a problem d) Reaching down to pick up a heavy object Reaching down to pick up a heavy object 201. You should always use your legs when . a) Lifting heavy objects b) Starting up a machine c) Reaching for a part in a machine d) Pushing the emergency stop button Lifting heavy objects 202. Back injuries are most commonly caused by . a) Improper lifting b) Repetitive operations c) Material falling from the ceiling d) Backing into a machine Improper lifting 203. Using your legs when lifting objects will help prevent injuries. a) Back b) shoulder c) Neck d) Foot Back 204. While moving a load, turning at the waist will . a) Reduce the amount of time required b) Provide good exercise c) Increase the chance of back injury d) Help balance the load Increase the chance of back injury 205. To protect your back during lifting, you should place your feet shoulder width apart, and then grasp and lift the object. a) Bend at the waist b) Place one knee on the ground c) Squat down with your feet on either side of the object d) Bend at the knees c) The Hazardous Material Handling and Safety Act d) The Constitution The Hazardous Communication Standard 213. Hazardous material training should include which of the following? . a) Statistical data collection b) Histogram operation c) JIT training d) How to read MSDSs How to read MSDSs 214. A vehicle is overloaded when . a) The weight is shifted too far to the front b) The weight is placed too high c) It carries too much weigh d) It is at its capacity It carries too much weigh 215. should not be placed near an ignition source because it is explosive. a) Propane b) Oxygen c) Argon d) Neon Propane 216. A physical hazard resulting from a substance that may spontaneously combust when exposed to air is called . a) Flammable b) Pyrophoric c) Compressed gas d) Explosive Pyrophoric 217. A(n) is any organic compound containing two joined oxygen atoms. This substance is highly explosive and sensitive to shock. a) Oxidizer b) Explosive c) Organic peroxide d) Flammable Organic peroxide 218. A is a chemical that has been scientifically proven to cause acute or chronic health problems to the exposed person. a) Physical hazard b) Health hazard c) Biological hazard d) Radioactive chemical Health hazard 219. A(n) is a labeling system designed to quickly and accurately identify hazardous materials. a) DOT b) MSDS c) Hazardous Communications Standard d) Hazardous material identification system Hazardous material identification system 220. The labeling system was designed to help firefighters in the event of an emergency. a) DOT b) NFPA c) NCPA d) UN NFPA 221. The red diamond on the NFPA identification label represents . a) Reactivity level b) Health hazard level c) Flammability level d) Personal protection required Flammability level b) EPA label c) Chemical composition d) Toxicity label MSDS 229. The _ identifies chemicals and sets limits for their use. a) HAZMAT b) DOT c) MSDS d) OSHA MSDS 230. The amount of exposure to a chemical without the unreasonable risk of injury is listed on the MSDS as the . a) MXT (Maximum eXposure Time) b) TLV (Threshold Limit Value) c) MCE (Maximum Chemical Exposure) d) TOE (Time of Exposure) TLV (Threshold Limit Value) 231. The PEL (Permissible exposure Limit) for exposure to hazardous substances are set by . a) OSHA b) EPA c) NAFTA d) FDA OSHA 232. MSDS sheets contain information regarding first aid, the manufacturer, and proper personal protection equipment for use. a) TRUE b) FALSE TRUE 233. The is a guideline published by the American Conference of Governmental Industrial Hygienists and outlines how much of a particular chemical a worker can be exposed to without an unreasonable health risk. a) Permissible Exposure Limit (PEL) b) Threshold Limit Value (TLV) c) Chemical Abstracts Service Registry Number (CAS NO.) d) Poison Control Center Limit (PCCL) Threshold Limit Value (TLV) 234. An employer is responsible for having an MSDS sheet for every chemical that . a) They consider dangerous b) They manufacture, sell or use c) Is made d) Is highly toxic They manufacture, sell or use 235. An MSDS sheet should be locked away in a file and only available to a worker under certain conditions. a) TRUE b) FALSE FALSE 236. When selecting a new chemical to use in the plant, its should be reviewed as part of the decision making process. a) EPA b) MSDS c) ANSI d) ASTM MSDS 237. Employers should provide training in the use of personal protective equipment . a) To reduce the employee's risk of hazardous material exposure b) To qualify for OSHA grants c) To place liability on the employee in case of hazardous chemical spills d) Every 3 months To reduce the employee's risk of hazardous material exposure 238. The first step in safety handling hazardous chemicals is to . a) To know the hazards about the chemical you are handling b) Protect yourself from exposure to the chemical 245. The materials loaded on to a truck and their potential hazards are identified by . a) Shipping manifests b) Bill of materials c) Check lists d) Routing sheets Shipping manifests 246. The primary place to look for information regarding shipment of specific hazardous materials is the . a) Hazardous Materials Table b) UPS Guide to Hazardous Material Shipment c) The EPA Hazardous Material Shipment Guide d) Hazardous and Toxic Chemical Guide Hazardous Materials Table 247. A worker should not unload a truck . a) It is facing downhill b) It has been sitting more than six hours c) They do not know the driver d) They do not understand a placard on the truck They do not understand a placard on the truck 248. Hazardous waste is a substance that is no longer wanted that meets the criteria of a . a) Hazardous material b) Explosive material c) Saturated vapor d) Flammable material Hazardous material 249. To ensure safe transportation of hazardous materials, the EPA developed regulations jointly with the . a) OSHA b) DOT c) AFSO d) ATF DOT 250. The advantage of ISO standards is that it provides a single set of guidelines that should be followed . a) across the continental United States b) across the European Union c) worldwide d) in the western hemisphere worldwide 251. Many products cannot be disposed of using a trash compactor before sending to a landfill. These include: fluorescent light bulbs, spray cans containing all or some of the product, and _. a) Paper b) Liquid dyes c) Metal soft drink cans d) Plastic bottles Liquid dyes 252. Dead lead-acid batteries from cars, trucks or industrial vehicles such as forklifts should be . a) Thrown into a landfill b) Stored behind the business c) Cut apart and disposed of in pieces d) Given to a battery recycler Given to a battery recycler 253. Waste materials such as scrap metal in an open yard are a possible . a) Inventory problem b) Storm water contamination source c) Hazardous material problem d) Raw parts source Storm water contamination source 254. Drains should be protected when unloading . a) Oil b) Soap c) Metal b) It is very difficult to remove the impurities c) Both A and B d) Neither A or B Both A and B 262. One of the simplest, but slowest methods of recycling oil is . a) Straining b) Filtering c) Centrifuge d) Gravity separation Gravity separation 263. Used oil should be . a) Sold as fuel oil b) Collected by a local environmental service c) Pumped into the nearest sewer d) Burned Collected by a local environmental service 264. When operating machinery, always wear to protect your eyes. a) Sunglasses b) Safety glasses with side shields c) A welding mask d) Netting Safety glasses with side shields 265. Loose fitting sleeves is a safety violation for . a) Managers b) Machine operators c) Postal workers d) OSHA inspectors Machine operators 266. One of the best ways to learn how to operate an unfamiliar machine is to . a) Observe an experienced operator b) Make sure guards are in place c) Just do it d) take it apart, and put it back together Observe an experienced operator 267. The only person that should turn on a piece of machinery is the . a) The supervisor b) The assigned operator c) A co-worker d) A licensed professional The assigned operator 268. In terms of safety, everyone is responsible for reporting . a) Unclean areas b) Unsupervised labor c) Lazy employees d) Improperly guarded equipment Improperly guarded equipment 269. A worker should immediately lockout a machine if he or she finds . a) Guard has been bypassed b) Machine is about to fail but is not producing bad parts c) Machine is running inefficiently d) Nearby machine has failed Guard has been bypassed 270. When drilling a hole in a part using a drill press, . a) Always firmly clamp the part b) Wear loose clothing c) Hold the part by hand d) Use motor oil as a lubricant Always firmly clamp the part 271. Machine guards that require the operator to be able to see the process should be made from to protect the worker in case it breaks. a) Plate glass b) Safety glass Prevents a piece of machinery from being energized while maintenance is being performed on it 278. The procedure by which each person places his\her own lock on a piece of equipment before performing work on it is called . a) OSHA lockout b) Lockout tagout c) Lockout d) Tagging out Lockout 279. Working areas at 6 feet or higher require . a) Fall protection b) Two people working together c) Ladder d) Lockout tagout Fall protection 280. You should never because it might cause damage. a) Operate a machine at peak rated speeds b) Use compressed air to clean clothing c) Clean with water d) Lubricate bearings on a regular basis Use compressed air to clean clothing 281. As a safety precaution, which of these should be chained to a rigid fixture? . a) A compressed gas cylinder b) A forklift c) A drill press d) A welder A compressed gas cylinder 282. One or more hoses crossing a main walkway . a) Are not acceptable b) Are permissible if they are taped down c) Must be rated to withstand being run over by a fork lift without rupturing d) Must be color coded to indicate the material they contain Are not acceptable 283. If an operator does not test equipment after it is locked out . a) It does not matter because the lockout prevents energizing the power b) The circuit will not operate c) They should apply a tag saying so d) They should be retrained They should be retrained 284. Line breaking procedures should include de-energizing lines, testing prior to start-up and . a) Filling oil tanks b) Adding quick connects c) Correct color coding d) All valves are closed and locked out using lockout\tagout procedures All valves are closed and locked out using lockout\tagout procedures 285. The is the part of a personal fall arrest system that attaches to the building structure. a) Shock absorber b) Deceleration device c) Lifeline d) Harness Lifeline 286. Ground fault protection ensures that hand tools . a) Receive the correct current b) Have a protection from electric shock c) Do not exceed the proper load d) Are economical to operate Have a protection from electric shock 287. When using an extension ladder, the distance the foot of the ladder is set from the house should be about _ the height of the extension. a) 1\4 b) 1\2 c) 1\3 a) Wear respiratory protection b) Wear gloves c) Wear long sleeves d) Have a vacuum cleaner handy Wear respiratory protection 295. Compressed can be used for cleaning work surfaces as long as the dead- headed pressure does not exceed 30 psi. a) Acetylene b) Air c) Propane d) Oxygen Air 296. Effective training in air powered tools helps employees . a) Recover from accidents b) Clean work area with compressed air c) Cross train jobs d) Avoid work hazards Avoid work hazards 297. A step ladder is sometimes referred to as a(n) . a) Extension ladder b) A-frame ladder c) Multi-purpose ladder d) Straight ladder A-frame ladder 298. When using pneumatic tools . a) Place hoses across walkways as needed b) Use the compressed air to clean clothing and skin c) Do not use compressed air to clean clothing or skin d) Use the maximum psi available Do not use compressed air to clean clothing or skin 299. After a regulator is installed on an oxygen cylinder, the cylinder valve should always be . a) Opened all the way to prevent leakage around the valve b) Opened slightly to prevent leakage around the valve c) Transported with the regulator in place d) Stored on its side Opened all the way to prevent leakage around the valve 300. When performing a lockout\tagout procedure you should . a) Apply a lock that every worker has a key for b) Apply your own lock, tag, and test for power c) Apply a tag, lock and call your supervisor d) Leave the key in the lock in case someone needs to use the equipment Apply your own lock, tag, and test for power 301. Never use a hand tool _. a) To cut steel b) When a power tool can be used c) For anything other than its intended purpose d) To remove excess material For anything other than its intended purpose 302. A pneumatic lockout\tagout uses a to prevent use a) Lockable valve b) Switch c) Pressure relieving cylinder d) Saddle cut switch Lockable valve 303. Always face the ladder when . a) Climbing, and face away when descending b) Descending, and face away when climbing c) When climbing and descending d) Climbing with your hands full When climbing and descending 304. You should wear gloves when handling sheet metal because . a) Sheet metal is slippery and can be damaged easily 311. The document that identifies chemicals and sets limits for their use is called a . a) OSHA safety data sheet b) Hazardous material data sheet c) Material Safety Data sheet d) Chemical safety data sheet Material Safety Data sheet The use of eye protection and proper electrical grounding are important when . a) Using power tools b) Working with hammers c) Flying d) Painting with enamel Using power tools 313. When using a power tool . a) Make sure all guards are in place b) Defeat or remove the guards if necessary c) Modify the tool to suit your needs d) Unplug it first Make sure all guards are in place 314. A single pry truck can be used to move a load _. a) A great distance b) A short distance c) Up a steep slope d) Through uneven terrain A short distance 315. You should always know the of any load you are going to move. a) Weight b) Cost c) Origination d) Manufacturer Weight 316. When inserting a pry truck under a load, the lip of the pry truck should _. a) Engage the load for half its' length b) Be clamped firmly to the load c) Be greased to allow it to slip under the load d) Engage the load as far as possible Engage the load as far as possible 317. is the act of securing a load to prepare it for a lifting operation. a) Rigging b) Shoring c) Jibing d) Traversing Rigging 318. Attachment devices such as are used to connect the load to the sling and the sling to the lifting device. a) Pressure fittings b) Eyebolts and shackles c) Socket head cap screws d) Flanges Eyebolts and shackles 320. The force created on a sling as the angle of a sling's legs decrease. a) Increase b) Decrease c) Remain the same d) Cancel out Increase 321. When attempting to lift a long I-beam, use at least strap(s) that is (are) placed _. a) One, 10 percent as wide as the beam b) Two, placed on the ends c) Two, placed equally from the center d) Two, close together Two, placed equally from the center