MTA 98-365 PRACTICE EXAM 2024/2025 ACTUAL QUESTIONS AND 100% CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS GR, Exams of Computer Science

Download MTA 98-365 PRACTICE EXAM 2024/2025 ACTUAL QUESTIONS AND 100% CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS GR and more Exams Computer Science in PDF only on Docsity!

MTA 98-365 PRACTICE EXAM 2024 / 2025 ACTUAL

QUESTIONS AND 100% CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS

GRADED A

You configure Volume Shadow Copy Service (VSS) to save previous versions of a shared folder. By default, the copies of shared folders are stored in: A. A Network Attached Storage (NAS) device. B. A Distributed File System (DFS) share. C. A failover cluster. D. A local volume. Answer: D. A local volume Explanation: Shadow Copy technology requires the file system to be NTFS to be able to create and store shadow copies. Shadow Copies can be created on local and external (removable or network) volumes by any Windows component that uses this technology, such as when creating a scheduled Windows Backup or automatic System Restore point. Enabling additional users to handle administrative tasks for a particular object is referred to as: A. Redirection B. Assignment C. Targeting D. Delegation Answer: D. Delegation Explanation: In computing Delegation of Control is assigning a person or group specific administrative permissions for an Organizational Unit. Plug and Play is a/an: A. Automatic device configuration system. B. Automatic system update application. C. Method used by developers to create applications. D. Multimedia device. Answer: A. Automatic device configuration system.

The system partition on a Windows Server must always be installed to a: A. Dynamic disk. B. Simple volume. C. NTFS volume. D. FAT32 volume. Answer: C. NTFS volume. You need to grant a set of users permissions to a specific folder. Where should you place the user accounts? A. Domain root B. Security group C. Shared folder D. Organizational Unit Answer: D. Organizational Unit Explanation: Place the users in an OU. Assign permissions to the OU for the specific folder. True or False: An organizational unit can only contain objects within its parent domain. True True or False: To organizational unit from different domains can share objects. False True or False: An organizational unit administrator requires domain administrator rights. False You notice frequent writes to the page file. Which should you monitor to determine the cause? A. CPU B. RAM C. Network D. Hard disk Answer: B. RAM Explanation: When the RAM is full the page file is used as virtual RAM.

Which technology is designed to help teams collaborate? A. Microsoft SharePoint Server B. Microsoft System Center Operations Manager C. Microsoft Forefront Identity Manager D. Microsoft BizTalk Server Answer: A Explanation: Organizations use SharePoint to create websites. You can use it as a secure place to store, organize, share, and access information from almost any device. All you need is a web browser, such as Internet Explorer, Chrome, or Firefox. SharePoint Workspace A desktop program that you can use to take SharePoint site content offline and collaborate on the content with others while you are disconnected from the network. While you and other team members are offline, you can make changes to SharePoint content that will eventually synchronize back to the SharePoint site. Incorrect: not B: System Center 2012 Operations Manager provides infrastructure monitoring that is flexible and cost- effective, helps ensure the predictable performance and availability of vital applications, and offers comprehensive monitoring for your datacenter and cloud, both private and public. Not C: Microsoft Forefront Identity Manager 2010 R2 delivers self-service identity management for users, automates lifecycle management across heterogeneous platforms for administrators, and provides a rich policy framework for enforcing corporate security policies. Not D: Microsoft BizTalk Server (or simply "BizTalk") enables companies to automate business processes, through the use of adapters which are tailored to communicate with different software systems used in an enterprise. You need to manage a Windows Server 2008 server from a Windows client computer by using a Management Console. What should you install on the client computer? A. Remote Assistance B. Remote Server Administration Tools C. Windows Server Resource Kit D. Microsoft Office SharePoint Server Answer: B. Remote Server Administration Tools Explanation: Example: Remote Server Administration Tools for Windows 8.1 enables IT administrators to manage roles and features that are installed on computers that are running Windows Server 2012 or Windows Server 2012 R2 from a remote computer that is running Windows 8.1 Pro or Windows 8. Enterprise.

Services that are required to enable another service to run are referred to as service: A. Roots B. Prerequisites C. Dependencies D. Parents E. Hosts Answer: C. Dependencies Explanation: Some services have dependency services that do not start until their dependency services start first. Question No : 12 You need to make a share hidden. Which symbol should you append to the share name? A. _ B.! C. @ D. # E. $ Answer: E. $ Explanation: The "$" appended to the end of the share name means that it is a hidden share. Windows will not list such shares among those it defines in typical queries by remote clients to obtain the list of shares. One needs to know the name of an administrative share in order to access it. Not every hidden share is administrative share; in other words, ordinary hidden shares may be created at user's discretion. You are troubleshooting a permissions issue with the Reports share. You examine the permissions and find that they are the following: NTFS: Marketing=Modify; Accounting=Modify Sharing: Marketing=Change; Accounting=Read Based on these permissions, what level of access does each group have? Select two answers, one for each group. A. Marketing=Read B. Marketing=Modify

C. Marketing=Full Control D. Accounting=Read E. Accounting=Modify F. Accounting=Full Control Answers: B. Marketing=Modify D. Accounting=Read Which type of folder permissions takes precedence? A. Explicit Deny permissions B. Explicit Allow permissions C. Inherited Deny permissions D. Inherited Allow permissions Answer: A. Explicit Deny permissions Explanation: Here are some rules for resolving permissions conflicts: "Deny" permissions generally take precedence over "allow" permissions. Permissions applied directly to an object (explicit permissions) take precedence over permissions inherited from a parent (for example from a group). Permissions inherited from near relatives take precedence over permissions inherited from distant predecessors. So permissions inherited from the object's parent folder take precedence over permissions inherited from the object's "grandparent" folder, and so on. Permissions from different user groups that are at the same level (in terms of being directly-set or inherited, and in terms of being "deny" or "allow") are cumulative. So if a user is a member of two groups, one of which has an "allow" permission of "Read" and the other has an "allow" of "Write", the user will have both read and write permission--depending on the other rules above, of course. Distributed File System (DFS) is used to: A. Delegate permissions to a global distribution group. B. Implement parity. C. Group shared folders from different servers. D. Configure spanned and extended volumes. Answer: C. Group shared folders from different servers. Explanation: Distributed File System (DFS) is a set of client and server services that allow an organization

using Microsoft Windows servers to organize many distributed SMB file shares into a distributed file system. DFS provides location transparency and redundancy to improve data availability in the face of failure or heavy load by allowing shares in multiple different locations to be logically grouped under one folder, or DFS root. Which kind of group is only used for e-mail applications? A. Exchange Admins group B. Universal group C. Security group D. Distribution group Answer: D. Distribution group Explanation: Example: As an Office 365 Small Business admin, you can create and manage distribution groups for your organization. A distribution group is a collection of two or more people that appears in your organizations address book. When an email message is sent to a distribution group, it goes to all members of the group. Which troubleshooting utility displays all active network configuration values for that device? Answer: ipconfig Explanation: Displays all current TCP/IP network configuration values and refreshes Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) and Domain Name System (DNS) settings. Used without parameters, ipconfig displays Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) and IPv6 addresses, subnet mask, and default gateway for all adapters. https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/administration/windows-commands/ipconfig Which troubleshooting utility determines the path taken to a destination by sending an ICMP echo request? Answer: tracert Explanation: The TRACERT diagnostic utility determines the route to a destination by sending Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) echo packets to the destination. In these packets, TRACERT uses varying IP Time-To-Live (TTL) values. Because each router along the path is required to decrement the packet's TTL by at least 1 before forwarding the packet, the TTL is effectively a hop counter. When the TTL on a packet reaches zero (0), the router sends an ICMP "Time Exceeded" message back to the source computer.

Example: C:> tracert 11.1.0. The output from the command: Tracing route to 11.1.0.1 over a maximum of 30 hops

---

1 2 ms 3 ms 2 ms 157.54.48. 2 75 ms 83 ms 88 ms 11.1.0. 3 73 ms 79 ms 93 ms 11.1.0. https://support.microsoft.com/en-us/help/314868/how-to-use-tracert-to-troubleshoot-tcp-ip-problems- in-windows Which troubleshooting utility verifies IP connectivity with another device by sending an ICMP echo request? Answer: ping Explanation: Ping is used diagnostically to ensure that a host computer the user is trying to reach is actually operating. Ping works by sending an Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) Echo Request to a specified interface on the network and waiting for a reply. Ping can be used for troubleshooting to test connectivity and determine response time. Example: C:> ping 127.0.0. https://searchnetworking.techtarget.com/definition/ping Which troubleshooting utility shows active TCP connections and ports that the computer is listening to? Answer: netstat Explanation: netstat ("network statistics") is a command-line tool that displays network connections (both incoming and outgoing), routing tables, and a number of network interface (network interface controller or software-defined network interface) and network protocol statistics. Example: C:> netstat /a What are three benefits of performing a Server Core installation of Windows Server 2008 R2? (Choose three.) A. Option to upgrade to a Full Server installation B. Reduced maintenance

C. Reduced attack surface D. Enhanced installation GUI E. Lower disk space requirement Answer: B. Reduced maintenance, C. Reduced attack surface, E. Lower disk space requirement Explanation: Benefits of Server Core: Reduced servicing. Because Server Core installs only what is required for a manageable DHCP, File, DNS, Media Services, and Active Directory server, less servicing is required. Reduced management. Because less is installed on a Server Core-based server, less management is required. Reduced attack surface. Because there is less running on the server, there is less attack surface. Less disk space required. Server Core requires about 3.4GB to install. Reference: https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ee391628%28v=vs.85%29.aspx The minimum permission needed to delete other users' documents from a print queue is ______________. A. Manage Documents B. Manage Printers C. Deny D. Print Answer: A. Manage Documents Explanation: "Manage documents". If you have this permission, you can manage all jobs for a printer that are waiting in the print queue, including documents or files that are being printed by other users. With "print" permissions you can only delete your own documents. Reference: http://windows.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-vista/what-are-printer-permissions Which tool enables an administrator to centralize the distribution of Microsoft security updates? A. Microsoft Security Response Center (MSRC) B. Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) C. Windows Update D. Microsoft Software Assurance E. Microsoft Update Answer: B. Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) Explanation: Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) enables information technology administrators to deploy the latest Microsoft product updates to computers that are running the Windows operating

system. By using WSUS, administrators can fully manage the distribution of updates that are released through Microsoft Update to computers in their network. Your backup plan calls for a full backup every Sunday. Every other day of the week, you need to back up only the changes since the last full backup. Which backup type should you use for Tuesday? A. Daily B. Normal C. Copy D. Differential Answer: D. Differential Explanation: A differential backup is a type of backup that copies all the data that has changed since the last full backup. For example, if a full backup is done on Sunday, Monday's differential backup backs up all the files changed or added since Sunday's full backup. https://searchdatabackup.techtarget.com/definition/differential-backup You need to automate the installation of Windows Server 2008 on several servers. What should you use? A. unattendinstall.exe B. Microsoft Software Installer (MSI) C. Windows Installer Service D. Windows Deployment Services (WDS) Answer: D. Windows Deployment Services (WDS) Explanation: Windows Deployment Services is the updated and redesigned version of Remote Installation Services (RIS). Windows Deployment Services enables you to deploy Windows operating systems over the network, which means that you do not have to install each operating system directly from a CD or DVD. True or False: Active Directory groups can be used to assign permissions on a shared folder on a server. Answer: True You install a new Windows Server 2008 R2 server for your school athletic department. The installation completes without errors. However, the new server is unable to communicate with the network. After

checking cable connections and network configuration, you find that no network connections are listed in the Control Panel/Network Connections applet. What should you use to investigate a potential problem with the network adapter driver? A. Network and Sharing Center B. Control Panel/Network Connections C. Device Manager D. Server Manager/WMI Control Answer: C. Device Manager Explanation: The Device Manager is a Control Panel applet in Microsoft Windows operating systems. It allows users to view and control the hardware attached to the computer. When a piece of hardware is not working, the offending hardware is highlighted for the user to deal with. Reference: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Device_Manager You need to control which Microsoft Office updates are automatically deployed to client computers. Which tool should you use? A. Microsoft Office SharePoint Services (MOSS) B. Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) C. Windows Update D. Microsoft Office Update Answer: B. WSUS Explanation: Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) enables information technology administrators to deploy the latest Microsoft product updates to computers that are running the Windows operating system. By using WSUS, administrators can fully manage the distribution of updates that are released through Microsoft Update to computers in their network. Which RAID level uses parity information to recover data from a failed disk? A. RAID 0 B. RAID 1 C. RAID 5 D. RAID 10 Answer: C. RAID 5 Explanation: RAID 5 is a redundant array of independent disks configuration that uses disk striping with

parity. Because data and parity are striped evenly across all of the disks, no single disk is a bottleneck. Striping also allows users to reconstruct data in case of a disk failure. https://searchstorage.techtarget.com/definition/RAID- 5 - redundant-array-of-independent-disks Users report that they are unable to print. What should you do first? A. Verify that the Print Spooler Service is running. B. Pause the Print Spooler service. C. Restart the Print Spooler service. D. Disable the Print Spooler Service. Answer: C Explanation: Try to restart the Print Spooler. Which type of license is required to connect remotely to an application? A. Windows Server External Connector License B. Remote Desktop Services Client Access License C. System Center Operations Manager Client Management License D. Remote Server Application License Answer: B Explanation: Remote Desktop Services Client Access License is used to access applications on a Windows server. Which type of additional drivers does the Windows 7 installation phase prompt for? A. Video B. Network C. Use D. Storage Answer: D Explanation: You might be prompted for the mass storage device driver. When installing Windows 7, you might see one of the following error messages: No drives were found. Click Load Driver to provide a mass storage driver for installation. Windows Setup could not configure Windows to run on this computers hardware. Reference: http://windows.microsoft.com/en-us/windows7/windows- 7 - installation-problem- hard-drive-not-found

Settings from which group policy object are processed first during logon? A. Domain B. Organizational Unit C. Local D. Site Answer: C. Local Explanation: Group Policy settings are processed in the following order:

1. Local Group Policy object: Each computer has exactly one Group Policy object that is stored locally. This processes for both computer and user Group Policy processing.
2. Site: Any GPOs that have been linked to the site that the computer belongs to are processed next. Processing is in the order that is specified by the administrator, on the Linked Group Policy Objects tab for the site in Group Policy Management Console (GPMC). The GPO with the lowest link order is processed last, and therefore has the highest precedence.
3. Domain: Processing of multiple domain-linked GPOs is in the order specified by the administrator, on the Linked Group Policy Objects tab for the domain in GPMC. The GPO with the lowest link order is processed last, and therefore has the highest precedence.
4. Organizational units: GPOs that are linked to the organizational unit that is highest in the Active Directory hierarchy are processed first, then GPOs that are linked to its child organizational unit, and so on. Finally, the GPOs that are linked to the organizational unit that contains the user or computer are processed. Reference: Order of processing settings https://technet.microsoft.com/sv- se/library/cc778890%28v=ws.10%29.aspx What is required for a computer to print to either a local or a network printer? A. 500 GB of free hard disk space B. Printer Device Drivers C. 1 GB of RAM D. Administration tools Answer: B. Printer Device Drivers You need to see what effect the applied group policies are having on an individual user or computer. What should you use?

A. Local Users and Groups B. Resultant Set of Policy C. Local Security Policy D. Effective Permissions Answer: B. Resultant Set of Policy You need to troubleshoot network environment problems. First, you define the issues that are most likely causing the symptoms. Then you eliminate each issue until the symptoms disappear. This approach is referred to as: A. Performance troubleshooting B. Specific troubleshooting C. Trial and error troubleshooting D. Systematic troubleshooting Answer: D. Systematic troubleshooting Explanation: The ability to troubleshoot effectively reduces downtime and increases safety. A Systematic approach brings efficiencies to the process of troubleshooting. Step 1: Observe Behavior Step 2: Define Problem Area Step 3: Identify Possible causes Step 4: Determine Most Probable cause Step 5: Test and Repair Follow-up Reference: http://www.troubleshootingskills.com/how-it-works/systematic-approach/ Which technology is used to create and manage relational databases? A. Microsoft Exchange Server B. Microsoft Commerce Server C. Microsoft Groove Server D. Microsoft SQL Server Answer: D Explanation: SQL Server databases are relational. Which one of the following allows you to automate the installation of Windows Server 2008 on several servers.

A. Microsoft Software Installer (MSI) B. Unattendinstall.exe C. Windows Installer Service D. Windows Deployment Services (WDS) Answer: D Explanation: Windows Deployment Services (WDS) enables you to deploy Windows operating systems over the network, which means that you do not have to install each operating system directly from a CD or DVD. Benefits of Windows Deployment Services include: Supports deploying images for mixed environments including Windows 7and Windows Server 2008 R2 through Windows 8.1and Windows Server 2012 R2. Allows network-based installation of Windows operating systems, which reduces the complexity and cost when compared to manual installations. Reference: Windows Deployment Services Overview https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/hh831764.aspx An external storage unit that is self-contained and provides shared file-level access is referred to as: A. Small Computer System Interface (SCSI). B. Storage Area Network (SAN). C. Network Attached Storage (NAS). D. Direct Attached Storage (DAS). Answer: C. Network Attached Storage (NAS) Explanation: Network-attached storage (NAS) is file-level computer data storage connected to a computer network providing data access to a heterogeneous group of clients. NAS not only operates as a file server, but is specialized for this task either by its hardware, software, or configuration of those elements. NAS is often manufactured as a computer appliance a specialized computer built from the ground up for storing and serving files rather than simply a general purpose computer being used for the role. Which file storage system can be used on a Windows Server? A. NFS B. NTFS C. EXT D. FAT

Answer: B. NTFS Explanation: NTFS (New Technology File System) is a proprietary file system developed by Microsoft. Starting with Windows NT 3.1, it is the default file system of the Windows NT family. https://technet.microsoft.com/pt-pt/library/cc781134(v=ws.10).aspx True or False: A Windows 2008 R2 Server that has an operations master role must also be a domain controller. Answer: True A Windows 2008 R2 Server that has an operations master role must also be a domain controller. Active Directory defines five operations master roles: the schema master, domain naming master, relative identifier (RID) master, primary domain controller (PDC) emulator, and infrastructure master. The domain controllers that hold operations master roles are designated to perform specific tasks to ensure consistency and to eliminate the potential for conflicting entries in the Active Directory database. Active Directory is a multimaster enabled database, which provides the flexibility of allowing changes to occur at any domain controller in the forest. However, because it is multimaster enabled, it can also allow conflicting updates that can potentially lead to problems when data is replicated throughout the domain or forest. True or False: A single Windows 2008 R2 Server may only be assigned a maximum of one operations master role. Answer: False Explanation: Although you can assign the operations master roles to any domain controller, follow these guidelines to minimize administrative overhead and ensure the performance of Active Directory: --Place the three domain-wide roles on the same domain controller. True or False: Some operations master roles are assigned per domain, while others only need to be assigned to the forest. Answer: True. Some operations master roles are assigned per domain, while others only need to be assigned to the forest. Explanation: Although you can assign the operations master roles to any domain controller, follow these guidelines to minimize administrative overhead and ensure the performance of Active Directory:

--Leave the two forest-wide roles on a domain controller in the forest root domain. --Place the domain-wide roles on a higher performance domain controller. The University Chess Club has a single Windows Server 2008 R2 server. The server has 12 GB of RAM and 1TB of disk space on a RAID 5 array. Using this server, you need to install two separate instances of Windows Server 2008 R2: one to act as a web server and one to act as a database server. Which Windows Server 2008 R2 role or feature provides this capability? A. Windows Deployment Services B. Hyper-V C. Windows System Resource Manager D. Windows Internal Database Answer: A. Hyper-V Explanation: Hyper-V can create virtual machines on x86-64 systems. Starting with Windows 8, Hyper-V supersedes Windows Virtual PC as the hardware virtualization component of the client editions of Windows NT. A server computer running Hyper-V can be configured to expose individual virtual machines to one or more networks. Which should you use to monitor server performance and resource utilization? A. Memory B. Counters C. Boot logs D. RAM Answer: B. Counters Explanation: Performance Counters, Purpose Counters are used to provide information as to how well the operating system or an application, service, or driver is performing. The counter data can help determine system bottlenecks and fine-tune system and application performance. The operating system, network, and devices provide counter data that an application can consume to provide users with a graphical view of how well the system is performing. True or False: iSCSI storage solutions require a private network to communicate with host machines. Answer: False. iSCSI storage solutions do NOT require a private network to communicate with host machines. Explanation: iSCSI works by transporting block-level data between an iSCSI initiator on a server and an

iSCSI target on a storage device. The iSCSI protocol encapsulates SCSI commands and assembles the data in packets for the TCP/IP layer. Packets are sent over the network using a point-to-point connection. https://searchstorage.techtarget.com/definition/iSCSI True or False: Fibre channel storage requires ethernet to communicate with host machines. Answer: False. Explanation: Fibre Channel allows variable media types, multiple protocols, and different interconnection topologies. True or False: Direct attached storage solutions require eSATA connections to attach to a host machine. Answer: False. Direct attached storage solutions does NOT require eSATA connections to attach to a host machine. Explanation: Key Protocols that are generally used for DAS Connections: eSATA, Fibre Channel, SAS or the Serial Attached SCSI. You need to manage your server remotely as if you were seated in front of it. Which tool should you use? A. Remote Desktop Client B. Remote Desktop Session Host C. Remote Desktop Gateway D. Remote Server Administration Tools Answer: D. Remote Server Administration Tools Explanation: Example: Remote Server Administration Tools for Windows 8.1 enables IT administrators to manage roles and features that are installed on computers that are running Windows Server 2012 or Windows Server 2012 R2 from a remote computer that is running Windows 8.1 Pro or Windows 8. Enterprise. Power On Self Test (POST) runs when a computer first boots. Which component software issues this test? A. Complementary Metal Oxide Semiconductor B. Northbridge On Board Chip C. Basic Input/Output System D. Southbridge On Board Chip

Answer: C. Basic Input/Output System Explanation: The four main functions of a PC BIOS (Basic Input/Output System). POST - Test the computer hardware and make sure no errors exist before loading the operating system. Bootstrap Loader - Locate the operating system. If a capable operating system is located, the BIOS will pass control to it. BIOS drivers - Low level drivers that give the computer basic operational control over your computer's hardware. BIOS or CMOS Setup - Configuration program that allows you to configure hardware settings including system settings such as computer passwords, time, and date. Reference: http://www.computerhope.com/jargon/b/bios.htm You need to centralize management of network printers. You also need to enable users to choose a printer based on location. What should you do? A. Create multiple print servers B. Publish the printers in Active Directory C. Set up Web printing D. Create a printer pool Answer: B. Publish the printers in Active Directory Explanation: Publishing your shared printers in Active Directory can make locating printers across a network more efficient for your users. Which two locations can a Windows Server be backed up to? (Choose two) A. Network router B. Local drive C. Local DFS root share D. Remote share folder Answer: B. Local drive, D. Remote share folder Explanation: A backup is an active copy of the system or files that you are using. It is distinguished from an archive, which is the storing of data that is no longer in active use. Backups fall into two main categories: file and image. File backup software will back up whichever files you designate by either letting you include files you wish backed up or by excluding files you don't want backed up, or both. An image backup, sometimes called a disaster recovery backup or a system clone, is useful if you need to

recreate your system on a new drive or computer. The destination for your backup could be another drive on your computer, an attached drive, a network-attached drive (NAS), or the cloud. Which tool would you use to retrieve detailed information about a significant occurrence in a computer system? A. Event Viewer B. System Information C. System Monitor D. Resource Monitor Answer: A. Event Viewer Explanation: The Windows Event Viewer shows a log of application and system messages, including errors, information messages, and warnings. https://www.howtogeek.com/123646/htg-explains-what- the-windows-event-viewer-is-and-how-you-can-use-it/ Which tool should you use to track real-time system resource utilization? A. System Information B. Component Services C. Device Manager D. Perfmon Answer: D Explanation: Example: How to use Perfmon to collect Microsoft Windows performance counters Open the WinX menu in Windows 8 and select Run. Type perfmon.exe and hit Enter to open the Performance Monitor. In the left pane, select the User Defined node, right-click on it and select New > Data Collector Set. Etc. You manage the servers for the School of Business at your university. The school has a Hyper-V server that runs three virtual machines (VMs). Each VM runs Windows Server 2008 R2. You need to apply the latest Windows server updates to each of the VMs. You need to be able to revert the servers back to their original state before applying the updates. Which Microsoft Virtualization feature should you use? A. Live Migration B. Snapshots

C. VHD Virtual Hard Disks D. Failover Cluster Answer: B. Snapshots Explanation: Snapshots provide a fast and easy way to revert the virtual machine to a previous state. What is required to create a volume mount point? A. A dynamic disk B. RAID 1 implementation C. An NTFS file system volume or partition D. Extended volumes Answer: C. An NTFS file system volume or partition Explanation: A volume mount point can be placed in any empty folder of the host NTFS volume. What must you install in order to host a Web site on a Windows Server? A. Active Directory Sites and Services B. Windows Internet Naming Service (WINS) C. Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN) D. Internet Information Server (IIS) Answer: D. Internet Information Server (IIS) Explanation: IIS is a web server software package designed for Windows Server. It is used for hosting websites and other content on the Web. Microsoft's Internet Information Services provides a graphical user interface (GUI) for managing websites and the associated users. You need to monitor the performance of a server. What should you create first? A. Baseline B. Counters C. Page File D. Alerts Answer: A. Baseline Explanation: Later compare the performance to the baseline.

You need to centralize administration of print servers and network printers. What should you use? A. Print Management B. Printers and Faxes C. Device Manager D. Print queue Answer: A. Print Management Explanation: There are two primary tools that you can use to administer a Windows print server in Windows Server 2008: Server Manager and Print Management. True or False: AppCmd.exe allows detailed command-line administration of an IIS 7.5 webserver. True. Explanation: AppCmd.exe is the single command line tool for managing IIS 7 and above. It exposes all key server management functionality through a set of intuitive management objects that can be manipulated from the command line or from scripts. https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/iis/get-started/getting-started-with-iis/getting-started-with- appcmdexe Which of the following allows detailed graphical administration of an IIS 7.5 webserver? A. AppCmd.exe B. Inetmgr.exe C. Server Manager D. HyperV Answer: B. Inetmgr.exe Explanation: inetmgr.exe is a command to launch IIS server from a windows prompt. IIS Manager enables you to configure Internet Information Services (IIS). The IIS Manager is the graphical user interface of IIS, Microsoft's web server. Which of the following must be explicitly enabled to allow for remote management of IIS 7 and above? A. AppCmd.exe B. Inetmgr.exe

C. WMSVC

D. Remote Desktop Services Answer:C. WMSVC Remote management of IIS 7.0 and above through Internet Information Services (IIS) Manager must be explicitly enabled. These are the steps for enabling remote administration of your IIS server.

1. Install the Web Management Service (WMSVC).
2. Enable remote connections.
3. Optionally set other configuration, e.g.: a. HTTPS binding (port, IP address, and/or SSL certificate) b. IP and domain restrictions.
4. Start WMSVC, and optionally change the service Startup Type from Manual to Automatic. Starting WMSVC is the last step because WMSVC cannot be configured while running. You need to limit what a service can access. You should change the service's: A. Dependencies B. Status C. Startup type D. Logon options Answer: D. Logon options Explanation: Logon options include:

• Log on as: No change: Use this setting to keep the service's logon credentials as previously configured.
• Log on as: Local System account: Use this setting to change the service's logon credentials to the Local System account.
• Log on as: This account: Use this setting to change the service's logon credentials to a specific local or domain user. This account and Password settings become available once you click this option. You need to assign permissions to access resources. Which type of group should you use? A. Workgroup

B. Security group C. Organizational group D. Distribution group Answer: B. Security group Explanation: security groups control access to the Workgroup server's functionality. Your relative is the owner of Humongous Insurance, and you provide part time IT support for the company's Windows desktops and servers. All of its computers are on a private network behind a firewall. Because you are going away to college, you need a secure method to manage the servers and desktops. Which two Windows 2008 R2 features should you use? (Choose two.) A. VPN Server B. Hyper-V C. Remote Desktop D. Active Directory Federation Services E. FTP Server Answer: A. VPN Server, C. Remote Desktop Explanation: You can set VPN Server or Remote Desktop to securely access the network remotely. You need to create a group that includes users from different domains in a single forest. You also need to enable the group to access resources in any domain in the forest. Which type of group should you create? A. Workgroup B. Local group C. Universal group D. Global group E. Domain Local group Answer: C Explanation: Universal Group:

• Group can include as members Accounts from any domain within the forest in which this Universal Group resides
• Global groups from any domain within the forest in which this Universal Group resides

• Universal groups from any domain within the forest in which this Universal Group resides
• Group can be assigned permissions in Any domain or forest What are two functions of the Group Policy loopback feature? (Choose two.) A. Apply Group Policy Objects for only the current site. B. Apply Group Policy Objects that depend only on the computer the user logs on to. C. Apply only the local computer Group Policy Object. D. Give higher precedence to computer policy over user policy. Answer: B,D Explanation: Loopback processing of Group Policy has two different modes, Replace and Merge.
• (B) Replace mode replaces User Configuration with the one applied to the Computer.
• (D) In Merge mode, if there is a conflict, for example two policies provide different values for the same configuration setting, the Computers policy has more privilege compared to the user policy. Reference: http://kudratsapaev.blogspot.se/2009/07/loopback-processing-of-group- policy.html Settings from the ___________ Group Policy Object are processed last during logon. A. Site B. Organizational Unit C. Domain D. Local Answer: B. Organizational Unit Explanation: Group Policy settings are processed in the following order:

1. Local Group Policy object
2. Site
3. Domain
4. Organizational Unit Reference: Group Policy processing and precedence https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc785665%28v=ws.10%29.aspx Running a system in safe mode: A. protects the system from viruses. B. protects the system from data loss.

C. loads a minimum number of drivers. D. prevents unauthorized access. Answer: C. loads a minimum number of drivers. Active Directory __________________________ can only be assigned permissions to resources within the same domain but can have members from other domains. A. Global groups B. Universal groups C. Domain local groups D. Distribution groups Answer: C. Domain local groups Explanation: Distributions groups are used as recipients of email messages. Domain local groups: Member permissions can be assigned only within the same domain as the parent domain local group Group can include as member: Accounts from any domain Global groups from any domain Universal groups from any domain Reference: Group scope https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc755692%28v=ws.10%29.aspx Domain local groups but only from the same domain as the parent domain local group Which task is executed during the Power-On Self Test (POST)? A. The amount of system RAM is detected. B. The Master Boot Record is created. C. The operating system is initialized. D. Disk file systems are detected. Answer: A. The amount of system RAM is detected. Explanation: The principal duties of the main BIOS during POST are as follows:

• verify CPU registers
• verify the integrity of the BIOS code itself
• verify some basic components like DMA, timer, interrupt controller (A) find, size, and verify system main memory initialize BIOS pass control to other specialized BIOSes (if and when required)
• identify, organize, and select which devices are available for booting