MTMI CIIP registry review questions with correct answer, Exams of Nursing

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MTMI CIIP registry review questions with

correct answers

what letter describes the following correctly in ascending order? a. megabyte, terabyte, byte, gigabyte, kilobyte b. byte, kilobyte, megabyte, terabyte, gigabyte c. terabyte, gigabyte, megabyte, kilobyte, byte d. byte, kilobyte, megabyte, gigabyte, terabyte Answer✓✓ d. byte, kilobyte, megabyte, gigabyte, terabyte an ip address consists of? a. 64 bits over 4 octets of numbers from 0- b. 32 bytes over 4 octets of numbers from 0- c. 32 bits over 4 octets of numbers from 0- d. 64 bytes over 4 octets of numbers from 0-255 Answer✓✓ c. 32 bits over 4 octets of numbers from 0- which format do computers use to process ip v4 addrsses a. base 2 b. base 16 c. base 10 d. base 8 Answer✓✓ a. base 2

in the folowing example, which number identifies the host?

• ip address = 10.1.6.
• subnet mask = 255.255.255.
• a.
• b.
• c.
• d. 234 Answer✓✓ d.
• a. 72.229.177. all of the following ip addresses fall within private ranges except:
• b. 10.201.100.
• c. 192.168.15.
• d. 172.16.1.1 Answer✓✓ a. 72.229.177.
• pacs server ip address = 10.1.6. given the following scenario what is the most likely to be the cause of the problem
• us unit ip address = 10.1.6.
• cr unit ip address = 10.1.6.
• ct scanner ip address = 10.1.6.
• mwl server ip address = 10.1.1.

a. HTML b. COBOL c. SQL d. XML Answer✓✓ c. SQL the schema of a database a. is a unique identifier for the database b. is a primary key of another table c. is used to increase the performance of queries by maintaining a sorted list of the contents of some particular table column d. is what defines the tables. the fields in each table and the relationships between field and tables Answer✓✓ d. is what defines the tables. the fields in each table and the relationships between field and tables what is the UID for a table in a database called? a. primary key b. foreign key c. index d. unique key Answer✓✓ a. primary key which sql command does not alter the data in a database? a. delete b. insert

c. update d. select Answer✓✓ d. select what's a MAC address? a. media access control b. media accessory controller c. motherboard access control d. media accessor chip Answer✓✓ a. media access control what does TCP/IP stand for a. transmission control packets/internet packets b. transmission control protocol/internet packets c. transmission change protocol/ internet protocol d. transmission change of packets/ internet packets Answer✓✓ b. transmission control protocol/internet packets how do dynamic IP addresses get assigned in a network? a. DNS b. ethernet c. NAT d. DHCP Answer✓✓ d. DHCP what is DNS?

c. IPv d. IPv4 Answer✓✓ d. IPv what is the DICOM entity called which assumes the role of a server process? a. SOP b. SCU c. SCP d. SID Answer✓✓ c. SCP what best describes the function of the AE title a. the host name of the computer b. the representation used to identify the DICOM nodes communication between each other c. the role that a DICOM application is assuming at a given time d. the entity that controls the rate of a transmission between DICOM nodes Answer✓✓ b. the representation used to identify the DICOM nodes TCP ports are used for the following purpose a. to distinguish which node to communicate with b. to distinguish which AE title to communicate with c. to map data to a particular process d. to map IP addresses to DICOM AE titles Answer✓✓ c. to map data to a particular process

what dicom command is used for the verification service a. c_echo b. c_store c. c_find d c_move Answer✓✓ a. c_echo which best describes a dicom sop a. the particular role that a dicom ae title is assuming at a given time b. the specific service that is being utilized during dicom communication c. the generic property information of a dicom object d. the combination of a dicom service an object Answer✓✓ d. the combination of a dicom service an object a dicom store scp acts on which of the following a. master patient index b. medical record number c. accession number d. study instance service object pair Answer✓✓ d. study instance service object pair what is an example of an enterprise wide patient UID a. medical record number b. master patient index

b. matching AE title c, using the same tcp port for multiple destinations d. mismatched network interface speeds and duplex settings Answer✓✓ d. mismatched network interface speeds and duplex settings among other things a dicom conformance statement will specify a. what the rate of image transfer will be for the dicom application b. what the ae title will be for the dicom application c. which sop classed the dicom application will support d. whcih tcp port number ranges the dicom application will support Answer✓✓ c. which sop classed the dicom application will support the dicom verification service class would allow an end user to determine a. that the local network is functioning and the dicom configuration is correct b. that the local network is failing but the dicom application is correctly configured c. that the local network interfaces are configured for the correct speed and duplex d. that the local network is not functioning Answer✓✓ a. that the local network is functioning and the dicom configuration is correct what is the client side process called in dicom a. sct b. scp c. sop

d. scu Answer✓✓ d. scu what is the server side process called in dicom a. sct b. scp c. sop d. scu Answer✓✓ b. scp what is a connection between two nodes in dicom a. communication b. association c. correlation d. integration event Answer✓✓ b. association the combination of a __________ and a __________ is called a service object pair (sop) a. aet, dicom port number b. calling ae, called ae c. dimse, iod d. abstract syntax, transfer syntax Answer✓✓ c. dimse, iod in a dicom association negotiation, which of the following are negotiatied?

d. us image storage Answer✓✓ d. us image storage IHE is which of the following a. a healthcare specific communications protocol b. a general information technology communication protol c. an initiative by healthcare professionals and industry to improve the way computer systems in healthcare share information d. an initiative by the us government to standardize interoperability in healthcare Answer✓✓ c. an initiative by healthcare professionals and industry to improve the way computer systems in healthcare share information which of the following correctly describes the steps of the ihe process a. specify integration profiles, identify interoperability problems, publish integration statements, test systems at the connectathon b. identify interoperability problems, specify integration profiles, test systems at the connectathon, publish integration statements c. test systems at the connectathon, specify integration profiles, identify interoperability problems, publish integration statements d. identify interoperability problems, publish integration statements, test systems at the connectathon, specify integration profiles Answer✓✓ b. identify interoperability problems, specify integration profiles, test systems at the connectathon, publish integration statements an ihe actor is which of the following a. system of part of a system that creates, manages or acts upon data

b. a specific interacion between systems to exchange information c. a specific means to provide a more precise definition of how standards (dicom & hl7) are implemented d. a document which describes how communication between systems should take place Answer✓✓ a. system of part of a system that creates, manages or acts upon data which ihe integration profile would be used to describe a means to enables single sigh-on by facilitating one name per user for participating devices and software? a. PWP b. XDS-I C. CT d. EUA Answer✓✓ d. EUA which of the following is not a component of the scheduled workflow integration profile? a. order placer b. order creator c. image display d. image creator Answer✓✓ b. order creator the PEP integration profile would likely use which of the following protocols? a. hl b. dicom

according to ihe, swf, the study accession number should be equated with the a. hl7 placer order number b. hl7 filler order number c. requested procedure ID d. scheduled procedure ID Answer✓✓ b. hl7 filler order number according to the ihe radiology technical framework white paper, a worklist manager needs to be able to do all of the following tasks except a. create worklist items b. receive output from worklist clients c. provide worklists to worklist clients d. receive PPSs (directly or indirectly) from its own worklist clients Answer✓✓ b. receive output from worklist clients the ihe __________ is designed to provide a reliable way of specifying a level of adherence to communications standards to achieve truly efficient interoperability. these standards could include dicom and hl7 among others a. initiative b. standard c. implementation d. communication Answer✓✓ a. initiative the ihe import reconciliation workflow benefits patient diagnoses by

a. allowing ready access to prior studies for comparison b. providing accurate labeling of image processed data c. giving accurate access to problem lists on an EMR from pacs d. creating efficient access to critical patient results Answer✓✓ d. creating efficient access to critical patient results which security model safeguards against unauthorized use of a pacs application a. database b. network c. host d. domain Answer✓✓ a. database HIPAA is described as a. health insurance provider acountability act b. health insurance principal accounability act c. health insurer promissory and acceptance act d. health insurance portability and accountability act Answer✓✓ d. health insurance portability and accountability act which provision of HIPAA outlines how PHI should be transmitted electronically? a. privacy rule b. transaction and code sets rule c. security rule

the hipaa security rule requires healthcare covered entities to a. ensure only those who should have access to electronic protected health information will access b. ensure that everyone who wants access to protected health information be granted access c. ensure that all protected health information is restricted, including electronic, written, and oral d. ensure that only the protected health information that a patient identifies to be secure will be restricted Answer✓✓ a. ensure only those who should have access to electronic protected health information will access the hippaa privacy rule requirements are classified into which three categories a. administrative, physical, technical b. operations, clinical, technical c. administrative, technical, security officer requirements d. operations, training, contingency planning Answer✓✓ a. administrative, physical, technical which of the following best describes the hipaa security regulation a. requires it departments to assess the potential risks and vulnerabilities of ephi b. required hospitals to confirm patients approve the display of ephi c. require health care providers to assess the potential risks and vulnerabilities of ephi

d. required approved healthcare providers to evaluate vulnerabilities in displaying ephi Answer✓✓ c. require health care providers to assess the potential risks and vulnerabilities of ephi hipaa provides instructions for implementing each security standard and each hipaa implementation standard is designed as either a. responsible or addressable b. required or addressable c. required or avoidable d. responsible or avoidable Answer✓✓ b. required or addressable an example of a hipaa security rule technical safeguard would include a. a hospital wide services downtime contingency plan b. identification of a hipaa security officer c. performing routine security training and awareness communications d. limiting access to applications by requiring unique user ID's Answer✓✓ d. limiting access to applications by requiring unique user ID's which protocol or standard would be used to communicate a new registration from a ris a. dicom b. hl c. ihe d. tcp/ip Answer✓✓ b. hl