NAFI CFEI EXAM 2025 ACTUAL EXAM QUESTIONS& DETAILED CORRECT ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES, Exams of Nursing

Download NAFI CFEI EXAM 2025 ACTUAL EXAM QUESTIONS& DETAILED CORRECT ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! NAFI CFEI EXAM 2025 ACTUAL EXAM PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND DETAILED CORRECT ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES Deflagrations are propagating reactions, a subtype of chemical explosions, and as such are defined in which of the following definitions? (There may be more than one correct choice.) A. The energy is transferred from the reaction zone to the unreacted zone on a reactive shockwave. B. The velocity of the reaction is always greater than the speed of sound. C. Structural damage is uniform and omnidirectional. D. Relatively widespread evidence of burning, scorching, and blistering result. Correct Answer C and D. Deflagrations are propagating reactions in which the energy transfer is accomplished through ordinary process such as heat and mass transfer. The rate of such reactions is controlled by the rate of the particular transfer phenomena but at a velocity that is less than the speed of sound (subsonic). Deflagrations usually results in structural damage that is uniform and omnidirectional and thus a widespread evidence of burning, scorching, and blistering. Identify the two major types of explosions from the choices below. A. Explosions that originate from strictly physical phenomena, such as a boiler explosion B. Explosions that originate due to the rapid combination of ammonium nitrate and fuel oil(ANFO) C. Explosions in which a chemical reaction is a source of the high-pressure gas D. Explosion that is the result of rapid expansion of gas due to the Rickover Effect Correct Answer A and C Mechanical, physical, and chemical are the three major types of explosions. However, there are several subtypes within each classification Dust explosions occur in a wide variety of materials. Regardless of the material, which of the following factor(s) is / are fundamental for an analysis of a dust explosion? (There may be more than one Correct Answer.) A. Particle size of the dust B. Moisture of the dust particle C. Turbulence within the suspended dust-air mixture D. Concentration of the dust in air E. Ignition temperature of the dust Correct Answer All of them It is helpful to characterize the explosion incident on the basis of the damage that has occurred to the structure. C. Fires inside and outside a building D. Fires in different rooms Correct Answer B. Fires spread through shafts True or false: Confirmation of multiple fires is a strong indication that the fire was incendiary. A. True B. False Correct Answer A. True Fire patterns from fuels intentionally distributed from one area to another are known as A. Connectors B. Accelerants C. Linear D. Trailers Correct Answer D. Trailers What should an investigator do on finding an incendiary device that has not activated? A. Notify trained personnel for handing B. Examine device to determine fuel type C. Collect device for use as evidence D. Document the location and continue searching for other devices Correct Answer A. Notify trained personnel for handing Which evidentiary factor used by serial arsonists involves setting fires to coincide with other events to increase the chances of not being apprehended? A. Crime concealment B. Temporal frequency C. Timed opportunity D. Sequential prospect Correct Answer C. Timed opportunity Which classification of fire arsonist behavior involves an offender who sets three or more fires at separate locations with no emotional cooling-off period between fires? A. Mass B. Spree C. Serial D. Extreme Correct Answer B. Spree Which subcategory of revenge retaliation is generally not satisfied with a single fire? A. Institutional B. Personal C. Group D. Societial Correct Answer D. Societial True or false: Any removal of evidence from a fire scene that results in its deterioration or spoilage is known as spoliation. A. True B. False Correct Answer B. False. Fire investigation usually requires removing some evidence from the scene. In and of itself, this removal is not necessarily considered spoliation. True or false: Fire scene examinations should not be undertaken alone. A. True B. False Correct Answer A. True Who grants permission for a fire investigator to enter a scene before the fire is completely extinguished? A. State fire marshal B. Investigator's immediate supervisor C. Incident scene commander D. Fire suppression personnel Correct Answer C. Incident Scene Commander. What steps should be taken when an unauthorized individual is found within the fire investigation scene area? A. Identified, noted, and required to leave B. Arrested on suspicion of arson C. Identified, noted, and held for questioning D. Arrested for loitering Correct Answer A. Identified, noted, and required to leave Which of the following may NOT be a component of a thorough fire investigation? A. Photos of the fire scene B. Interviews with witnesses C. Visiting the fire scene D. Photo diagram Correct Answer A. Sequential photographs Taking what type of photograph is most challenging to the fire investigator? A. Exterior photographs B. Appliance photographs C. Evidence photographs D. Interior photographs Correct Answer D. Interior photographs True or false: In legal and law enforcement organizations physical evidence is also knows as real evidence. A. True B. False Correct Answer A. True True or false: The recommended container for the collection of liquid and / or solid evidence is a common plastic bag. A. True B. False Correct Answer B. False True or false: An investigator should label all evidence for storage immediately on returning to the office. A. True B. False Correct Answer B. False True or false: The diagramming and photographing of physical evidence at a fire scene should be done before the evidence is moved or disturbed. A. True B. False Correct Answer A. True True or false: To avoid cross-contamination, all collection tools should be properly cleaned, and new latex gloves should be used during the collection of each subsequent item sample evidence at a scene with multiple areas of fire origin. A. True B. False Correct Answer A. True True or false: The fire service plays a vital role in preserving physical evidence to promote fire prevention and arson prosecution. A. True B. False Correct Answer A. True True or false: The most important physical evidence is most often located at or near of the point of fire origin. A. True B. False Correct Answer A. True True or false: Samples of a suspected ignitible liquid can be properly placed in an evidence can for laboratory analysis. A. True B. False Correct Answer B. False True or false: Any sample that is obtained by canine alert must be confirmed by laboratory analysis to be considered valid. A. True B. False Correct Answer A. True True or false: The responsibility for the preservation of the fire scene and physical evidence lies solely with the fire investigator. A. True B. False Correct Answer B. False Which of the following terms refers to the documentation needed to establish the proper control of an item of evidence between the fire scene and the courtroom? A. Preservation B. Chain of custody C. Evidence log D. Chain of integrity Correct Answer B. Chain of custody True or false: Evidence containers should be filled to two- thirds capacity with sample material for laboratory testing A. True B. False Correct Answer A. True True or false: If there is a possibility that a test or examination may alter a piece of evidence, it should be performed only after all potential parties in a litigation should be notified and provided an opportunity to observe the test. A. True B. False Correct Answer B. False True or false: The nature of responsibility in a fire or explosion incident may be in the form of an act or omission. A. True B. False Correct Answer A. True True or false: One means of identifying the quality of data on a timeline is by showing events related to the fire incident as hard times or soft times. A. True B. False Correct Answer A. True Significant entries that are particularly valuable as a foundation for a timeline or that have significant relation to the cause, spread, detection, or extinguishment are referred to as what type of event? A. Benchmark B. Historical C. Micro D. Parallel Correct Answer A. Benchmark events are particularly valuable as a foundation for the timeline or may have significant relation to the cause, spread, detection, or extinguishment of a fire. On what does a macro evaluation of a timeline usually focus? A. One discrete segment of the total timeline B. Two or more series of events in a timeline C. Activities that occurred before the fire D. The entire timeline of events Correct Answer C. To effectively evaluate and document the sequence of events precipitating the fire, the actual fire incident, and postfire activity, it is quite possible that two or more timelines will be required. A macro evaluation of events incorporates activities that occurred prior to the fire or event, whereas a micro evaluation is specific in time and focuses on some discrete segment of the total timeline. What kind of reasoning is used when developing a fault tree logic diagram for a fire or explosion events? A. Inductive B. Deductive C. Analytical D. Subjective Correct Answer B. Fault trees are developed by using deductive reasoning.(연역법) Deductive reasoning is used by the fire investigator to compare a hypothesis to all know facts. True or false: Failure mode and effects analysis (FMEA) is a technique used to identify basic sources of failure within a system and is best utilized for small fires. A. True B. False Correct Answer B. False. (See NFPA 921, Chapter 20, for more information.) Which type of analysis is used to predict fire phenomena and characteristics of the environment? A. Egress analysis B. Structural analysis C. Fire dynamics analysis D. Thermodynamic chemical equilibrium analysis Correct Answer C. (See NFPA 921, Chapter 20, Paragraph 20.4.8, for more information.) When using fire dynamics analyses, which category divides each room into two or more spaces? A. Specialized fire dynamics routines B. Field models C. Computational fluid dynamics D. Zone models Correct Answer D. (See NFPA 921, Chapter 20, Paragraph 20.4.8.3(b), for more information.) True or false: A meaningful analysis of a fire requires understanding of the heat release rate, fire growth rate, and total heat released. A. True B. False Correct Answer A. True. (See NFPA 921, Chapter 20, Paragraph 20.6.2, for more information.) True or false: When conducting a fire test or using a fire model, it is important to understand the ventilation conditions to validate the test. A. True B. False Correct Answer A. True The seat of an explosion is defined as the crater or a area of greatest damage, located at the point or epicenter of an explosion. Grain dust explosions most often occur in confined areas of relatively wide dispersal, such as grain elevators. The large areas of origin preclude the production of pronounced seats of explosion. True or false: The vapor density of the gas-vapor fuel has a direct correlation with the relative elevation of the structural explosion damage above floor level as a result of the explosion. A. True B. False Correct Answer B. False. It was once widely thought that if the walls of a particular structure were blown out at floor level, the fuel gas was heavier than air, and conversely, if the walls were blown out at ceiling level, the fuel was lighter than air. However, the level of the explosion damage within a conventional room is a function of the construction strength of the wall headers and bottom plates, the least resistant giving way first. True or false: Crime scenes such as murder or burglary that also involve fires usually destroy all physical evidence. A. True B. False Correct Answer B. False True or false: X-rays should be taken of the entire body and of the clothing and associated debris found near the body. A. True B. False Correct Answer A. True. (See NFPA 921, Chapter 23, Paragraph 23.3.1.) True or false: Carbon monoxide causes a cherry-pink coloration to the skin of the fire victim and is visible on all skin types. A. True B. False Correct Answer B. False. (See NFPA 921, Chapter 23, Paragraph 23.3.2.) True or false: Carbon monoxide causes a cherry-pink coloration to the skin of the fire victim and is visible on all skin types. A. True B. False Correct Answer B. False. (See NFPA 921, Chapter 23, Paragraph 23.3.2.) True or false: Evidence of smoke or soot in the lungs, bronchi, and trachea is one of the most significant factors in confirming that the victim was alive and breathing smoke during the fire. A. True B. False Correct Answer A. True. (See NFPA 921, Chapter 23, Paragraph 23.3.4.) True or false: The pugilistic attitude is a direct result of the fire. A. True B. False Correct Answer A. True. (See NFPA 921, Chapter 23, Paragraph 23.3.5.1.) True or false: Under certain circumstances, human bodies can spontaneously combust. A. True B. False Correct Answer B. False. (See NFPA 921, Chapter 23, Paragraph 23.3.6.2.) True or false: The remains of infants cannot be completely destroyed in a fire to the point where identification may not be possible. A. True B. False Correct Answer B. False. (See NFPA 921, Chapter 23, Paragraph 23.4.1.) True or false: Blood can accumulate fatal levels of carbon monoxide even when the victim is exposed to low-level concentrations in the air. A. True B. False Correct Answer A. True. (See NFPA 921, Chapter 23, Paragraph 23.5.1.) True or false: The presence, absence, and pattern of areas of lividity can help to establish the position of the until all parties have been notified. (Disassembly should be conducted only by someone who has the proper expertise.) How should an investigator obtain the manufacturer name, model number, serial number, date of manufacture, and any warnings that may be located on an appliance that was determined to be in the area of fire origin? A. Move the appliance after all parties have been notified. B. Attempt to find an exemplary unit to obtain the manufacturer and model. C. Move the appliance only after it has been properly photographed and diagrammed, including the position of all the controls, power settings, and movable parts. D. Locate the information on the front panel of the appliance or similar model. Correct Answer C. It may be necessary for the investigator to obtain information about the appliance so that other parties can be notified and for documentation. It is oftentimes necessary to move the appliance to these data and should be done with minimal disturbance. The appliance must be properly documented before being removed. True or false: The condition of a plastic appliance in and of itself is an adequate indicator of the point of origin. A. True B. False Correct Answer B. False (See NFPA 921, Chapter 24, Paragraph 24.5.1.5.) What information can be gained by examination of damage patterns on an appliance? A. The rate of heat release B. The point of flashover C. The source of ignition energy D. The direction of fire spread Correct Answer C. Failure of an appliance may generate energy and leave patterns on the appliance. However, burn patterns on appliances may be the result of other material burning near the appliance or other factors not related to the cause. Once an investigator determines that an appliance is in the area of origin and in the likely cause, what is the next step? A. Determine the first material ignited and how ignition took place. B. Check for recalls or other safety information on the appliance. C. Disassemble the appliance in an attempt to identify the manufacturing defect in the appliance. D. Determine whether the appliance malfunctioned. Correct Answer A. The investigator needs to determine whether there is enough energy provided by the appliance to ignite the available fuels. If the investigator cannot determine the ignition scenario, additional examination might be needed, or the cause should be classified as undetermined. What types of connectors are found on newer model electrical cords that carry power to the appliance? A. Three-conductor cords equipped with a ground B. A ground conductor if the appliance has over an 18 horsepower motor or is over 2000 watts C. One neutral conductor, one power conductor, and one ground conductor, except if they are double insulated, in which case they have only two conductors D. Polarized cords that may have only two conductors Correct Answer C. Appliances manufactured after 1962 required to have a ground, except some doubleinsulated appliances. They may only have two conductors. What is the function of the wider prongs on 20-amp cords made after 1987? A. Used on appliances with diodes to allow for ground fault protection B. Allow for plug-ins so that the wider blade can be used in the hot or positive receptacle C. Can be plugged into the neutral position on the receptacle D. For universal use so that the appliance can be used in homes with new receptacles Correct Answer C. thermal pellet inside the TCO melts, the device needs to be replaced before the appliance is used ag Which statement best describes a transformer? A. A mechanical switch used to open contacts in order to shut the appliance off if the temperature rises above a certain level B. A protection device that prevents an appliance from overheating C. A mechanism used to reduce voltages from the normal 120 V and to isolate the rest of an appliance from the supply circuit D. A copper winding that can detect a defect in an appliance and cut off the circuit supply Correct Answer C. Fluorescent ballasts manufactured after 1978 are equipped with a thermal protection device. Some transformers are filled with oil or potting compound, yet many others are not. Under normal operating conditions, transformers can operate for a long period of time. However, with long-term use and when ventilation is restricted, windings can short out to each other, causing additional heating What specific type of protective device are motors generally equipped with in counter top appliances? A. A thermal protector that may reset when the motor cools B. Copper motor windings to reduce circuit supply C. Internal overcurrent protection D. Aluminum fan propellers that keep the motor cool Correct Answer A. Newer motors often are equipped with some type of thermal protection devices, many of which reset after they have cooled. Electrical appliances often provide overcurrent circuit protection in the circuits leading to the motor and monitor the current flow to the motor. With what are frost-free refrigerators equipped to keep them from "sweating"? A. Dehumidifiers that monitor the humidity in the unit B. Interior surfaces constructed of polyethylene that do not allow the accumulation of ice or moisture C. Air ventilation systems that cause humidity to condense at the bottom part of the refrigerator D. Heaters located just under the interior faces Correct Answer D. These heaters are low wattage and operate at regular intervals so that the internal surfaces do not sweat (antisweat). What is the function of a ballast on a fluorescent light fixture? A. It transforms the voltage from normal household voltage to a higher voltage. B. It acts as a thermal cutoff device that cannot be reset. C. It reduces the amount of current flow when it senses higher temperatures. D. It is an electronic device that does not have the failure potential of transformers. Correct Answer A. Thermostats that can automatically reset have been installed in ballasts manufactured since 1978. These ballasts are usually identified by a "P" on the label or stamped on thecase. Some of the newer ballasts are electronic. True or false: Once a fuel is ignited in a motor vehicle fire, any additional fuels contained in the vehicle have no effect on the fire growth rate and ultimate damage sustained. A. True B. False Correct Answer B. False The more fuels that become involved, the more intense the fire. True or false: Flash point is of little or no significance when a fuel is released in spray from. A. True B. False Correct Answer A. True. Atomized mists caused from a variety of hydrocarbon fuels under pressure are easily ignited in this form, as any open flame or heat source is usually sufficient to ignite this form of fuels. Which is most likely to cause an electrical overload to factory installed wiring? A. Bundled cables such as the wiring harness B. Accessory wiring under the dash C. Self-regulating wires in heated seats in houses and mobile homes. A. True B. False Correct Answer A. True. (See NFPA 921, Chapter 25, Paragraph 25.12.) True or false: If a wildfire is not attended to quickly, it can reach flashover in a short period of time. A. True B. False Correct Answer B. False. Flashover is the transition from a developing fire to a fully developed fire in a compartment. Rapid ignition of a wildfire fuel complex, such as continuous brush or tree crowns, is not flashover. There are terms that are unique to compartment fires or wildfires, and they should be used accordingly. What does the degree of damage to a wildland fuel indicate? A. Moisture content B. Wind direction C. Fire intensity D. Oil content Correct Answer C. Fire intensity What is the difference between wildfire V-shaped patterns and compartment fire V-pattern? A. Heat transfer B. Ignition source C. Heat release rate D. Orientation of the surface Correct Answer D A V-shaped pattern in a compartment fire is caused by the interaction of the fire plume with a vertical surface. A wildfire V-shaped pattern is caused by the fire spread on a horizontal ground surface True or false: The collection and documentation of wildfire evidence is different from that for structural fires. A. True B. False Correct Answer B. False What should an on-site investigator do during a major investigation if he or she determines that a particular item might be evidence? A. Document the evidence in place and remove it. B. Provide the information to a law enforcement evidence technician, who will then document and remove the item. C. Follow an established and agreed-upon protocol for the collection of evidence. D. Photograph and note its position for later retrieval. Correct Answer C. A protocol regarding evidence collection, processing, and storage should be agreed on by all interested parties prior to conducting the investigation. This will often require that one person assume the responsibilities and perform the duties of the evidence technician and maintain the security of the evidence. Which statement is true regarding the completion of a major investigation in which several parties are involved? A. The investigators will concur at the completion of a major investigation in which several parties are involved? B. Joint investigations can occur simultaneously and involve separate and independent examinations through which each party can develop an independent hypothesis. C. Parties conducting the investigation cooperate and most likely come to the same conclusions. D. Major investigations seldom result in an investigation in which conclusions are drawn and findings are substantiated. Correct Answer B. Joint investigations allow all interested parties an equal opportunity to establish facts and examine their own hypotheses. On a joint investigation, what course of action should be taken by fire officials to best serve the needs of all concerned? A. Through proper planning and communication, allow other investigators to assist or observe. B. Conduct the scene investigation first before allowing other investigators to participate. C. Do not conduct an investigation but instead allow access to the scene to anyone. D. Dismantle the scene with heavy equipment during the scene investigation without regard for the interests of B. One representative from the parties affected by the incident C. One representative from each of the investigative parties D. Only those approved by management of the building Correct Answer C. During major investigations, interested parties normally bring in their own investigation teams. The team members often include investigators, forensic technicians, legal counsel, and other specialized personnel. Each interested party should have one spokesperson at the team leader committee meeting or the organization meeting. Who has the responsibility for monitoring safety conditions at the fire or explosion scene? A. The local police department B. The evidence technician C. All team members D. The building owner Correct Answer C. Safety is of the utmost importance in all investigations and is the responsibility of each person on the scene. Some scenes require one or more safety officers to monitor scene conditions that are subject to change caused by weather conditions or structure alterations. The identification of two points of origin during a fire investigation is sufficient grounds to conclude that the fire was incendiary and no further investigation is required. A. True B. False Correct Answer B. False When evaluating whether a particular source of ignition is competent to ignite a particular fuel the fire and explosion investigator must only compare the temperature of the source of ignition to the ignition temperature of the fuel. A. True B. False Correct Answer B. False Once an ignition source hypothesis has been developed, it is not necessary to evaluate and rule out other potential ignition sources. A. True B. False Correct Answer B. False Alligatoring or alligator charring on a piece of wood is sufficient grounds to conclude that an ignitable liquid burned in close proximity. A. True B. False Correct Answer B. False Spalling is the chipping or pitting of a concrete surface due to rapid heating or cooling. A. True B. False Correct Answer B. False An analysis of reflectivity (shiny or dull) of wood charring provides valuable insight into the temperature and heat release rate of the fire which caused the charring. A. True B. False Correct Answer B.False