Download NAMS MENOPAUSE EXAM 2025 ACCURATE REAL EXAM QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED ANSWERS AND RATIONALE and more Exams Community Health in PDF only on Docsity!
NAMS MENOPAUSE EXAM 2025 ACCURATE REAL EXAM
QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED ANSWERS AND RATIONALES
CURRENTLY TESTING AND FREQUENTLY TESTED
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS EXPERT VERIFIED FOR
GUARANTEED PASS LATEST UPDATE STUDY GUIDE
INCLUSIVE
1. What is the term for the period of endocrinologic, somatic, and transitory psychological changes that occur around the time of menopause? A) Perimenopause B) Climacteric phase C) Menstrual transition D) Postmenopause Answer: B) Climacteric phase Rationale: The climacteric phase encompasses the various physiological and psychological changes that women experience during the transition to menopause. 2. If a woman's Last Menstrual Period (LMP) occurs before age 45, what is this condition called? A) Primary ovarian insufficiency B) Early menopause C) Late menopause D) Menopause transition Answer: B) Early menopause Rationale: Early menopause refers to menopause that occurs before the age of 45, distinguishing it from typical menopausal onset. 3. What term describes menopause that occurs before the age of 40?
A) Premature menopause B) Early menopause C) Primary ovarian insufficiency D) Late menopause Answer: C) Primary ovarian insufficiency Rationale: Primary ovarian insufficiency (POI) is the term used when menopause occurs before the age of 40, indicating a significant decline in ovarian function.
4. A persistent difference of 7 days or more in the length of consecutive menstrual cycles is indicative of which stage? A) Late menopause transition (stage - 1) B) Early menopause transition (stage - 2) C) Perimenopause D) Postmenopause Answer: B) Early menopause transition (stage - 2) Rationale: A persistent variation of 7 days or more between consecutive menstrual cycles signifies the early menopause transition, specifically stage - 2. 5. What is characterized by 60 or more consecutive days of amenorrhea? A) Early menopause transition (stage - 2) B) Late menopause transition (stage - 1) C) Perimenopause D) Primary ovarian insufficiency Answer: B) Late menopause transition (stage - 1) Rationale: Late menopause transition, or stage - 1, is marked by extended periods of amenorrhea, typically 60 days or more.
C) Indian and Korean women D) Middle Eastern women Answer: A) Chinese and Japanese women Rationale: Studies have shown that Chinese and Japanese women generally have lower estradiol levels compared to their white, black, and Hispanic counterparts.
9. What stage is characterized by 5 - 8 years after the Final Menstrual Period (FMP), where somatic aging predominates and genitourinary symptoms increase? A) Stage +1a B) Stage +1b C) Stage +1c D) Stage + Answer: D) Stage + Rationale: Stage +2 occurs 5 - 8 years post-FMP, marked by predominant somatic aging and an increase in genitourinary symptoms. 10. During the early postmenopause stage (2 years after FMP), which of the following hormonal changes occur? A) Decreased FSH and increased estradiol B) Elevated FSH and decreased estradiol C) Elevated LH and increased progesterone D) Decreased LH and increased FSH Answer: B) Elevated FSH and decreased estradiol Rationale: In the early postmenopause stage, FSH levels remain elevated while estradiol levels decrease, reflecting the diminished ovarian function.
11. After menopause, which endocrine labs are typically elevated? A) Estradiol and progesterone B) FSH and LH C) AMH and inhibin B D) Testosterone and DHEA Answer: B) FSH and LH Rationale: Postmenopausal women typically exhibit elevated levels of FSH and LH due to the lack of negative feedback from ovarian hormones. 12. Which hormones work during reproductive years to prevent the depletion of the follicle pool too quickly? A) Estrogen and progesterone B) AMH and inhibin B C) FSH and LH D) Testosterone and DHEA Answer: B) AMH and inhibin B Rationale: Anti-Müllerian Hormone (AMH) and inhibin B are produced by ovarian follicles and help regulate the rate of follicle depletion by providing feedback to the hypothalamic-pituitary axis. 13. A cycle day #3 with elevated estradiol can suppress FSH, leading to what? A) Elevated FSH levels B) Falsely normal FSH level C) Reduced estradiol secretion D) Increased AMH levels Answer: B) Falsely normal FSH level
A) Heart, kidneys, liver B) Vagina, vulva, urethra, trigone of the bladder C) Lungs, pancreas, spleen D) Skin, muscles, bones Answer: B) Vagina, vulva, urethra, trigone of the bladder Rationale: Estrogen receptors are prominently located in the vagina, vulva, urethra, and trigone of the bladder, making these areas significantly affected by changes in estrogen levels during menopause.
17. What are the effects of estrogen on vaginal tissue? A) Increases blood flow, collagen, and hyaluronic acid B) Decreases blood flow and collagen C) Increases elasticity and reduces microbiome support D) None of the above Answer: A) Increases blood flow, collagen, and hyaluronic acid Rationale: Estrogen maintains blood flow, collagen content, and hyaluronic acid within vaginal tissues, supporting the microbiome and protecting against pathogens. 18. Which of the following are vaginal changes associated with menopause? A) Increased elasticity and thickness B) Thinning, loss of elasticity, loss or absence of rugae C) Increased lubrication and rugae D) No significant changes Answer: B) Thinning, loss of elasticity, loss or absence of rugae Rationale: Menopause leads to vaginal thinning, loss of elasticity, and a reduction or absence of rugae due to decreased estrogen levels.
19. Vaginal estrogen therapy is helpful for which type of urinary incontinence? A) Overflow incontinence B) Stress urinary incontinence C) Urgency incontinence D) Functional incontinence Answer: B) Stress urinary incontinence Rationale: Vaginal estrogen therapy can help improve tissue support in the urogenital area, thereby assisting in the management of stress urinary incontinence. 20. Which of the following treatments are used for Female Pattern Hair Loss (FPHL)? A) Minoxidil, spironolactone, finasteride, estrogen therapy B) Only Minoxidil and spironolactone C) Finasteride and estrogen therapy only D) None of the above Answer: A) Minoxidil, spironolactone, finasteride, estrogen therapy Rationale: Treatments for FPHL include topical minoxidil, spironolactone, finasteride, and estrogen therapy to address hormonal influences on hair loss. 21. What ethnicity is most likely to experience more frequent and longer-duration hot flashes? A) Japanese B) Black C) Chinese D) Hispanic Answer: B) Black
C) Vaginal Internal Nodules D) Varicose Inguinal Nodes Answer: B) Vulvar Intraepithelial Neoplasia Rationale: VIN stands for Vulvar Intraepithelial Neoplasia, a precursor to vulvar cancer.
25. What is the most common type of vulvar cancer? A) Adenocarcinoma B) Melanoma C) Squamous cell carcinoma D) Basal cell carcinoma Answer: C) Squamous cell carcinoma Rationale: Squamous cell carcinoma is the most common type of vulvar cancer. 26. Which vulvar disorder is commonly misdiagnosed as eczema or dermatitis? A) Lichen Planus B) Lichen Sclerosus C) Desquamative Inflammatory Vaginitis D) Lichen Simplex Chronicus Answer: C) Desquamative Inflammatory Vaginitis Rationale: Desquamative Inflammatory Vaginitis presents with symptoms similar to eczema or dermatitis, leading to frequent misdiagnosis. 27. What is considered a normal postvoid residual (PVR) volume? A) <50 mL B) <100 mL
C) 100 - 200 mL D) >200 mL Answer: B) <100 mL Rationale: A postvoid residual volume of less than 100 mL is considered normal, while volumes above 200 mL are abnormal.
28. What is the purpose of a pyridium challenge in the context of urinary incontinence? A) To measure bladder capacity B) To differentiate types of incontinence C) To test for urinary infections D) To assess kidney function Answer: B) To differentiate types of incontinence Rationale: The pyridium challenge helps differentiate between types of urinary incontinence by assessing bladder function and response to specific stimuli. 29. Which condition is defined by idiopathic urinary urgency with urinary frequency and sometimes nocturia? A) Stress incontinence B) Overflow incontinence C) Overactive bladder (OAB) D) Functional incontinence Answer: C) Overactive bladder (OAB) Rationale: Overactive bladder (OAB) is characterized by urinary urgency, increased frequency, and sometimes nocturia without an obvious cause.
Rationale: Treatments for FGAD include pharmacological options such as L-arginine, topical alprostadil, Wellbutrin, and oxytocin to enhance genital arousal.
33. Does systemic estrogen therapy cause fibroids to resume growth? A) Yes B) No Answer: B) No Rationale: Systemic estrogen therapy does not typically cause fibroids to resume growth; fibroids often shrink after menopause regardless of hormone therapy. 34. What is true about cognition and menopause? A) Difficulty concentrating and remembering are uncommon B) Memory for verbal information improves after surgical menopause C) Cognitive issues are frequently reported during menopause D) Estrogen has no effect on cognition Answer: C) Cognitive issues are frequently reported during menopause Rationale: Many women report difficulties with concentration and memory during menopause, and estrogen levels can influence cognitive functions. 35. What has a small or no overall effect on cognition in menopausal women? A) Hormone Replacement Therapy (HRT) B) Mediterranean diet C) Physical exercise D) Cognitive Behavioral Therapy Answer: A) Hormone Replacement Therapy (HRT)
Rationale: Meta-analyses of randomized controlled trials have shown that HRT has a small or no overall effect on cognition in menopausal women.
36. According to the WHIMS study, which type of Hormone Replacement Therapy (HRT) is associated with an increased risk of dementia in women aged 65 and older? A) Estrogen Therapy (ET) alone B) Estrogen-Progestin Therapy (EPT) C) Transdermal estradiol D) Local estrogen therapy Answer: B) Estrogen-Progestin Therapy (EPT) Rationale: The WHIMS study found that EPT is associated with a doubled risk of developing dementia in women aged 65 and older, while ET alone did not show a significant increased risk. 37. What treatments are commonly used for migraine abortive therapy? A) Beta Blockers and Antiepileptic Drugs B) Triptans and NSAIDs C) SSRIs and SNRIs D) Calcium Channel Blockers and ACE Inhibitors Answer: B) Triptans and NSAIDs Rationale: Triptans and Non-Steroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drugs (NSAIDs) are commonly used for the acute treatment of migraines. 38. What are the preventive therapies for migraines? A) Triptans and NSAIDs B) Beta Blockers, Antiepileptic Drugs, Tricyclic Antidepressants
A) Graves' disease B) Subacute thyroiditis C) Hashimoto thyroiditis D) Toxic multinodular goiter Answer: C) Hashimoto thyroiditis Rationale: Hashimoto thyroiditis is the most common thyroid disorder in women, characterized by autoimmune-mediated hypothyroidism.
42. If a patient on levothyroxine is started on oral estrogen therapy, what should be done? A) Decrease the dose of levothyroxine B) Recheck TSH levels in 6 - 8 weeks C) Stop levothyroxine D) Switch to a different thyroid medication Answer: B) Recheck TSH levels in 6 - 8 weeks Rationale: Oral estrogens increase thyroid-binding globulin, reducing free T4 levels. Therefore, TSH levels should be rechecked in 6-8 weeks, and the levothyroxine dose may need to be increased. 43. When is treatment of subclinical hypothyroidism recommended? A) When TSH level is below 0.1 mIU/L B) When TSH level is above 10 mIU/L C) When free T4 is elevated D) When TSH is within the normal range Answer: B) When TSH level is above 10 mIU/L Rationale: Treatment of subclinical hypothyroidism is recommended when TSH levels are above 10 mIU/L, indicating more significant thyroid dysfunction.
44. Which thyroid nodules are typically most likely to be malignant? A) Hot nodules B) Cold nodules C) Warm nodules D) Isoechoic nodules Answer: B) Cold nodules Rationale: Cold thyroid nodules, which do not uptake radioactive iodine on scans, are more likely to be malignant compared to hot nodules. 45. How does Hormone Replacement Therapy (HRT) impact gallbladder disease? A) Increases risk of gallstones with both oral and transdermal HRT B) Increases risk of gallstones with oral HRT, lower risk with transdermal C) Decreases risk of gallstones with oral HRT D) Has no impact on gallbladder disease Answer: B) Increases risk of gallstones with oral HRT, lower risk with transdermal Rationale: Oral HRT is associated with an increased risk of gallstones, whereas transdermal HRT carries a lower risk. 46. When did screening for hepatitis C in blood products begin? A) 1980 B) 1992 C) 2000 D) 2010 Answer: B) 1992
C) Yes, but only annually D) No, it is not recommended at all Answer: B) No, only for high-risk groups Rationale: Routine screening for all adults is not recommended; however, baby boomers and other high-risk groups should be screened due to elevated infection rates.
50. What HPV types are considered high-risk? A) Types 6 and 11 B) Types 16 and 18 C) Types 31 and 33 D) Types 45 and 52 Answer: B) Types 16 and 18 Rationale: HPV types 16 and 18 are classified as high-risk types associated with a greater likelihood of developing cervical and other cancers. 51. By age 50, approximately what percentage of US women will have acquired a genital HPV infection? A) 20% B) 40% C) 60% D) 80% Answer: D) 80% Rationale: Around 80% of US women will have acquired a genital HPV infection by the age of 50, making it the most commonly sexually transmitted infection in the country. 52. What is the most commonly sexually transmitted infection in the US?
A) Chlamydia B) Gonorrhea C) Human Papillomavirus (HPV) D) Syphilis Answer: C) Human Papillomavirus (HPV) Rationale: HPV is the most commonly sexually transmitted infection in the United States, with a high prevalence rate among women.
53. What percentage of bone loss do women experience from the menopause transition? A) 2 - 3% B) 5 - 6% C) 10 - 12% D) 15 - 20% Answer: C) 10 - 12% Rationale: Women lose up to 10 - 12% of bone mass during the menopause transition due to decreased estrogen levels. 54. What T-score defines osteopenia? A) - 1 to - 2. B) - 2.5 to - 3. C) - 1 to - 1. D) - 3 to - 4 Answer: A) - 1 to - 2. Rationale: A T-score between - 1 and - 2.5 is indicative of osteopenia, a condition of lower than normal bone density.
