NAPLEX Practice Exam Questions with Complete Verified Solutions 2024/2025, Exams of Health sciences

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NAPLEX Practice Exam Questions with

Complete Verified Solutions 2024/

Which of the following is true regarding niacin formulations? Answer A Niaspan is controlled-release niacin; it causes less flushing but more hepatotoxicity. B Niaspan is extended-release niacin; it causes less flushing and less hepatotoxicity. C Slo-Niacin is sustained-release niacin; it causes less hepatotoxicity but is the most expensive agent. D Slo-Niacin is interchangeable with other niacin formulations. E Niacin decreases both LDL and triglycerides and is one of the classes of drugs that does not cause hepatotoxicity. B TR is beginning amiodarone therapy for new-onset atrial fibrillation. Which of the following statements is correct? Past Medical History: Heart failure Myocardial infarctions X 2 Hypertension Glaucoma Benign prostatic hypertrophy

Medications: Lisinopril 20 mg PO daily Carvedilol 25 mg PO BID Aspirin 81 mg PO daily Lasix 40 mg PO daily Digoxin 0.25 mg PO daily Xalatan 1 drop QHS Proscar 5 mg PO daily Answer A Amiodarone is a p-glycoprotein inhibitor; the dose of digoxin should be decreased by up to 50%. B Amiodarone is a p-glycoprotein inducer; the dose of digoxin should be decreased by 25%. C Amiodarone is a CYP 3A4 inhibitor; the dose of digoxin should be increased by up to 50%. D Amiodarone should not be used in patients with heart failure. E Amiodarone is contraindicated in patients receiving digoxin. A Medical Plaza Pharmacy frequently prepares Magic Mouthwash, a mucosal liquid for chemotherapy patients with mucositis. Based on the master formula record and prescription information below, what would be the appropriate beyond-use-date for this compounded product? Magic Mouthwash Mucosal Liquid Viscous lidocaine 2% 80 mL Mylanta 80 mL Diphenhydramine 12.5 mg/5 mL 80 mL Nystatin suspension 80 mL Prednisolone 15 mg/5 mL 80 mL Distilled water 80 mL Storage: store at room temperature. Instructions: Swish, gargle and spit 5 - 10 mL Q6H PRN. Do not swallow. Answer

A

7 days B 14 days C 30 days D 45 days E 60 days C Question Which of the following statements is true about the progestin-only daily contraceptive pill? Answer A Most products contain medroxyprogesterone with estradiol. B The progestin-only pill should be avoided in women who are breastfeeding. C If a pill is missed and taken 3 or more hours later, a back-up contraceptive method is needed for 48 hours. D The first pack must be started on the Sunday after menstruation begins; there are 21 active pills and 7 inactive pills. E The progestin-only pill is more effective than estrogen/progesterone combinations. C Question A 43 year-old female patient with type 2 diabetes and normal renal function started taking Januvia 100 mg daily in the morning. Which of the following is correct regarding Januvia? (Select ALL that apply.) Answer

A

The generic name is saxagliptin. B It is a glucagon-like peptide (GLP-1) agonist. C It is an alpha-glucosidase inhibitor. D It is weight neutral. E It can cause pancreatitis. D,E Question TC is picking up a prescription for pancreatic enzymes for his son. How should the pharmacist counsel him regarding administration of pancreatic enzymes? Answer A Give half of the dose before eating each meal and the other half of the dose 1 hour after eating each meal. B Give this medication twice daily, first thing in the morning and at bedtime, with a full glass of water. C The capsules will taste better if they are kept in the refrigerator and only removed immediately before each meal and snack. D If the child has difficulty swallowing the capsules, they can be sprinkled into his mouth and washed down with a full glass of water. E Give the full dose before each meal and 1/2 of the normal dose with each snack. E Question A pharmacist is compounding an anesthetic cream by mixing an equal amount of lidocaine and prilocaine powder. Separately, the lidocaine powder and prilocaine powder are solid. But when they are mixed together, the powder mixture begins to melt. What best describes this type of

compounded preparation? Answer A Sedimentation B Precipitation C Emulsion D Eutectic E Reactive D Question A patient is using Opana ER tablets. Which of the following statements concerning Opana ER is correct? Answer A Opana ER should be taken on an empty stomach. B If Opana ER is ingested with alcohol there will be reduced absorption of the drug, causing lack of analgesic efficacy. C Opana ER can be used in patients with moderate to severe liver impairment. D Opana ER is an antagonist at the mu opioid receptor. E The chemical name is oxycodone. A Question A pharmacy resident completes a retrospective study of patients in a clinic who were prescribed amiodarone. The resident examines the medical profile of each patient to determine if the amiodarone caused hyperthyroidism. He then compares the risk of hyperthyroidism to a group of

patients who did not receive amiodarone. This is an example of what type of study? Answer A Cohort B Case series C Cross-sectional D Case-control E Crossover A Case A female patient is receiving the following chemotherapy regimen for non-small cell lung cancer. She presents to the infusion clinic and is scheduled to receive both agents today. She has also received regimens containing etoposide, docetaxel and gemcitabine in the past. Chemotherapy regimen: Cisplatin 100 mg/m2 IV Q4weeks Vinorelbine 25 mg/m2 IV weekly Labs: Na (mEq/L) = 136 (135 - 145) K (mEq/L) = 3.5 (3.5 - 5) Cl (mEq/L) = 103 (95 - 103) HCO3 (mEq/L) = 24 (24 - 30) BUN (mg/dL) = 12 (7 - 20) SCr (mg/dL) = 0.9 (0.6 - 1.3) Glucose (mg/dL) = 118 (100 - 125) WBC (cells/mm3) = 6.7 (4 - 11 x 103) Hgb (g/dL) = 9.2 (12 - 16) Hct (%) = 31 (36 - 46) Plt (cells/mm3) = 202 (150 - 450 x 103) PMNs (%) = 5 (45 - 73)

Bands (%) = 2 (3 - 5) Basophils (%) = 0 (0 - 1) Lymphocytes (%) = 29 (20 - 40) Monocytes (%) = 2 (2 - 8) Eosinophils (%) = 3 (0 - 5) Question Calculate the patient's ANC. (Answer must be numeric; no units or commas; round the final answer to the nearest WHOLE number.) 469 Case A female patient is receiving the following chemotherapy regimen for non-small cell lung cancer. She presents to the infusion clinic and is scheduled to receive both agents today. She has also received regimens containing etoposide, docetaxel and gemcitabine in the past. Chemotherapy regimen: Cisplatin 100 mg/m2 IV Q4weeks Vinorelbine 25 mg/m2 IV weekly Labs: Na (mEq/L) = 136 (135 - 145) K (mEq/L) = 3.5 (3.5 - 5) Cl (mEq/L) = 103 (95 - 103) HCO3 (mEq/L) = 24 (24 - 30) BUN (mg/dL) = 12 (7 - 20) SCr (mg/dL) = 0.9 (0.6 - 1.3) Glucose (mg/dL) = 118 (100 - 125) WBC (cells/mm3) = 6.7 (4 - 11 x 103) Hgb (g/dL) = 9.2 (12 - 16) Hct (%) = 31 (36 - 46) Plt (cells/mm3) = 202 (150 - 450 x 103) PMNs (%) = 5 (45 - 73) Bands (%) = 2 (3 - 5) Basophils (%) = 0 (0 - 1) Lymphocytes (%) = 29 (20 - 40) Monocytes (%) = 2 (2 - 8)

Eosinophils (%) = 3 (0 - 5) Question Which of the following chemotherapy drugs, that this patient has taken now or in the past, has the highest emetogenic risk? Answer A Gemcitabine B Etoposide C Docetaxel D Vinorelbine E Cisplatin E Case A female patient is receiving the following chemotherapy regimen for non-small cell lung cancer. She presents to the infusion clinic and is scheduled to receive both agents today. She has also received regimens containing etoposide, docetaxel and gemcitabine in the past. Chemotherapy regimen: Cisplatin 100 mg/m2 IV Q4weeks Vinorelbine 25 mg/m2 IV weekly Labs: Na (mEq/L) = 136 (135 - 145) K (mEq/L) = 3.5 (3.5 - 5) Cl (mEq/L) = 103 (95 - 103) HCO3 (mEq/L) = 24 (24 - 30) BUN (mg/dL) = 12 (7 - 20) SCr (mg/dL) = 0.9 (0.6 - 1.3) Glucose (mg/dL) = 118 (100 - 125) WBC (cells/mm3) = 6.7 (4 - 11 x 103)

Hgb (g/dL) = 9.2 (12 - 16) Hct (%) = 31 (36 - 46) Plt (cells/mm3) = 202 (150 - 450 x 103) PMNs (%) = 5 (45 - 73) Bands (%) = 2 (3 - 5) Basophils (%) = 0 (0 - 1) Lymphocytes (%) = 29 (20 - 40) Monocytes (%) = 2 (2 - 8) Eosinophils (%) = 3 (0 - 5) Question Which of the following statements concerning the use of erythropoiesis stimulating agents (ESAs) in this patient is correct? Answer A It is acceptable to use ESAs in this patient if the chemotherapy treatment goal is curative. B The risks associated with use of ESAs in chronic kidney disease patients do not apply to cancer patients. C It is acceptable to use ESAs in any patient with cancer, including this patient, when the hemoglobin level is < 12 g/dL. D ESAs will help her anemia; if she declines to use ESAs, she will need to enroll in the ESA APPRISE Oncology Program. E ESAs contribute to tumor growth and should not be used in this patient if the treatment goal is curative. B Question Which of the following statements concerning hypertensive urgency is accurate? Answer A This is a condition of severely elevated blood pressure and acute organ damage.

B

An appropriate treatment for hypertensive urgency is hydrochlorothiazide. C An appropriate treatment for hypertensive urgency is oral clonidine. D An appropriate treatment for hypertensive urgency is SL nifedipine. E Intravenous administration of an antihypertensive is required. C Question JL has anemia caused by end stage renal disease (ESRD). Which of the following statements is true concerning treatment of this type of anemia with erythropoiesis-stimulating agents (ESAs)? Answer A Patients receiving ESAs should be warned of the risk of hypotension. B Treatment with ESAs should continue until the hemoglobin level is > 12 g/dL. C ESAs should only be used to treat anemia in ESRD when the hemoglobin level is < 10 g/dL. D ESAs carries a boxed warning for bleeding risk. E ESAs can be given during hemodialysis and replace the need for intravenous iron therapy. C Question Liraglutide once daily was compared with exenatide twice daily for type 2 diabetes in a 26-week randomized open-label trial. What does it mean that the trial was 'open-label'? Answer A The patients could decide which drug they received for the duration of the trial. B Neither the physician nor the patients knew which patients received which treatment. C

Both the physician and the patients knew which drug the patients received. D The patients would start on one drug for 13 weeks, then switch to the other drug for 13 weeks. E The trial was observational in nature. C Question Which of the following bacterial organisms is not covered by ertapenem? Answer A B. fragilis B Streptococci C Acinetobacter D E. coli E H. influenzae C Question A bottle is labeled 15 PPM of Drug X. How many liters of this solution will contain 6 mg of Drug X? (Answer must be numeric; no units or commas; include leading zero when answer is less than 1; round the final answer to the nearest TENTH.)

Question PK has received a prescription for Forteo. Which statement concerning Forteo is correct? Answer A This medication should be used for a maximum of 3-5 years. B The generic name of Forteo is denosumab.

C

The same drug is available for treatment of hypercalcemia of malignancy as the branded product Xgeva. D This medication should be injected while sitting or lying down as it can cause dizziness and lightheadedness, especially with the first few doses. E The pen is good for 60 days; any medication remaining in the pen after this time must be discarded. D Question MH is a 65 year old post-menopausal female with a family history of breast cancer. She was recently diagnosed with osteoporosis and wants to know if she can use raloxifene. Which statement concerning raloxifene is correct? Answer A Raloxifene increases the risk of breast cancer; it is best avoided in patients with a positive family history. B Raloxifene can increase cholesterol levels; a lipid panel should be checked prior to use. C Raloxifene is often used in women at risk of breast cancer, but it can cause dangerous blood clots. D The brand name of raloxifene is Prezista. E Raloxifene, similar to estrogen, has the additional benefit of reducing hot flashes. C Question Jessica is preparing a master formulation record for cod liver oil. She wishes to compound the cod liver oil as an oil-in-water emulsion and to add a flavoring agent in order to mask the fishy taste. The flavoring agent should be added to which phase? Answer

A

Continuous phase B Discontinuous phase C Internal phase D Dispersed phase E Oil phase A Question TT has Parkinson's Disease and uses Requip and Sinemet to control his symptoms. He has been exhibiting some disturbing symptoms of psychosis. Which is the most appropriate antipsychotic for TT? Answer A Haldol B Risperdal C Fanapt D Seroquel E Fluphenazine D Question MX is a 22 year-old graduate student. She has suffered from bouts of depression for as long as she can remember. She has failed trials of citalopram and sertraline. The prescriber has written her a prescription for bupropion. Which of the following are side effects or potential adverse effects of bupropion? Answer

A

Seizures, impotence, and hyponatremia B Dry mouth, seizures, hepatic failure (especially during the first 6 months of therapy) C Hyponatremia, insomnia, impotence D Dry mouth, insomnia, and seizures E Impotence, insomnia, hepatic failure (especially during the first 6 months of therapy) D Question What type of information can be found in The Red Book? Answer A Health information for international travelers B Therapeutic equivalence C Average wholesale price D Drug interactions E Pediatric doses C