NAPRx/CNPR Exam Questions and Answers 2023/2024, Exams of Nursing

Download NAPRx/CNPR Exam Questions and Answers 2023/2024 and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! NAPRx/CNPR Exam Questions and Answers 2023/2024 1. How are drugs sorted into therapeutic groups and classes? first by the conditions that they are used to treat. and then by their mechanisms of action 2. Bone marrow transplants. are a type of stem cell therapy. unless patient's own cells are reinjected. 3. What does AMA stand for? American Medical Association 4. What section of a drug's package insert describes situations in which the drug should not be used because the risks outweigh the therapeutic benefits? contraindications 5 What is tertiary care? highly specialized medical and surgical care provided by a large medical center for unusual or complex medical problems 6. Which of the following is NOT one of the stages in the classic approach to brand development strategy covered in your manual? brand quality 7 What are vasodilators used to do? decrease vascular resistance and increase blood flow 8. What is the name of the condition that occurs after a specific dose of a drug is given at such regular intervals that absorption and elimination (and therefore drug plasma concentration) have become fairly constant? Steady State 9. Which statement is TRUE about ocular administration? Ocular administration is used primarily to treat the eye. 10. Which entities invest's the most money in pharmaceutical R&D? U.S. pharmaceutical companies 11. How are most drugs excreted? via the kidneys 12. Over the last few decades, what has happened to legal limitations on sales' reps discussions about of label uses? Limitations have decreased. 14. What does it mean if two drugs are at parity? Both drugs are essentially in a neutral position. 15 Who is most likely to benefit from electronic sampling programs? Everyone would benefit equally from electronic sampling programs 16. When referring to medication dosage, which abbreviation means "one-half' SS 17 What is an internist? a physician who practices internal medicine 18. Which of the following is a type of white blood cell? Lymphocytes 19. Why are novice sales representatives often placed in charge of negotiating MCO formularies? They are not. This job is usually reserved for more experienced reps. 20. What distinguishes pharmacodynamics from pharmacokinetics? Pharmacodynamics studies the how the body affects drugs. 21 What proportion of the drugs tested on human subjects are eventually approved by the FDA? about 70% 22. According to a study discussed in your manual, how do most physicians prefer to receive their drug samples? directly from sales representatives 23. Which of the following is an example of a central value? I buy Advil to show that I'm a modern consumer. 24. Which of the following specialties likely has the MOST emergency calls? cardiologist 25. What affects the rate of active transport? neither the availability of carriers nor the availability of energy 26. Over the last few decades, what has happened to the FDA approval time for new drugs? It has been shortened to reduce the cost of new drug development. 27. Which of the following would NOT help improve compliance? pharmacists understanding how generics differ from brand name drugs prescription and non prescription 55. What are all metabolites? products of metabolism 56. When a drug is administered orally, where does first-pass metabolism occur? liver 57. What is the medical term for swelling? edema 58. Which of the following is NOT part of the Seven Step Cascade of Emotion? be a consultant, not a rep 59. Which part of a clinical research paper is frequently referred to as the road map? abstract 60. Which of the following is a main active ingredient in lung surfactants? theophylline 61. What does parenteral mean? injection 62. Which term denotes a type of substance that enhances the action of a drug or antigen? adjunvant 63. If a sales representative's product is placed on the second tier of a standard three-tier formulary, which of the following is most likely true? It probably has exclusive preferred status if it is not at parity with any other drugs 64. Which of the following is NOT one of the four basic transport mechanisms? homeostasis 65. Which statement accurately describes a relationship between drug agonists and antagonists? Agonists and antagonists can be used together. 66. What is the study of the efects and movement of drugs in the human body? clinical pharmacology 67. According to your manual, what is a common complaint that physicians have about traditional sampling methods? that drug sample supply is too unpredictable 68. Which of these entities is formed by two or more hospitals or other healthcare entities to negotiate reduced rates with its aggregated purchasing power? GPO 69. What is another name for a drug derived from a biologic compound? large molecule 70. What is the most common policy regarding pharmaceutical reps dispensing drug samples in hospitals? drug sampling is often forbidden 71 Which of the following would help you build trust with a physician? asking if he or she is having any problems with the managed care coverage of your products 72. What term denotes the diference between the usual efective dose and the dose that induces severe or life-threatening side efects? margin of safety 73. What are excipients? the inert ingredients in a drug formulation 74. What is another term for the AWP? list price 75. Which of these is the most likely use for a uterotonic agent? to induce labor 76. As of November 2013, which of these countries has legalized DTC advertising of prescription drugs? none of these 77. Why are oral drugs often taken on an empty stomach? to pass through the stomach more quickly 78. What is one factor that diferentiates community health centers from hospitals? community health center formularies are more restrictive 79. How does drug sampling provide a social benefit? doctors often use drug samples to treat patients who otherwise could not aford it 80. Which medical term denotes the use of a stethoscope to listen to the heart? ausculation 81. What do enteric coatings do? prevents dissolution in the stomach 82. What is the duration of exclusivity for orphan drugs? 7 years 83. What do National Account Managers do? negotiate contracts with MCO and PBM 84. What does it usually mean if a drug recall is voluntary? The manufacturer has recalled the product on its own. but negotiated with the FDA beforehand. 85. Which phase of clinical trials is also known as the pivotal phase? Phase III 86. During which phase of clinical trials is the new drug's safety and efectiveness first tested in the target group? Phase II 87. How do antacids work? by raising gastric PH 88. What is one of the biggest time wasters for a pharmaceutical sales rep? Travel Time 89. What happens when equilibrium is reached? equal numbers of molecules cross the membrane in both directions 90. What are the most common vectors used in gene therapy? viruses 91. What is the percentage fee that the dispenser pays the wholesaler for distribution? upcharge 92. What is the diference between a chronic (or continuing) reaction, and a delayed reaction? chronic reactions persist for a long time, delayed reactions take some time to develop 93 What is clinical efect? the response produced by a medication 94. Which of the following is an example of noncompliance? a patient forgetting to take a drug at a specified time of day 95. What is the average circulation time of blood? 123. What do immunosuppressive agents do? reduce risk of rejection of foreign bodies 124. What types of drugs are EGFR inhibitors? antineoplastics 125. Which of the following means outside of the living body? ex vivo 126. The FDA requirements for nutraceuticals and medicinal herbs are just as stringent as for pharmaceuticals. False 127. What is the estimated net gain of private-sector healthcare's contributions to increased U.S. life expectancy? 2-5 trillion 128. Which statement is TRUE regarding post-approval drug monitoring? the FDA can choose to withdraw their approval if new evidence arises 129. Which term denotes when tolerance to one medication causes increased tolerance to another medication? cross tolerance 130. Patents expire years from the date of filing. twenty 131. After a trade-name drug's patent expires, how may generic versions of it be sold? only under the branded generic name 132. What is required for a new pharmaceutical to be considered a viable therapy? it is more efective, causes fewer serious adverse efects than other drugs on the market 133. Under the AMA guidelines, who is ultimately responsible for minimizing conflicts of interest? doctors 134. The act of dispensing a pharmaceutical alternative for the product prescribed is pharmaceutical substitution 135. What does it mean if a drug is said to have a wide margin of safety? there is a lower chance of severe or life threatening side efects 136. Which of the following is the correct medical acronym for efective dose? ED 137. Why is one group of subjects given an active drug, while another group only receives a placebo? to assess the drugs efectiveness 138. A generic version is likely to have some inactive ingredients that are diferent from those of the original drug. True 139. Which of the following is an example of a functional value? I drink coco cola because I like the taste 140. Where are most drugs metabolized? liver 141. What is essential to the ethical requirement that subjects be selected fairly? subjects should be selected based on scientific objectives 142. Which of the following is the most appropriate salutation for a cover letter if you cannot find a contact name? Dear Sir or Madam 143. What is part of becoming an indispensable pharmaceutical sales rep? asking for feedback 144. Which of the following is NOT typically included in the indications and usage section of the package insert information? the drugs active metabolites 145. Which term denotes the practice of classifying physicians and other potential prescribers by anticipated prescription volume? deciling 146. What makes a drug eligible for fast track approval from the FDA? it treats patients with a serious life-threatening condition 147. In the gastrointestinal tract, help break up tablets to ensure full release of the active pharmaceutical ingredient. disintegrants 148. According to your manual, what does the PDRP do? it limits sales reps abilities to see individual physicians prescribing data 149. What are the components of the central nervous system? the brain and spinal cord 150. Which term denotes the origin or cause of a medical condition? etiology 151. Patients diagnosed with Type 1 diabetes have an autoimmune disease 152. Which DTC pharmaceutical marketing tactic is permitted in European countries? disease state ads 153. What is one way in which psychologists DIFFER from psychiatrists? psycologist deal with emotional than physical issues 154. What are PBMs? organizations that negotiate between pharmaceutical companies and large drug purchasers 155. How does the Hatch-Waxman Act protect research-based drug manufacturers? by providing a 30 month cooling of period 156. What is the process of adjusting drug doses to achieve the maximum positive therapeutic efects while minimizing adverse or side efects? titration 157. Which of the following is studied more in pharmacodynamics than in pharmacokinetics? the transportation of the drug to the specific site for drug receptor interactions 158. How does the healthy human immune system use MHC markers? substances without MHC markers are discerned as foreign and targeted for destruction 159. What is a behind-the-counter drug? an OTC drug that must be closely monitored by the pharmacist 160. When do MSLs meet with clinicians? at nearly any stage of the products life cycle 15 13. Most DMs did not start as representatives. A. TRUE B. FALSE 14. How many territories are in a typical district? A. 1 to 2 B. 8 to 12 C. 30 to 40 D. 50 to 100 15. What is the most effective method for grabbing market share? A. comparative selling B. criticizing the competition C. power point presentations D. questioning doctors' choices Quiz 2 1. Pharmaceutical reps mainly visit pharmacies. A. TRUE B. FALSE 2. It usually only takes 1-2 calls to a physician before he or she commits to prescribing your product. A. TRUE B. FALSE 3. The pharmacist may dispense a product other than what the physician prescribed A. TRUE B. FALSE 16 4. According to Chapter 2 of your manual, which of the following would classify as payers? A. employers B. patients C. pharmacists D. physicians 5. According to your manual, what defines ethical pharmaceutical companies? A. donating a specified proportion of their revenue to consumer organizations B. donating a specified proportion of their revenue to the NIH C. manufacturing generics D. researching and developing novel drugs 6. One of the most disappointing results of the pharmaceutical industry’s continued investment in R & D is the few new drugs being approved and in development. A. TRUE B. FALSE 7. Thanks to modern medicines, how long are people newly diagnosed with HIV expected to live? A. another 10 years B. another 20 years C. another 5 years D. another 50 years 8. How much has the average American lifespan increased since 1890? A. almost 10 years B. almost 15 years C. almost 30 years D. almost 5 years 9. What is a treatment group? A. a group of patients assigned to receive a specified treatment 17 B. a group of patients who have volunteered to receive the active drug, but not the placebo C. A group of substances being tested D. A list of study protocols 10. What is the main difference between a blinded and double-blinded study? A. A blinded study is performed to control the placebo effect whereas a double-blinded study is performed to control the observer effect. B. A double-blinded study has two control groups, but a blinded study only has one. C. Blinded studies are more scientifically rigorous. D. In a double-blind study, neither the study staff nor the study participants know which subjects are in the experimental group and which in the control. 11. What does asymptomatic mean? A. exhibiting atypical signs or symptoms that were not indicated in the product packaging B. not exhibiting signs or symptoms C. refusing treatment for symptoms D. toxic or harmful to the human body Quiz 3 1. Which term denotes the study of bodily functions (as opposed to structures)? A. anatomy B. cytology C. oncology D. physiology 2. In its broadest definition, a drug is any substance that produces a physical or psychological change in the body. A. TRUE B. FALSE 3. How does the Federal Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act (FFDCA) define a drug? A. any substance intended for use in the diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment or prevention of disease, or a substance other than food intended to affect the structure or function of the body 20 C. Caplets are used for sustained-release drugs. D. Caplets contain hard cylindrical granules, liquids, or some combination of these. 15. Where will you find the legend “Caution: Federal Law prohibits dispensing without a prescription”? A. on the label of all prescription drugs B. on the labels of all generic drugs C. only on the labels of drugs dispensed at pharmacies (as opposed to, e.g., product samples at doctors' offices) D. only on the labels of product samples 16. What happens in slow acetylators? A. Drugs that are metabolized by N-acetyl transferase are less likely to reach toxic levels than in fast acetylators. B. Drugs that are metabolized by N-acetyl transferase tend to reach higher blood levels and remain in the body longer. C. Drugs that are metabolized by N-acetyl transferase tend to reach lower blood levels, but remain in the body longer. D. None of these statements apply to slow acetylators. Quiz 4 1. About of the people in the U.S. are slow acetylators. A. 1% B. 5% C. 25% D. 50% 2. Which of the following statements about drug-drug interactions is INCORRECT? A. Drug-drug interactions are always harmful. B. Duplication can involve two drugs with the same effect causing toxicity when taken together. C. Duplication can involve two drugs with the same effect intensifying each other's therapeutic effects without any serious side effects. D. Opposition can involve two drugs with opposing actions interacting to reduce one's effectiveness but not the other's. 21 3. Smoking decreases the effectiveness of some drugs. A. TRUE B. FALSE 4. Which of the following statements about dietary supplements is INCORRECT? A. Because dietary supplements are not drugs, interactions with drugs are not a concern. B. Dietary supplements are regulated as foods. C. Dietary supplements contain vitamins, minerals, amino acids, and/or herbs. D. all of these 5. Which statement/s is/are INCORRECT about an ideal drug, or magic bullet as Ehrlich phrased it? A. It does not exist. B. It would be aimed precisely at a disease site. C. It would not harm healthy tissues. D. All of these statements are correct. 6. Which statement accurately differentiates resistance from tolerance? A. Doctors can predict resistance but not tolerance. B. There is no difference between tolerance and resistance. C. Tolerance is caused by genetic mutations, but resistance is always innate. D. Tolerance refers to a person's diminished response to a drug after repeated use, while resistance applies to microorganisms' or cancel cells' abilities to withstand drug effects. 7. Between 3% and 7% of hospital admissions in the United States are estimated to be for treatment of adverse drug reactions. A. TRUE B. FALSE 8. Which statement is true about the universal scale for quantifying the severity of an adverse drug reaction? A. The severities of adverse drug reactions are quantified by their chronicity. B. The severities of adverse drug reactions are quantified by their threat to life. C. None of these statements are true because the scale uses different criteria. 22 D. None of these statements are true because there is no such scale. 9. Why is non-compliance a serious public health concern? A. It erodes trust between physicians and pharmaceutical sales representatives. B. It increases the cost of medical care. C. It indicates a lack of accountability among healthcare providers. D. Noncompliance is a serious public health concern for all of these reasons. 10. Which of the following is NOT eligible for patent protection under U.S. regulations? A. the drug itself B. the method of delivering and releasing the drug into the bloodstream C. the way the drug is made D. Companies can be granted patents for all of these things. 11. Drugs' trade names are often unrelated to their intended use. A. TRUE B. FALSE 12. Like foods and household products, generic drugs are usually lower quality than the brand name drugs for which they are marketed as equivalents. A. TRUE B. FALSE 13. Legally, bioequivalence of different versions of a drug can vary by up to . A. 3.50% B. 10% C. 20% D. The drugs must be 100% equivalent. 14. Which of the following statements about biologics is INCORRECT? 25 A. TRUE B. FALSE 9. What is the typical relationship between a drug's site of administration and site of action? A. They are usually somewhat removed from each other. B. They are usually the same site. C. They should not be the same site for economic reasons. D. They should not be the same site for safety reasons. 10. What is CMAX? A. an abbreviation for the maximum concentration of white blood cells B. the peak plasma concentration on a measuring curve C. the time interval within which a given dose of a drug is expected to have a therapeutic effect D. the time of peak plasma concentration on a measuring curve 11. Which of the following is NOT a main concept in clinical pharmacology? A. Drug Distribution and Elimination B. Pharmacodynamics C. Pharmacokinetics D. Pharmacoprocesses 12. Which of the following is NOT a route of drug administration? A. buccal B. Intramuscular C. sublingual D. transfugal 13. How are intradermal drugs delivered? A. by injection under the skin 26 B. through a skin patch C. through a topical ointment D. under the tongue 14. What is an example of intravenous drug delivery? A. a subcutaneous insulin injection B. a transdermal nicotine patch C. an injection of anesthetic directly into the bloodstream D. any type of pre-surgery anesthetic 15. What are the major organs of the gastrointestinal system? A. the heart, the blood vessels, and the blood B. the lymph nodes and lymph vessels C. the mouth, esophagus, stomach, liver, pancreas, gallbladder, small and large intestines D. the nasal passages, the trachea, the diaphragm, and the lungs Quiz 6 1. Who is normally responsible for selling to distributors? A. Floaters B. Local Territory Representatives C. NAMs D. Pharmacy Benefit Managers 2. How often do secondary drug wholesale distributors buy their drugs directly from manufactures? A. always B. almost always C. sometimes D. never 3. By FDA law, large chain pharmacies are not allowed to buy directly from drug manufactures. A. TRUE 27 B. FALSE 4. Only 3 companies account for nearly 90% of all drug wholesale sales. A. TRUE B. FALSE 5. What type of sale bypasses the need for intermediary distributors? A. brokerage sales B. drop shipment sales C. integrated delivery network sales D. manufacturer-direct sales 6. What is a group purchasing organization (GPO)? A. a company that owns and operates 3 or fewer pharmacies B. a wholesaler that obtains drugs from manufacturers and delivers them directly to pharmacists' warehouses C. an entity consisting of two or more hospitals or other health care entities that negotiates contracts on behalf of its members D. any distributor of a prescription drug that conducts at least 22 transactions every 2 years 7. Prescriptions dispensed by mail-order pharmacies are, on average, around than those dispensed by retail pharmacies. A. 3 times smaller B. just slightly smaller C. 3 times larger D. 10 times larger 8. Which of the following is NOT a type of non-stock sale? A. brokerage sales B. dock-to-dock sales C. drop shipments D. All of these are examples of non-stock sales. 30 C. The drugs contain identical amounts of the same inactive ingredients. D. The drugs involve the same dosage form and route of administration. 6. A generic drug is to the originator brand-name drug in dosage, strength, safety, and quality. A. bioequivalent B. biophysical C. different D. similar 7. What list is generally considered the most reliable source of information on therapeutically equivalent drug products? A. International Council on Harmonization (ICH) Handbook B. “Approved Drug Products with Therapeutic Equivalence” C. The Blue Book D. The Red Book 8. Which of the following is an Orange Book rating? A. AZ B. B C. BZ D. CZ 9. What is the term for chemical equivalents which, when administered in the same amounts, will provide the same biological or physiological availability as measured by blood and urine levels? A. biological equivalents B. branded generics C. therapeutic alternatives D. therapeutic equivalents 10. What term denotes a drug that is identical or bioequivalent to the originator brand-name drug in dosage form, safety, strength, route, quality, performance, characteristics, and intended use? A. generic B. OTC 31 C. therapeutic alternative D. vector-based 11. What term denotes the dispensing of an unbranded generic product for the product prescribed? A. chemical substitution B. generic substitution C. pharmaceutical license D. Pharmacist's license 12. What is the duration of a patent challenge? A. 2 weeks B. 4 weeks C. 180 Days D. 1 Year Quiz 8 1. How is a drug sample closet or cabinet like a grocery store shelf? A. Drug sample closets are like grocery store shelves in all these ways. B. The generic products are usually kept on the top shelf. C. The more expensive products are always kept on the top shelf. D. The more visibility you can give your drug, the more likely that it will be prescribed. 2. Pharmaceutical representatives do not typically store and secure their own drug samples. A. TRUE B. FALSE 3. Sampling is sometimes the most important factor in a pharmaceutical rep’s success. A. TRUE B. FALSE 32 4. The FDA approves storage conditions for drug products. A. TRUE B. FALSE 5. Pharmaceutical representatives must always record the amount of drug samples left and obtain a signature for that amount. A. TRUE B. FALSE 6. What is prohibited by Section 503 of the Federal Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act, as amended by the Prescription Drug Marketing Act? A. pharmaceutical companies providing research results directly to consumers B. the purchase of another company's drug research without written permission from the FDA C. the sale of pharmaceutical products to more than 8 different therapeutic classes D. the sale, purchase, or trade or offer to sell, purchase, or trade prescription drug samples 7. The federal government does not regulate the drug sampling for a pharmaceutical representative. A. FALSE B. TRUE 8. Which of the following is permitted by Section 503 of the Federal Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act? A. hospitals donating their prescription drug coupons to qualified charitable organizations B. hospitals donating their prescription drug samples to qualified charitable organizations C. hospitals selling their prescription drug samples to qualified charitable organizations at reduced costs D. none of these 9. Which entity issues monographs that define how drugs should be stored, and what variance is allowed in their stated contents? A. FDA B. Federal Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act C. International Council on Harmonization (ICH) 35 6. According to your manual, which type of system is the best way to deliver healthcare? A. a central-price system B. a market-based system C. a non-negotiable system D. a patient-restrictive system 7. How would increased pharmaceutical price controls affect the U.S. healthcare system? A. Increased price controls would encourage the development of more life-saving medicines. B. Increased price controls would limit the FDA's power. C. Increased price controls would similarly increase companies' incentives to invest in R&D. D. Increased price controls would stifle innovation. 8. Which of the following invests a greater percentage of sales in research than the biotech sector? A. the aerospace sector B. the communications sector C. the electronics sector D. none of these 9. What was the intent of the Bayh-Dole Act and the Stevenson-Wydler Technology Innovation Act? A. to curb the commercialization of technologies B. to hasten the commercialization of technologies that otherwise might not be used C. to keep government-funded ideas under government control D. to secure funding for public university-based research initiatives 10. According to your manual, what did the G10 Medicines Group recently report about the pharmaceutical industry in the European Union (EU)? A. The EU pharmaceutical industry has surpassed the US pharmaceutical industry because of increased price controls in the EU. B. The EU pharmaceutical industry has surpassed the US pharmaceutical industry because of increased price controls in the US. C. The EU should continue to discourage links between private and public research facilities. 36 D. There is poor collaboration between publicly- and privately-funded research centers. Quiz 10 1. The aim of preclinical pharmacological studies is to obtain data on the safety and effectiveness of the lead compound. A. TRUE B. FALSE 2. Toxicity information in preclinical studies helps provide confidence about a drug's safety. A. TRUE B. FALSE 3. Pharmacological studies using animals are regulated under Good Laboratory Practice. A. TRUE B. FALSE 4. Why do drugs administered to patients only contain APIs? A. economic reasons B. for reasons of safety and economics C. safety reasons D. They don't. 5. Which of the following does NOT affect a drug's ability to permeate membranes? A. the drug's chemical composition B. the drug's polarity C. the drug's size D. the drug's vesicles 6. Through which barriers can lipid-soluble drugs usually pass? A. cell membranes B. the blood brain barrier, but not the gastrointestinal tract 37 C. the gastrointestinal tract, but not the blood brain barrier D. neither the gastrointestinal tract nor the blood-brain barrier 7. How are weak acid drugs generally absorbed by the stomach? A. at about the same speed as weak basic drugs B. more quickly than weak basic drugs C. more slowly than weak basic drugs D. not at all 8. Which of the following routes of administration do NOT completely bypass the liver? A. intravenous administration B. rectal administration C. transdermal administration D. All of these completely bypass the liver. 9. Why are intravenous drug dosages easier to control than drugs administered transdermally? A. Intravenous drugs are neutralized by the pH conditions of the gastrointestinal tract. B. Intravenous drugs are subject to first-pass metabolism by the liver. C. The entire dose is available in the bloodstream to be distributed to the target site. D. The site of administration is the same as the site of action. 10. Which of the following does NOT affect a drug's distribution to its target tissues? A. the drug's lipid-solubility B. the drug's polarity C. the vascular nature of the drug's target tissue D. All of these factors affect a drug's distribution to its target tissues. 11. Which of these medical terms means “to apply the drug on the skin surface”? A. buccal B. intramuscular C. transdermal 40 B. sensitivity C. specificity D. validity 10. What are the Kaplan-Meier analysis and Cox proportional hazards analysis? A. measures of inference errors B. methods for ensuring validity C. methods of survival analysis D. types of surrogate markers 11. What section of a clinical paper describes subjects' entry and exclusion criteria? A. conclusion B. introduction C. methods D. results 12. Which document sets out how a trial is to be conducted (i.e., the study's general design and operating features)? A. case report B. consent form C. inclusion criteria D. protocol 13. When designing and performing clinical trials, several ethical constraints must be considered. Which of the following is NOT one of these ethical constraints? A. geographic variations B. independent review C. scientific validity D. social value Quiz 12 41 1. What is one way in which large molecule drugs DIFFER from small molecule drugs? A. Large molecule drugs are mainly protein-based drugs that develop in biological systems such as living cells. B. Large molecule drugs are synthesized using techniques based on chemical reactions of reactants. C. Small molecule drugs are also known as biopharmaceuticals. D. Small molecule drugs are mainly protein-based drugs that develop in biological systems such as living cells. 2. Which of the following statements about vaccines is INCORRECT? A. After initial vaccination, booster doses may be needed to maximize vaccines' immunological effects. B. Vaccine development focuses on how to reduce virulence while retaining the ability to produce immunity. C. Vaccines are types of small molecule drugs. D. Vaccines contain antigenic components that are obtained from or derived from the pathogen. 3. What is an advantage of attenuated vaccines over inactivated vaccines? A. Attenuated vaccines are less expensive to prepare. B. Attenuated vaccines do not revert to virulence. C. Attenuated vaccines have a more stable shelf life. D. Attenuated vaccines require multiple doses. 4. How are toxoids derived? A. from a patients' own MHC markers B. from the body's naturally occuring immune globulins C. from the body's naturally occuring neurotransmitters D. from the toxins secreted by a pathogen 5. What is the estimated annual death toll for malaria? A. 300 to 500 million people B. 300,000 to 500,000 people C. 500,000 to 1 million people D. 1.5 to 3.5 million people 42 6. There are more white blood cells than red blood cells for the same volume in the human body. A. TRUE B. FALSE 7. How was insulin primarily obtained from the 1930s to the 1980s? A. artificial human growth factors B. non-diabetic human donors C. porcine and bovine extracts D. recombinant biopharmaceutical processes 8. Which of the following are NOT types of cytokines? A. interferons B. interleukins C. monokines D. All of these are types of cytokines. 9. Which of the following is NOT a type of hormones? A. amino acid derivatives B. blood glucose C. polypeptides D. steroids 10. Which of the following is a basic gene therapy technique? A. in situ, in which patients' genetically faulted tissues are removed, loaded with normal genes in vectors, and returned to the patients' bodies B. in situ, in which patients' tissues are removed, transplanted into animal donors where the normal genes are produced, and then returned to the patients' bodies C. in vitro, in which patients' genetically faulted tissues are removed, loaded with normal genes in vectors, and returned to the patients' bodies D. in vitro, in which patients' tissues are removed, transplanted into animal donors where the normal genes are produced, and then returned to the patients' bodies 45 D. All of these are types of formularies. 7. Which of the following is NOT a recent formulary trend? A. multi-tier strategies B. prior authorization C. step therapy D. the repeal of Hatch-Waxman 8. What did the Hatch-Waxman Act do? A. make it easier for generic manufacturers to compete with R&D companies B. make it more difficult for generic manufacturers to compete with R&D companies C. make it more difficult for generic manufacturers to manufacture and distribute off-patent drugs D. none of these 9. What is opportunity cost? A. the resources required to have multiple opportunities B. the resources required to make a decision C. the value of a sacrificed alternative D. the value of having multiple opportunities 10. According to your manual, the three primary entities that fund pharmaceuticals are employers, the government (Medicare and Medicaid), and . A. hospitals B. individuals C. pharmacies D. physicians 11. Which of these individuals would NOT be a member of a P&T committee? A. a company's medical liaison B. an attending physician C. the physician who heads the surgery department 46 D. All of these people are typically members of the P&T committee. 12. Almost 98% of employed Americans are now covered by a HMO, a preferred provider organization, or a point-of- service plan. A. TRUE B. FALSE Quiz 14 1. Pharmaceutical companies are more interested in acquiring and exploiting another’s brands than in acquiring another's R&D and sales and marketing assets. A. TRUE B. FALSE 2. Ideally, when should brand strategy development for a new drug begin? A. as soon as a clinical need is identified B. as soon as a lead compound has been discovered C. during Phase II clinical trials D. during Phase IV trials 3. Which of the following is an example of a expressive value? A. I own a BMW because I like feeling the road. B. I own a BMW because I like the bells and whistles. C. I own a BMW because I want people to know that I'm a serious driving enthusiast. D. I own a BMW because it's German like I am. 4. According to your manual, which of the following is NOT an example of a functional value? A. convenience B. efficacy C. safety D. uniqueness 47 5. It is rare for pharmaceutical companies to explore, develop, and promote expressive values with which patients might identify. A. TRUE B. FALSE 6. To be competitive, pharmaceutical brands must be distinctive. They must possess defining characteristics that are perceived by customers to be unique, attractive, and relevant to their needs. A. TRUE B. FALSE 7. With the global need for new drugs, pharmaceutical brand names are not subject to regulatory approval. A. TRUE B. FALSE 8. How has DTC advertising changed over the last few decades? A. DTC advertising has become a tactic used only by large brands. B. DTC advertising has become a tactic used only by small brands. C. DTC advertising has become an essential marketing tactic for both large and small brands. D. DTC advertising has become an important marketing tactic all over the world. 9. Which of the following MOST strongly influences physicians' prescribing habits? A. doctors' personal experiences, and their patients' unique situations B. DTC advertising C. other types of pharmaceutical marketing D. patients' opinions about DTC advertising 10. Pharmaceutical companies spend more on promotional activities than on R&D. A. TRUE B. FALSE 11. Which of the following would be MOST well-served by mass-market print and TV ads? A. a brand that treats a rare, acute condition 50 A. American Medical Association B. Drug Enforcement Agency C. Federal Trade Commission D. Office of Inspector General Quiz 16 1. It is illegal to ask receptionists for personal information about your clients such as home phone numbers, birthdays, or hobbies. A. TRUE B. FALSE 2. Which of the following is NOT a primary goal or function of the P&T committee? A. to assist in research on investigational drugs B. to budget the hospital's pharmaceutical expenses C. to educate sales representatives on legal and ethical guidelines for professional behavior D. to monitor drug utilization 3. Which of the following is a major challenge facing family medicine? A. fewer and fewer patients, because most people are opting to see specialists B. managed care policies eroding patient-doctor relationships C. too many medical students and not enough positions D. Family medicine faces all of these challenges. 4. According to your manual, family physicians diagnose and treat approximately what proportion of patients they see (as opposed to referring them to specialists)? A. 5% B. 20% C. 50% D. 95% 5. Which of the following is NOT one of the steps on the Product Adoption Continuum? A. adoption 51 B. awareness C. evaluation D. These are all steps on the continuum. 6. Which of the following would be classified as a type of somatic psychiatric treatment? A. drug therapy B. family therapy C. hypnosis D. psychoanalysis 7. Why is the last 10 minutes of each hour usually the best time to make office visits to psychiatrists? A. Psychiatric research has shown that people are more open-minded at that time. B. Psychiatric research has shown that people are more relaxed at that time. C. Psychiatrist often see patients on the hour for 45 minutes. D. Psychiatrists are usually on their way to the hospital at that time. 8. What is/are an advantage/s of selling to residents? A. All of these are advantages of selling to residents. B. It is easier to meet one-on-one with residents than with more established physicians. C. Residents are often more open-minded. D. You do not need to face the challenges of a group-selling environments. 9. What is drug utilization review (DUR)? A. a PBM’s participation in a health plan B. acceleration of recovery of patients C. an MCO’s practice of monitoring prescribing patterns D. the FDA’s approval process and dates of drug delivery 10. Used in the treatment of manic-depressive illness and schizoaffective disorder: A. Antidepressants B. Antianxiety agents 52 C. Mood stabilizers D. Antipsychotic agents Quiz 17 1. What is the focus of the short call protocol? A. Asking a quick yes-or-no questions so that you can move to the close B. beginning with a specific clinical study C. beginning with a specific patient type D. Just asking for a few more minutes so that you do not need to bother them again 2. Who is the Medical Science Liaison (MSL)? A. Someone employed by a hospital who coordinates sales representatives’ visits B. Someone employed by a hospital who heads the P&T committee and manages the formulary C. Someone employed by a pharmaceutical company who builds relationships with thoughts leaders and acts as an informational resources D. Someone employed by a university who coordinates privately funded clinical studies 3. What type of education do MSL’s typically have? A. bachelor’s degrees B. graduate-level science degrees C. master’s degrees D. only a little college, because their sales experience is far more important 4. How do companies typically judge the MSL team’s contributions? A. deciling B. return on education C. the individual MSL’s sales records D. the projected sales potential of the MSL’s sales representatives 5. What differentiates push through programs from pull through programs? A. Push through programs focus on individual patients. 55 A. TRUE B. FALSE 8. What differentiates an orphan drug from a blockbuster drug? A. By FDA Law, orphan drugs have been previously rejected by the FDA B. Orphan drugs are pediatric therapies. C. Orphan drugs typically generate far more revenue. D. Orphan drugs typically treat rare conditions. 9. How long are most calls and visits to physicians' offices (excluding waiting and driving time)? A. only a few minutes B. 15-30 minutes C. 30-45 minutes D. about an hour 10. Which of the following is NOT a step in managing rumors? A. confirm B. counter attack C. search D. transition 11. According to the text, which of the following is considered going to the next level? A. becoming a micro-thinker B. meeting the clients' every need C. minimizing rumors D. staying focused 12. What is one of the primary job responsibilities of a retail pharmacist? A. dispensing pharmaceuticals B. managing formularies C. manufacturing pharmaceuticals 56 D. prescribing pharmaceuticals 13. What is NOT one of the ways in pharmaceutical companies and representatives categorize their customers? A. acute care vs. chronic care B. office-based vs. hospital-based C. primary care vs. specialty care D. Companies and agents categorize their patients in all of these ways. Quiz 19 1. Which of the following are relatively new prescription drug benefits covered under the Medicare Prescription Drug Improvement & Modernization Act? A. HMO Plan 2006 B. Medicare Part A C. Medicare Part B D. Medicare Part D 2. Which term means “disease producer”? A. enzyme B. glidant C. isomer D. pathogen 3. Which type of blood cell plays the most prominent role in fighting infection and disease? A. red blood cell B. stem cell C. validated blood cell D. white blood cell 4. Which of the following generally resides on a cell surface (or in the cytoplasm) and causes a biological change or activity when stimulated? A. glidant B. leukocyte 57 C. receptor D. tissue 5. Renal pertains to: A. heart B. kidneys C. ovaries D. stomach 6. What term denotes the practice of locating genes on a chromosome? A. gene delivery B. gene mapping C. gene therapy D. generics 7. What field is MOST concerned with drug effects due to slight genetic differences? A. genomics B. pharmacogenomics C. pharmacokinetics D. pharmacoprosthetics 8. Which entity or entities fund/s the National Institutes of Health (NIH)? A. MDA B. Pharmaceutical Companies C. United Nations D. United States Federal Government 9. With respect to the material in your manual, what does IDN stand for? A. immunodeficient drug B. independent drug network C. integrated delivery network 60 D. by mimicking the actions of GABA 3. Which of the following is considered a sympathomimetic drug that stimulates the alpha-adrenergic receptors? A. Antihistamine B. Expectorant C. Decongestant D. Lung surfactant 4. Which of the following is NOT a type of gastrointestinal agents? A. gallstone solubizing agents B. H2 antagonists C. laxatives D. prolactin inhibitors 5. What is one of the main functions of a tocolytic agent? A. to decrease urine pH B. to increase urine pH C. to induce labor D. to suppress labor 6. Which of these conditions is NOT treated with antiandrogens? A. acne B. dyspepsia C. masculinization in women D. polycystic ovarian syndrome 7. Which types of patients are MOST likely to receive immune globulins? A. patients with inflammatory conditions B. patients with weakened immune systems C. transplant recipients D. all of these 61 8. What is iron's primary function in the body? A. carrying oxygen B. inhibiting dopamine C. mimicking dopamine D. neutralizing gastric pH 9. Which of the following is NOT a type of anti-infectant? A. amebicides B. antimalarial agents C. antimetabolites D. carbapanems 10. What is one difference between entry-level and experienced résumés? A. Entry-level résumés are more likely to begin with the education section than the experience section. B. Entry-level résumés are more likely to contain a Summary of Qualifications. C. Experienced résumés are more likely to contain an Objective. D. Experienced résumés contain more extracurricular activities. 11. Which statement about targeted cover letters is true? A. Targeted cover letters are always solicited. B. Targeted cover letters are always tailored to specific companies. C. Targeted cover letters are only written for vacant positions. D. Targeted cover letters should be written in the third-person.