NASM CERTIFICATION STUDY GUIDE | 100% Correct Answers | Verified | Latest 2024 Version, Exams of Nutrition

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NASM CERTIFICATION STUDY GUIDE |

100% Correct Answers | Verified | Latest

2024 Version

What type of listening involves making a best guess as to what the speaker means, then stating it back to the speaker? - ✔✔Active listening A client has been journaling their behavior. They find that if they get home and sit on the couch to watch television, they do not end up exercising. But if they bring their gym clothes to work with them and change before leaving the office, they are more likely to exercise. Which behavior change technique are they using? - ✔✔Self-monitoring A long-term client has recently indicated that she wants to start training for a fitness competition and, due to her competitive nature, she indicates that she wants to win. Which type of motivation is driving her? - ✔✔Extrinsic motivation The number of sidewalks available in a community is an example of which of the following? - ✔✔The built environment Having an informal role in an exercise group is demonstrated by which example? - ✔✔Planning social gatherings for the group What term is defined as the generic modifiable factors that impact behavior? - ✔✔Determinants What might a Certified Personal Trainer do for someone in the precontemplation stage of change? - ✔✔Provide them with education and knowledge This is a conversational technique that helps the listener express the supposed meaning of what was just heard. - ✔✔Reflections

A Certified Personal Trainer wants to improve a client's outcome expectations for resistance training. What behavior change technique might they use? - ✔✔Providing information on the health benefits What best describes the all-or-nothing principle? - ✔✔A motor unit will either contract maximally or not at all. Which of the following processes describes the passage of digested food into the blood system to be processed for energy, nutrients, and tissue building? - ✔✔Absorption Which of the following effects of the cardiovascular system occurs during exercise? A.Increased ventricular filling B.Decreased venous return C.Venous pooling D.Decreased ventricular filling - ✔✔A. Increased ventricular filling Overactive hip flexors may lead to which of the following postural compensations? - ✔✔Anterior tilting of the pelvis and an increased low-back arch Which of the following statements would be accurate with regard to muscle force and velocity during a concentric contraction? - ✔✔As the velocity of the muscle action increases, its ability to produce force decreases. What is the acceptable macronutrient distribution range (AMDR) for fat in the diet? - ✔✔20 to 35% of total calories Apart from energy intake and physical activity, which of the following factors also influence weight management? - ✔✔Hormones and medications Which heart chamber gathers deoxygenated blood returning to the heart from the superior and inferior vena cava veins? - ✔✔Right atrium

Which heart chamber gathers oxygenated blood coming to the heart from the lungs? - ✔✔Left atrium Which heart chamber receives oxygenated blood and pumps it to the body? - ✔✔Left ventricle Which of the macronutrients has the highest thermic effect of food (TEF)? - ✔✔Protein Where in the heart is the sinoatrial node located? - ✔✔Right Atrium What is end-diastolic volume? - ✔✔The amount of blood in the ventricle before contraction What is the primary function of the large intestine? - ✔✔Absorption of food and passage of waste into the rectum Which term defines the degree to which a test specifically measures what it is intended to measure? A.Validity B.Appropriateness C.Reliability D.Relevance - ✔✔Validity Which of the following blood pressure readings would classify an individual as having stage 1 hypertension? A.135/80 mm Hg B.118/78 mm Hg C.124/80 mm Hg D.143/92 mm Hg - ✔✔A. 135/80 mm Hg

Which muscle(s) may be overactive with knee valgus during the overhead squat? A.Tensor fascia latae and adductor complex B.Gluteus maximus and medius C.Hip flexors D.Upper trapezius - ✔✔Tensor fascia latae and adductor complex What depth is suggested for the overhead squat assessment? A.Femur parallel to ground B.Full-depth squat C.Butt to heels D.Knees to 45 degrees - ✔✔Femur parallel to ground Which muscles may be overactive with knee valgus during the single-leg squat? A.Adductor complex B.Gluteus maximus and medius C.Hip flexors D.Upper trapezius - ✔✔A. Adductor complex Which postural distortion is characterized by flat feet, knee valgus, and adducted and internally rotated hips? A.Pes planus distortion syndrome B..Lower crossed syndrome C.Upper crossed syndrome D.Knee valgus - ✔✔A. Planus distortion syndrome

Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to shoulder elevation during the pulling assessment? A.Lower trapezius B.Upper trapezius C.Serratus anterior D.Cervical extensors - ✔✔A. Lower trapezius Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to the excessive forward trunk lean during the overhead squat assessment? A.Gluteus maximus B.Hip flexor complex C.Gastrocnemius and soleus D.Rectus abdominis - ✔✔A. Gluteus Maximus Which muscle would be considered overactive, leading to the low back arching during the overhead squat assessment? A.Hip flexor complex B.Gluteus maximus C.Hamstrings complex D.Gluteus medius - ✔✔A. Hip flexor complex What are the five kinetic chain checkpoints? - ✔✔Feet and ankles, knees, LPHC, shoulders, and head and neck Which of the following tests uses recovery heart rate rather than exercising heart rate to evaluate cardiorespiratory fitness levels?

A.YMCA 3-minute step test B.Rockport 1-mile walk test C.Ventilatory threshold 1 (VT1) test D.1.5-mile (2.4-km) run test - ✔✔A. YMCA 3 min step test In most individuals, to what pressure is the blood pressure cuff inflated when measuring resting blood pressure? A.The cuff is inflated to a value of 20 to 30 mm Hg above the point at which the pulse can no longer be felt at the wrist. B.The cuff is inflated to a value 70 to 80 mm Hg above the point at which the pulse can no longer be felt at the wrist. C.The cuff is inflated to a value 45 to 55 mm Hg above the point at which the pulse can no longer be felt at the wrist. D.The cuff is inflated to a value 5 to 10 mm Hg above the point at which the pulse can no longer be felt at the wrist. - ✔✔A. The cuff is inflated to a value of 20 to 30 mm Hg above the point at which the pulse can no longer be felt at the wrist. What do you visualize to detect the movement impairment of knee valgus? A.The knees collapsing inward B.The knees bowing outward C.An upright trunk and knees in front of toes D.The hip shifting toward one side or the other - ✔✔A. The knees collapsing inward What term refers to the ability of a test to produce consistent and repeatable results? A.Reliability B.Relevance C.Validity D.Appropriateness - ✔✔A.Reliability

What is reached when a talk test during exercise reveals a client to be working at ventilatory threshold 2? A.The level at which the body can work at its highest sustainable steady-state intensity for more than a few minutes B.The level at which the body can work at its highest sustainable steady-state intensity for only few seconds C.The point at which the body uses an equal mix of carbohydrate and fat as fuel sources D.The ability to talk or hold a conversation during an activity at various intensity levels - ✔✔A. The level at which the body can work at its highest sustainable steady-state intensity for more than a few minutes Which of the following statements describes the abdominal skinfold location? A. A vertical skinfold taken 1 inch lateral to the umbilicus (belly button) B. A vertical skinfold taken on the mid-axillary line at the level of the xiphoid process (which is typically just below the nipple line) C. A horizontal skinfold taken 1 inch lateral to the umbilicus (belly button) D. A diagonal fold taken immediately superior to and in line with the natural angle of the iliac crest (top portion of the hip bone), aligned with the anterior axillary line - ✔✔A. A vertical skinfold taken 1 inch lateral to the umbilicus (belly button) Which skinfold sites are measured if determining body composition via the Durnin-Womersley protocol? A. Biceps, triceps, subscapular, and suprailiac B. Triceps, abdomen, mid-axillary, and suprailiac C. Triceps, subscapular, chest, and thigh D. Biceps, mid-axillary, subscapular, and chest - ✔✔A. Biceps, triceps, subscapular, and suprailiac

What step cadence is used during the YMCA 3-minute step test? A.A cadence of 96 steps per minute B.A cadence of 36 steps per minute C.A cadence of 60 steps per minute D.A cadence of 112 steps per minute - ✔✔A.A cadence of 96 steps per minute Which of the following intensities best represents VT2 during the incremental test protocol? A.When the individual responds with "no" when asked, "Can you speak competently?" B.When the individual responds with "yes" when asked, "Can you speak competently?" C.When the individual says it is "somewhat easy" to talk during the activity D.When the individual says it is "challenging" to speak during the activity - ✔✔A. When the individual responds with "no" when asked, "Can you speak competently?" Which of the following is not a skill-related concept that would enhance core training? A.Quickness B.Agility C.Balance D.Coordination - ✔✔A. Quickness Which pressing exercise would be appropriate for someone who has high levels of upper-body strength but has no equipment because they are traveling? A.Handstand push-up B.Leg press C.Chin-ups

D.Sit-ups - ✔✔A. Handstand push ups Of the following individuals, who would be the most suitable for being programmed SAQ (speed, agility, and quickness) exercises/movements? A.A client who has been training for 1 month with adequate strength B.A client who has been training 2 months with some improvements in strength C.A client who has been exercising for 4 months with some strength D.An overweight client with adequate strength - ✔✔A. A client who has been training for 1 month with adequate strength What key term would best describe an overactive hip flexor complex decreasing neural drive to the hip extensor complex? A.Altered reciprocal inhibition B.Synergistic dominance C.Reciprocal inhibition D.Altered length-tension relationship - ✔✔A. Altered reciprocal inhibition What are two medical precautions for self-myofascial techniques? A.Joint hypermobility and scoliosis B.Cancer and bleeding disorders C.Osteoporosis and uncontrolled hypertension D.Extreme discomfort/pain and rheumatoid arthritis - ✔✔A. Joint hypermobility and scoliosis Which muscle would you be targeting for SMR if you placed the roller along the front and slightly lateral (outside) part of the upper thigh (just below the pelvis)? A. Tensor fascia latae

B. Piriformis C. Thoracic spine D. Adductors - ✔✔A. Tensor fascia latae Which of the following statements most accurately reflects ventilatory threshold one (VT1)? A. An intensity where continuous talking becomes challenging B. An intensity where continuous talking is comfortable C. An intensity where continuous talking becomes difficult D. An intensity where continuous talking becomes almost impossible - ✔✔A. An intensity where continuous talking becomes challenging What is the corresponding heart rate for an intensity scored as 14 on the original Borg 6 to 20 scale of exertion? A. 140 beats per minute B. 120 beats per minute C. Unable to estimate because RPE does not correlate with heart rate D. Unable to estimate because the Borg 6 to 20 scale applies only to vigorous exercise. - ✔✔A. 140 beats per minute What is the superior boundary of the core? A.Diaphragm B.Abdominal muscles C.Lumbar spine and gluteal muscles D.Pelvic floor and hip musculature - ✔✔A.Diaphragm Which of the following is characterized as a global muscle of the core on the posterior aspect of the body?

A.Erector spinae B.Quadratus lumborum C.Diaphragm D.Multifidus - ✔✔A.Erector spinae Which of the following is an example of an exercise that targets development of the rate of force production (power) of the core? A.Medicine ball woodchop throw B.Cable chop C.Bird dog D.Reverse crunch - ✔✔A.Medicine ball woodchop throw Competitive athletes who performed balance training exercises reduced the risk of which injury by 46%? A.Ankle sprains B.Anterior cruciate ligament injuries C.Medial collateral ligament injuries D.Concussions - ✔✔A.Ankle sprains Maintaining one's balance while running on an uneven surface can best be described as what type of balance? A.Dynamic balance B.Semi-dynamic balance C.Static balance D.Stationary balance - ✔✔A.Dynamic balance

Training the eccentric phase of plyometric movements with a new client will help them improve which of the following? A.Landing mechanics B.Power development C.Force production D.Core stability - ✔✔A.Landing mechanics What is a progression for the box jump-down with stabilization? A.Multiplanar jump with stabilization B.Box jump-up with stabilization C.Squat jump with stabilization D.Tuck jump with stabilization - ✔✔A.Multiplanar jump with stabilization During what phase of the stretch-shortening cycle is stored elastic energy converted to explosive force production? A.Amortization B.Concentric C.Eccentric D.Stabilization - ✔✔A.Amortization What is the recommended number of SAQ sessions per week for weight-loss clients? A.1 or 2 sessions per week B.0 sessions per week C.3 or 4 sessions per week D.5 to 7 sessions per week - ✔✔A.1 or 2 sessions per week

What is an example of an individual in the exhaustion stage of the general adaptation syndrome? A.The person has suffered an ACL sprain. B.The person is experiencing improvement in muscular strength. C.The person is experiencing an increase in muscular power. D.The person is experiencing delayed-onset muscle soreness. - ✔✔A.The person has suffered an ACL sprain. Which exercise is a total-body power-focused movement? A.Two-arm push press B.Medicine ball chest pass C.Soccer throw D.Front medicine ball oblique throw - ✔✔A.Two-arm push press When a muscle is held during a stretch for a prolonged period, the GTO is activated, which results in the muscle relaxing. What is this action called? A.Autogenic inhibition B.Isometric contraction C.Stretch reflex D.Reciprocal inhibition - ✔✔A.Autogenic inhibition The risk of which lower-extremity injury was decreased in female basketball athletes who participated in a 5-week balance training program that improved landing movement mechanics? A.Anterior cruciate ligament injury B.Shoulder injury C.Foot injury

D.Patellar fracture - ✔✔A.Anterior cruciate ligament injury To increase the metabolic demand of SAQ exercises among weight-loss clients, which of the following adjustments to a workout session could be implemented? A.Decreased rest periods B.Decreased intensity C.Fewer exercises D.Increased complexity of exercises - ✔✔A.Decreased rest periods Which phase of training would a person who just completed a Muscular Development Training program want to go back to for some corrective assistance? A.Stabilization Endurance Training B.Strength Endurance Training C.Power Training D.Maximal Strength Training - ✔✔A.Stabilization Endurance Training Agility plus which of the following concepts are separate but related concepts that both fit underneath the umbrella of agility training? A.Change of direction B.Speed C.Strength D.Power - ✔✔A.Change of direction Which of the following defines the limits of stability of the body? A.The area within which an individual can move their center of gravity without changing the base of support

B.The approximate midpoint of the body C.The area beneath a person that consists of all points of contact between the body and the support surface D.The highest elevation of the body in space - ✔✔A.The area within which an individual can move their center of gravity without changing the base of support Why are proper frontside mechanics in sprinting important? A.Frontside mechanics align the lead leg to optimally apply force into the ground to help propel the body forward. B.Frontside mechanics are associated with a stronger push phase, including hip-knee extension, gluteal contraction, and backside arm drive. C.Frontside mechanics align the rear leg to optimally apply force into the ground to help propel the body forward. D.Triple extension involved in frontside mechanics is essential to keep the pelvis in a neutral position and facilitate force production. - ✔✔A. Frontside mechanics align the lead leg to optimally apply force into the ground to help propel the body forward. What is the concentric motion of the shoulder blades during the standing cable row exercise? A.Retraction B.Protraction C.Elevation D.Upward rotation - ✔✔A.Retraction Reactive training is another common name for which type of exercise? A.Plyometric training B.Power training C.Stabilization training D.SAQ training - ✔✔A.Plyometric training

Stage 3 balance exercise should include what types of motion? A.Hopping motions with a single-leg stance landing B.No motion C.Little motion D.Moving only the balance leg through a full range of motion - ✔✔A.Hopping motions with a single-leg stance landing A client performs a heavy squat exercise followed by a set of squat jumps. What type of resistance training system is being used? A.Complex training B.Pyramid system C.Drop set D.Giant set - ✔✔A. Complex training What is considered to be the mechanism of action with self-myofascial rolling? A.Autogenic inhibition B.Synergistic dominance C.Altered reciprocal inhibition D.Reciprocal inhibition - ✔✔A. Autogenic inhibition What is defined as the specific outline created by a fitness professional that details the form of training, length of time, and specific exercises to be performed? A.Training plan B.Periodization C.Acute variables

D.Macrocycle - ✔✔A. Training plan Which of the following is not a tracked component on an athlete's macrocycle annual training plan? A. Cardio training B. Preseason training C. In-season training D. Off-season training - ✔✔A. Cardio training What is another term for the annual training plan that outlines the entire year's worth of programming? A.Macrocycle B.Microcycle C.Mesocycle D.Megacycle - ✔✔A.Macrocycle Which of the following is proper technique during a squat movement? A.Tracking the knees over the second and third toes B.Maintaining equal extension of the ankles and hips C.Keeping the feet facing inward D.Allowing the gaze to move freely - ✔✔A.Tracking the knees over the second and third toes Which of the following is a characteristic of undulating periodization? A.Changing acute variables on a weekly basis B.Increasing intensity while decreasing volume C.Consistent in its approach

D.Predetermined timelines - ✔✔A.Changing acute variables on a weekly basis Horizontal adduction is most common during what type of movement? A.Pushing B.Hip hinge C.Pulling D.Squatting - ✔✔A.Pushing Strength-training machines provide training primarily in which planes of motion? A.Frontal and sagittal B.Transverse and frontal C.Sagittal and transverse D.All planes of motion - ✔✔A.Frontal and sagittal Using battle ropes is considered which sort of exercise? A.Low-impact activity B.High-impact activity C.Proprioceptive training D.Steady-state aerobic training - ✔✔A.Low-impact activity Proper abdominal crunches on a stability ball allows for: A.Increased spinal extension due to the curvature of the ball B.Greater range of motion, allowing for increased spinal flexion C.Greater support and safety for elderly clients

D.Less range of motion as compared to traditional floor crunches - ✔✔A.Increased spinal extension due to the curvature of the ball Antirotational exercises are often this sort of movement by nature. A.Unilateral B.Bilateral C.Proprioceptive D.Loaded - ✔✔A.Unilateral Kettlebell exercises have proven extremely beneficial in the development in which plane or of which chain? A.Posterior chain B.Anterior chain C.Transverse plane D.Frontal plane - ✔✔A.Posterior chain Which of the following modalities has the potential to be used effectively in every phase of the OPT model? A.Cable machines B.Terra-Core C.TRX Rip Trainer D.Suspended bodyweight training - ✔✔A.Cable machines What are common physical characteristics of those with emphysema? A.Those with emphysema are frequently underweight and may exhibit hypertrophied neck muscles. B.Those with emphysema are frequently overweight and may exhibit atrophied neck muscles.

C.Those with emphysema frequently display knee valgus and pes planus. D.Those with emphysema frequently display high oxygen content in the blood. - ✔✔A.Those with emphysema are frequently underweight and may exhibit hypertrophied neck muscles. Which of the following modality/exercise combinations provides the most freedom of movement in the transverse plane? A.Elastic band woodchop B.Suspended chest press C.Seated abdominal crunch machine D.Dumbbell lat row - ✔✔A.Elastic band woodchop How often should elastic resistance bands be checked? A.Prior to every use B.Once a day C.Once a week D. Only when there are signs of wear - ✔✔A.Prior to every use Which disease is caused by a degeneration of cartilage within joints? A.Osteoarthritis B.Rheumatoid arthritis C.Osteoporosis D.Osteopenia - ✔✔A.Osteoarthritis Which modality allows for movements to occur as explosively as possible without the need for eccentric deceleration? A.Medicine ball

B.Resistance band C.Kettlebell D.Suspended bodyweight training - ✔✔A.Medicine ball A client is taking prescription beta-blockers for hypertension. Which exercise is the safest for him to perform? A.Standing cobra B.Knee-up C.Reverse crunch D.Floor bridge - ✔✔A.Standing cobra Which resistance training system is most appropriate for hypertensive clients? A.Peripheral heart action system B.Pyramid system C.Complex training D.Drop set - ✔✔A.Peripheral heart action system An obese client who has been diagnosed with peripheral artery disease (PAD) should be advised to do which of the following? A.Strive for 20 to 30 minutes of continuous aerobic exercise daily. B.Avoid walking and jogging and opt for cycling. C.Avoid aerobic exercise for lower extremities. D.Substitute self-myofascial release for static stretching. - ✔✔A.Strive for 20 to 30 minutes of continuous aerobic exercise daily. Most bodyweight training exercises are considered which type of movements?

A.Closed-chain movements B.Open-chain movements C.Loaded movements D.Suspended bodyweight movements - ✔✔A.Closed-chain movements According to the text, what percentage of Americans older than the age of 20 years are either overweight or obese? A.0.72 B.0.22 C.0.62 D.0.92 - ✔✔A.0.72 The TRX® Rip Trainer would most likely be utilized for which type of movement? A.Rotation B.Abduction and Adduction C.Flexion and extension D.Inversion and eversion - ✔✔A.Rotation Which of the following is considered a closed-chain exercise? A.Push-ups B.Lat pulldown C.Biceps curls D.Machine leg extension - ✔✔A.Push-ups Which of the following is a characteristic of linear periodization?

A.Increases intensity while decreasing volume B.Changes acute variables on a weekly basis C.Involves training multiple styles each week D.Helps prevent workouts from becoming boring - ✔✔A.Increases intensity while decreasing volume What is the approximate percentage of those who will quit a fitness program within the first 6 months after they begin? A.0.5 B.0.25 C.0.4 D.0.1 - ✔✔ Loaded movement training is best achieved with which training modality? A.ViPR B.Suspended bodyweight training C.Strength machines D.Speed ladders - ✔✔A.ViPR Type l muscle fibers (slow twitch) - ✔✔Muscle fibers that are small in size, generate lower amounts of force, and are resistance to fatigue. type ll muscle fibers (fast twitch): - ✔✔Muscle fiber type that contracts quickly and is used mostly in intensive, short-duration exercises. LARGER in size and are faster to fatigue. OPT Model - ✔✔Phase 1:Stabilzation Endurance Phase 2: Strength Endurance

Phase 3: Muscular Development Phase 4: Maximal Strength Phase 5: Power