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NASM CES FINAL EXAM 2024 ACTUAL COMPLETE 400 QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED VERIFIED ANSWERS (10, Exams of Nursing

NASM CES FINAL EXAM 2024 ACTUAL COMPLETE 400 QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED VERIFIED ANSWERS (100% CORRECT ANSWERS) ALREADY GRADED A+

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2024/2025

Available from 11/06/2024

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NASM CES FINAL EXAM 2024 ACTUAL COMPLETE 40 0 QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED VERIFIED ANSWERS (100% CORRECT ANSWERS) ALREADY GRADED A+ Muscles that assist prime movers during functional movement patters are known as? - ....ANSWER

synergists what is the most prevalent shoulder injury? - ....ANSWER >>>>shoulder impingement when shoulder pain is reported which is the most prevalent diagnosis - ....ANSWER >>>>shoulder impingement Swimmers often exhibit overemphasized_____ relation to scapular retractors? - ....ANSWER Pectoralis

Anterior pelvic tilt is a characteristic of which compensatory pattern? - ....ANSWER >>>>lower crossed syndrome the tibiofemoral joint is comprised of the femur and the? - ....ANSWER >>>>tibia The transverse arch of the foot consists of the? - ....ANSWER >>>>cuboid and cuneiforms There is a strong correlation between ACL injuries and which chronic disease? - ....ANSWER

Arthritis What altered joint motion is commonly displayed in an individual with upper crossed syndrome? - ....ANSWER >>>>increased scapular protraction What hip muscle has been shown to become weaker after an ankle sprain? - ....ANSWER gluteus medius What is the general effect of beta blockers on heart rate and blood pressure? - ....ANSWER

decreases heart rate and decreases blood pressure what is the process by which a tight muscle diminishes neural drive and inhibits recruitment of its functional antagonist? - ....ANSWER >>>>Altered reciprocal inhibition what is the process whereby a synergist compensates for a prime mover to maintain force production? - ....ANSWER >>>>synergistic dominance what motions occur at the knee during lower extremity supination? - ....ANSWER >>>>extension, abduction, external rotation which joint is comprised of the patella and femur? - ....ANSWER >>>>patellafemoral joint which levers are the most common in the body and have pull between the fulcrum and resistance? - ....ANSWER >>>>third class levers

which muscle is commonly tight in an individual with lower crossed syndrome? - ....ANSWER

rectus femoris which muscle is repeatedly placed in a shortened

cuboid and cuneiforms There is a strong correlation between ACL injuries and which chronic disease? - ....ANSWER >>>>Arthritis What altered joint motion is commonly displayed in an individual with upper crossed syndrome? - ....ANSWER >>>>increased scapular protraction What hip muscle has been shown to become weaker after an ankle sprain? - ....ANSWER >>>>gluteus medius What is the general effect of beta blockers on heart rate and blood pressure? - ....ANSWER >>>>decreases heart rate and decreases blood pressure what is the process by which a tight muscle diminishes neural drive and inhibits recruitment of its functional antagonist? - ....ANSWER >>>>Altered reciprocal inhibition what is the process whereby a synergist compensates for a prime mover to maintain force production? - ....ANSWER >>>>synergistic dominance what motions occur at the knee during lower extremity supination? - ....ANSWER >>>>extension, abduction, external rotation which joint is comprised of the patella and femur? - ....ANSWER >>>>patellafemoral joint which levers are the most common in the body and have pull between the fulcrum and resistance? - ....ANSWER >>>>third class levers which muscle is commonly tight in an individual with lower crossed syndrome? - ....ANSWER >>>>rectus femoris which muscle is repeatedly placed in a shortened position during sitting - ....ANSWER >>>>illiopsoas which is a muscle that is prone to lengthening? - ....ANSWER >>>>infraspinatus A runner who experiences reoccuring episodes of plantar fascitis, shin splints and patellar tendonitis is most likely affected by which of the following postural distortion syndromes? - ....ANSWER pronation distortion syndrome An estimated ACL injuries occur annually in the general U.S. population. - ....ANSWER >>>>80,000 to 100, During an overhead squat you notice an asymmetrical weight shift, which muscles could be underactive? - ....ANSWER >>>>gluteus medius on the side of the shift

During an overhead squat you have low back rounds compensation, which muscles could be underactive? - ....ANSWER >>>>erector spinae During the overhead squat assessment, the compensation of knees move inward can be attributed by overactivity of which muscles? - ....ANSWER >>>>vastus lateralis Florence and Henry Kendall addressed postural deviations through the relationship of? - ....ANSWER >>>>agonist-antagonist muscle groups Flexion of the ankle is called - ....ANSWER

dorsiflexion For a foot and ankle impairment what muscle should receive SMR? - ....ANSWER >>>>biceps femoris If the knees move inward what muscles would receive static stretching? - ....ANSWER >>>>TFL

If client demonstrates an asymmetric shift which muscles should receive static stretching? - ....ANSWER >>>>TFL same side If low back arches which muscles should receive SMR? - ....ANSWER >>>>Latissimus dorsi Functionally tightened or overactive muscles accompanying the lower extremity movement impairment syndrome include - ....ANSWER

peroneals, gastrocnemius, soleus, hamstrings, IT band, adductors Having an excessive forward lean in an overhead squat during LPHC movement compensation what muscles may be overactive? - ....ANSWER soleus A low back arch in the overhead squat indicates what muscles are overactive? - ....ANSWER >>>>hip flexors

Hips that are shifted off the midline are most likely indicative of - ....ANSWER >>>>load-bearing habits to the side How many postural distortion patterns were identified by Janda? - ....ANSWER >>>> If a client sits all day this in turn can lead to tight______ that can cause postural imbalances? - ....ANSWER >>>>hip flexors If the client has a hip hike during the single leg squat which muscle is underactive? - ....ANSWER

adductor complex If the hip drops during a single leg squat which muscle is underactive? - ....ANSWER >>>>quadratus lumborum In the asymmetrical shift which muscles are most likely underactive? - ....ANSWER >>>>opposite side

anterior tibialis

In the inhibit phase for knee impairments which muscles should be SMR? - ....ANSWER

Gastrocnemius/Soleus TFL same side If low back arches which muscles should receive SMR? - ....ANSWER >>>>Latissimus dorsi Functionally tightened or overactive muscles accompanying the lower extremity movement impairment syndrome include - ....ANSWER >>>>peroneals, gastrocnemius, soleus, hamstrings, IT band, adductors Having an excessive forward lean in an overhead squat during LPHC movement compensation what muscles may be overactive? - ....ANSWER >>>>soleus A low back arch in the overhead squat indicates what muscles are overactive? - ....ANSWER >>>>hip flexors Hips that are shifted off the midline are most likely indicative of - ....ANSWER >>>>load-bearing habits to the side How many postural distortion patterns were identified by Janda? - ....ANSWER >>>> If a client sits all day this in turn can lead to tight______ that can cause postural imbalances? - ....ANSWER >>>>hip flexors If the client has a hip hike during the single leg squat which muscle is underactive? - ....ANSWER >>>>adductor complex If the hip drops during a single leg squat which muscle is underactive? - ....ANSWER >>>>quadratus lumborum In the asymmetrical shift which muscles are most likely underactive? - ....ANSWER >>>>opposite side anterior tibialis In the inhibit phase for knee impairments which muscles should be SMR? - ....ANSWER >>>>Gastrocnemius/Soleus IT-Band tendonitis is often referred to as? - ....ANSWER >>>>runners knee Knee injuries can cause decrease in nerual control to muscles that stabilize the? - ....ANSWER patellofemoral and tibiofemoral joints Low back pain is a major form of degeneration affecting nearly - ....ANSWER >>>>80% of all adults which is an example of a predominantly transverse plane movement? - ....ANSWER >>>>radioulnar supination which of the following is an example of predominantly frontal plane movement? - ....ANSWER >>>>side shuffling

Which of the following muscles would become synergistically dominant when the gluteus maximus lacks the ability for neural recruitment and force production to properly perform hip extension during functional movements? - ....ANSWER

hamstrings which plane of motion bisects the body into top and bottom halves, and consists of primarily rotational movements? - ....ANSWER >>>>transverse plane which plane of motion consists of primarily flexion and extension movements? - ....ANSWER sagittal plane which of the following bones comprise the subtalar

quadratus lumborum In the asymmetrical shift which muscles are most likely underactive? - ....ANSWER >>>>opposite side anterior tibialis In the inhibit phase for knee impairments which muscles should be SMR? - ....ANSWER >>>>Gastrocnemius/Soleus IT-Band tendonitis is often referred to as? - ....ANSWER >>>>runners knee Knee injuries can cause decrease in nerual control to muscles that stabilize the? - ....ANSWER >>>>patellofemoral and tibiofemoral joints Low back pain is a major form of degeneration affecting nearly - ....ANSWER >>>>80% of all adults which is an example of a predominantly transverse plane movement? - ....ANSWER >>>>radioulnar supination which of the following is an example of predominantly frontal plane movement? - ....ANSWER >>>>side shuffling Which of the following muscles would become synergistically dominant when the gluteus maximus lacks the ability for neural recruitment and force production to properly perform hip extension during functional movements? - ....ANSWER >>>>hamstrings which plane of motion bisects the body into top and bottom halves, and consists of primarily rotational movements? - ....ANSWER >>>>transverse plane which plane of motion consists of primarily flexion and extension movements? - ....ANSWER >>>>sagittal plane which of the following bones comprise the subtalar joint? - ....ANSWER >>>>talus-calcaneus working with arms overhead for long periods of time (such as painting) may lead to shoulder soreness that could be the result of tightness in the latissimus dorsi and pectoralis and weakness in the?

  • ....ANSWER >>>>rotator cuff

Neuromuscular efficiency - ....ANSWER >>>>The ability of the neuromuscular system to allow agonists, antagonists, synergists, and stablilzers to work synergistically to produce, reduce, and dynamically stabilize the kinetic chain in all three planes of motion. Posture - ....ANSWER >>>>The independent and interdependent alignment (static posture) and function (transitional and dynamic posture) of all components of the human movement system at any given moment; controlled by the central nervous system. Structural efficiency - ....ANSWER >>>>The alignment of each segment of the human movement system (HMS), which allows posture to be balanced in relation to one's center of gravity. Functional efficiency - ....ANSWER >>>>The ability of the neuromuscular system to recruit correct muscle synergies, at the right time, with the appropriate amount of force to perform functional tasks with

the least amount of energy and stress on the human movement system. Cumulative injury cycle - ....ANSWER >>>>A cycle in which an injury will induce inflammation, muscle spasm, adhesion, altered neuromusclular control, and muscle imbalances. Movement impairment syndrome - ....ANSWER

Refers to the state in which the structural integrity of the human movement system (HMS) is compromised because the components are out of rotator cuff Neuromuscular efficiency - ....ANSWER >>>>The ability of the neuromuscular system to allow agonists, antagonists, synergists, and stablilzers to work synergistically to produce, reduce, and dynamically stabilize the kinetic chain in all three planes of motion. Posture - ....ANSWER >>>>The independent and interdependent alignment (static posture) and function (transitional and dynamic posture) of all components of the human movement system at any given moment; controlled by the central nervous system. Structural efficiency - ....ANSWER >>>>The alignment of each segment of the human movement system (HMS), which allows posture to be balanced in relation to one's center of gravity. Functional efficiency - ....ANSWER >>>>The ability of the neuromuscular system to recruit correct muscle synergies, at the right time, with the appropriate amount of force to perform functional tasks with the least amount of energy and stress on the human movement system. Cumulative injury cycle - ....ANSWER >>>>A cycle in which an injury will induce inflammation, muscle spasm, adhesion, altered neuromusclular control, and muscle imbalances. Movement impairment syndrome - ....ANSWER >>>>Refers to the state in which the structural integrity of the human movement system (HMS) is compromised because the components are out of alignment. Altered reciprocal inhibition - ....ANSWER >>>>The process whereby a tight muscle (short, overactive, myofascial adhesions) causes decreased neural drive and therefore optimal recruitment of its functional antagonist. Synergistic dominance - ....ANSWER >>>>The process by which a synergist compenstates for a prime mover to maintain force production.

Lower extremity movement impairment syndrome - ....ANSWER >>>>Usually characterized by excessive foot pronation (flat feet), increased knee valgus (tibia externally rotated and femur internally rotated and adducted or knock-kneed), and increased movement at the lumbo-pelvic-hip- complex (extension or flexion) during functional movements. Upper extremity movement impairment syndrome - ....ANSWER >>>>Usually characterized as having rounded shoulders and a forward head posture or improper scapulothoracic or glenohumeral kinematics during functional movements. Lengthening Techniques - ....ANSWER >>>>2nd phase in the Corrective Exercise Continuum is to lengthen those overactive or tight neuromyofascial tissues. Lengthening - ....ANSWER >>>>refers to the elongation of mechanically shortened muscle and connective tissuenecessary to increase range of motion (ROM) at the tissue and joint.

2 most common methods of stretching: - ....ANSWER >>>>Static stretching Neuromuscular stretching Static stretching - ....ANSWER >>>>Combines low force with long duration using autogenic inhibition. This form of stretching allows for relaxation and concomitant elongation of muscle. To perform static stretching, the stretch is held at the first point of tension or resistance barrier for 30 seconds. Performed solo Neuromuscular stretching - ....ANSWER

commonly called proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation,or PNF involves taking the muscle to its end ROM (point of joint compensation), actively contracting the muscle to be stretched for 7 - 15 seconds, then passively moving the joint to a new end ROM and holding this position for 20-30 seconds. Recurrent inhibition - ....ANSWER >>>>A feedback circuit that can decrease the excitability of motor

neurons via the interneuron called the Renshaw cell. Stretch reflex - ....ANSWER >>>>A muscle contraction in response to stretching within the muscle. Static stretching is characterized by: - ....ANSWER

The elongation of neuromyofascial tissue to an end-range and statically holding that position fora period of time. refers to the elongation of mechanically shortened muscle and connective tissuenecessary to increase range of motion (ROM) at the tissue and joint. 2 most common methods of stretching: - ....ANSWER >>>>Static stretching Neuromuscular stretching Static stretching - ....ANSWER >>>>Combines low force with long duration using autogenic inhibition. This form of stretching allows for relaxation and concomitant elongation of muscle. To perform static stretching, the stretch is held at the first point of tension or resistance barrier for 30 seconds. Performed solo Neuromuscular stretching - ....ANSWER >>>>commonly called proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation,or PNF involves taking the muscle to its end ROM (point of joint compensation), actively contracting the muscle to be stretched for 7 - 15 seconds, then passively moving the joint to a new end ROM and holding this position for 20-30 seconds. Recurrent inhibition - ....ANSWER >>>>A feedback circuit that can decrease the excitability of motor neurons via the interneuron called the Renshaw cell. Stretch reflex - ....ANSWER >>>>A muscle contraction in response to stretching within the muscle. Static stretching is characterized by: - ....ANSWER >>>>The elongation of neuromyofascial tissue to an end-range and statically holding that position fora period of time. Maximal control of structural alignment Minimal acceleration into and out of the elongated (stretch) position. Neuromuscular stretching is (NMS) characterized by: - ....ANSWER >>>>Taking the muscle to its end ROM (point of joint compensation) Active contraction of the muscle to be stretched Passively (or actively) moving to a new end ROM Statically holding new position for 20-30 seconds and repeating 3 times.

Neuromuscular stretching - ....ANSWER >>>>Is a technique that involves a process of isometrically contracting a desired muscle in a lengthened position to induce a relazation response on the tissue, allowing it to further elongate. Requires the assistance of another person. Autogenic inhibition - ....ANSWER >>>>The process when neural impulses that sense tension are greater than the impulses that cause muscles to contract, providing an inhibitory effect to the muscle spindles What is the origin of the Anterior Tibialis? - ....ANSWER >>>>The lateral condyle and proximal two thirds f the lateral surface of the tibia What is the origin of the Posterior Tibilais? - ....ANSWER >>>>Proximal two thirds surface of the tibia and fibula What is the origin of the Soleus? - ....ANSWER

Posterior surface of the fibular head and

proximal one third of its shaft and the posterior side of the tibia What is the origin of the Gastrocnemius? - ....ANSWER >>>>Posterior aspect of the lateral and medial femoral condyles What is the origin of Peroneus Longus? - ....ANSWER

Lateral condyle of the tibia, head and proximal two thirds of the lateral surface of the fibula What is the origin of the long head of Biceps Femoris? - ....ANSWER >>>>Ischial tuberosity of the pelvis and part of the sacrotuberous ligament What is the origin of the short head of Biceps

Femoris? - ....ANSWER >>>>Lower one third of the posterior aspect of the femur What is the origin of Semimembranosus? - ....ANSWER >>>>Ischial tuberosity of the pelvis

What is the origin of Semitendinosus? - ....ANSWER

Ischial tuberosity of the pelvis and part of the sacrotuberous ligament What is the origin of Vastus Lateralis? - ....ANSWER Anterior and inferior border of the greater trochanter, lateral region of the gluteal tuberosity, lateral lip of the linea aspera of the femur What is the origin of Vastus Medialis? - ....ANSWER Lower region of the intertrochanteric line, medial lip of the linea aspera, proximal medial supracondylar line of the femur What is the origin of Vastus Intermedius? - ....ANSWER >>>>Anterior-lateral regions of the upper two thirds of the femur What is the origin of Rectus femoris? - ....ANSWER Anterior-inferior illiac spine of the pelvis What is the origin of Adductor longus? - ....ANSWER Anterior surface of the inferior pubic ramus of the pelvis

What is the origin of the anterior fibers of Adductor magnus? - ....ANSWER >>>>Ischial ramus of the pelvis What is the origin of the posterior fibers of Adductor magnus? - ....ANSWER >>>>Ischial tuberosity of the pelvis What is the origin of Adductor brevis? - ....ANSWER

Anterior surface of the inferior pubic ramus of the pelvis What is the origin of Gracilis? - ....ANSWER Anterior aspect of the lower body of the pubis What is the origin of Pectineus? - ....ANSWER Pectineal line on the superior pubic ramus of the pelvis What is the origin of the anterior fibers of Gluteus medius? - ....ANSWER >>>>Outer surface of the ilium

What is the origin of the posterior fibers of gluteus medius? - ....ANSWER >>>>Outer surface of the ilium What is the origin of Gluteus maximus? - ....ANSWER >>>>Outer ilium, posterior side of the sacrum, coccyx, and sacrotuberous ligament, and the posterior sacroiliac ligament What is the origin of Gluteus minimus? - ....ANSWER

Ilium, between the anterior and inferior gluteal line What is the origin of Tensor Fascia Late? - ....ANSWER >>>>Outer surface of the illiac crest just posterior to the anterior-superior iliac spine of the pelvis What is the origin of Psoas? - ....ANSWER Transverse processes and lateral bodies of the last thoracic and all lumbar vertebrae, including the intervertebral disc

What is the origin of Sartorius? - ....ANSWER

Anterior-superior iliac spine of the pelvis which of the following best describes how plantar fasciitits has affected the population? - ....ANSWER more than one million ambulatory care visits Anterior surface of the inferior pubic ramus of the pelvis What is the origin of Gracilis? - ....ANSWER >>>>Anterior aspect of the lower body of the pubis What is the origin of Pectineus? - ....ANSWER >>>>Pectineal line on the superior pubic ramus of the pelvis What is the origin of the anterior fibers of Gluteus medius? - ....ANSWER >>>>Outer surface of the ilium What is the origin of the posterior fibers of gluteus medius? - ....ANSWER >>>>Outer surface of the ilium What is the origin of Gluteus maximus? - ....ANSWER >>>>Outer ilium, posterior side of the sacrum, coccyx, and sacrotuberous ligament, and the posterior sacroiliac ligament What is the origin of Gluteus minimus? - ....ANSWER >>>>Ilium, between the anterior and inferior gluteal line What is the origin of Tensor Fascia Late? - ....ANSWER >>>>Outer surface of the illiac crest just posterior to the anterior-superior iliac spine of the pelvis What is the origin of Psoas? - ....ANSWER >>>>Transverse processes and lateral bodies of the last thoracic and all lumbar vertebrae, including the intervertebral disc What is the origin of Sartorius? - ....ANSWER >>>>Anterior-superior iliac spine of the pelvis which of the following best describes how plantar fasciitits has affected the population? - ....ANSWER >>>>more than one million ambulatory care visits per year are attributed to plantar fasciitis which of the following is the correct sequence for NASM corrective exercise continuum? - ....ANSWER inhibit, lengthen, activate, integrate which of the following best describes a muscle imbalance? - ....ANSWER >>>>when a muscle on both sides of the joint are too strong which of the following best describes a postural distortion syndrome characterized by foot pronation and lower extremity muscle imbalances?

  • ....ANSWER >>>>pronation distortion syndrome which of the following best describes proper alignment of the kinetic chain checkpoints? - ....ANSWER >>>>feet/ankles: straight, knees: in line

with toes, LPHC: pelvis level, Shoulders:level and head: neutral which of the following terms best describes an assessment in which movement is occuring without a change is one's base of support? - ....ANSWER

transitional assessment which of the following compensations are viewed from the posterior view during the overhead squat assessment? - ....ANSWER >>>>heel of foot rises which of the following muscles are overactive if the client demonstrates their feet turning out during

Ischial ramus of the pelvis What is the origin of the posterior fibers of Adductor magnus? - ....ANSWER >>>>Ischial tuberosity of the pelvis What is the origin of Adductor brevis? - ....ANSWER >>>>Anterior surface of the inferior pubic ramus of the pelvis What is the origin of Gracilis? - ....ANSWER >>>>Anterior aspect of the lower body of the pubis What is the origin of Pectineus? - ....ANSWER >>>>Pectineal line on the superior pubic ramus of the pelvis What is the origin of the anterior fibers of Gluteus medius? - ....ANSWER >>>>Outer surface of the ilium What is the origin of the posterior fibers of gluteus medius? - ....ANSWER >>>>Outer surface of the ilium What is the origin of Gluteus maximus? - ....ANSWER >>>>Outer ilium, posterior side of the sacrum, coccyx, and sacrotuberous ligament, and the posterior sacroiliac ligament What is the origin of Gluteus minimus? - ....ANSWER >>>>Ilium, between the anterior and inferior gluteal line What is the origin of Tensor Fascia Late? - ....ANSWER >>>>Outer surface of the illiac crest just posterior to the anterior-superior iliac spine of the pelvis What is the origin of Psoas? - ....ANSWER >>>>Transverse processes and lateral bodies of the last thoracic and all lumbar vertebrae, including the intervertebral disc What is the origin of Sartorius? - ....ANSWER >>>>Anterior-superior iliac spine of the pelvis which of the following best describes how plantar fasciitits has affected the population? - ....ANSWER >>>>more than one million ambulatory care visits per year are attributed to plantar fasciitis which of the following is the correct sequence for NASM corrective exercise continuum? - ....ANSWER >>>>inhibit, lengthen, activate, integrate which of the following best describes a muscle imbalance? - ....ANSWER >>>>when a muscle on both sides of the joint are too strong which of the following best describes a postural distortion syndrome characterized by foot pronation and lower extremity muscle imbalances? - ....ANSWER >>>>pronation distortion syndrome which of the following best describes proper alignment of the kinetic chain checkpoints? - ....ANSWER >>>>feet/ankles: straight, knees: in line with toes, LPHC: pelvis level, Shoulders:level and head: neutral which of the following terms best describes an assessment in which movement is occuring without a change is one's base of support? - ....ANSWER >>>>transitional assessment which of the following compensations are viewed from the posterior view during the overhead squat assessment? - ....ANSWER >>>>heel of foot rises which of the following muscles are overactive if the client demonstrates their feet turning out during the overhead squat assessment? - ....ANSWER soleus, Lateral gastrocnemius, Bicep Femoris Short Head, which of the following best describes the purpose of the standing row assessment? - ....ANSWER evaluates the function of the LPHC and the scapular and cervical stabilizers

which of the following is the most appropriate when considering the LESS and tuck jump tests with a client? - ....ANSWER >>>>if a client has difficulty performing a single leg squat then these tests are not appropriate which of the following bones make up the medial longitudinal arch? - ....ANSWER >>>>calcaneus, talus, navicular, medial cuneiform, and first metatarsal which bones make up the ankle joint? - ....ANSWER

The "ankle joint" is a synovial hinge composed of the talus, fibula, and tibia, the last of which bears 85% of the weight pressing down on the foot during standing. which of the following best describes shin splints - ....ANSWER >>>>medial tibial stress syndrome Pain in the front of the tibia is caused by an overload to the tibia and associated musculature which of the following best describes the tibia and the knww when the feet flatten? - ....ANSWER

a flat foot will lead to internal tibial rotation and knees will move in which of the following goniometric measurements are likely to be found if a clients feet turn out during an overhead squat assessment? - ....ANSWER ... which of the following forces are the most likely to result in ACL rupture if the client does not demonstrate proper neuromuscular control of the lower extremities - ....ANSWER >>>>anterior, lateral, rotational which of the following is the most appropriate sequence of assessments for the knee impairments? - ....ANSWER >>>>static posture,

if a client has difficulty performing a single leg squat then these tests are not appropriate which of the following bones make up the medial longitudinal arch? - ....ANSWER >>>>calcaneus, talus, navicular, medial cuneiform, and first metatarsal which bones make up the ankle joint? - ....ANSWER >>>>The "ankle joint" is a synovial hinge composed of the talus, fibula, and tibia, the last of which bears 85% of the weight pressing down on the foot during standing. which of the following best describes shin splints - ....ANSWER >>>>medial tibial stress syndrome Pain in the front of the tibia is caused by an overload to the tibia and associated musculature which of the following best describes the tibia and the knww when the feet flatten? - ....ANSWER >>>>a flat foot will lead to internal tibial rotation and knees will move in which of the following goniometric measurements are likely to be found if a clients feet turn out during an overhead squat assessment? - ....ANSWER >>>>... which of the following forces are the most likely to result in ACL rupture if the client does not demonstrate proper neuromuscular control of the lower extremities - ....ANSWER >>>>anterior, lateral, rotational which of the following is the most appropriate sequence of assessments for the knee impairments? - ....ANSWER >>>>static posture, overhead squat, single-leg squat, tuck jump, goniometric, and manual muscle testing if the knees move in during the overhead squat assessment which of the following muscles needs to be activated? - ....ANSWER >>>>gluteus medius

which of the following would be the most appropriate integrated movement for a client with elbow and wrist impairments? - ....ANSWER

prone triceps extension with cobra during activation of the anterior tibialis, which of the following is the most appropriate position? - ....ANSWER >>>>dorsiflexion and inversion flexion of the ankle is called - ....ANSWER dorsiflexion functionally tightened or overactive muscles accompanying the lower extremity movement impairment syndrome include - ....ANSWER peroneals, lateral gastrocnemius, soleus, lateral hamstrings, IT band adductors low back pain is a major form of degeneration affecting nearly - ....ANSWER >>>>80% of all adults Most ACL injuries occur between the ages of - ....ANSWER >>>>15 to 25

muscles assist prime movers during functional movement patterns are known as - ....ANSWER

synergists NASM Corrective Exercise Continuum is organized into which four phases - ....ANSWER >>>>inhibit, lengthen, activate, integrate of all the work related injuries that involve the trunk, more than ____involve the low back - static posture, overhead squat, single-leg squat, tuck jump, goniometric, and manual muscle testing if the knees move in during the overhead squat assessment which of the following muscles needs to be activated? - ....ANSWER >>>>gluteus medius which of the following would be the most appropriate integrated movement for a client with elbow and wrist impairments? - ....ANSWER >>>>prone triceps extension with cobra during activation of the anterior tibialis, which of the following is the most appropriate position? - ....ANSWER >>>>dorsiflexion and inversion flexion of the ankle is called - ....ANSWER >>>>dorsiflexion functionally tightened or overactive muscles accompanying the lower extremity movement impairment syndrome include - ....ANSWER >>>>peroneals, lateral gastrocnemius, soleus, lateral hamstrings, IT band adductors low back pain is a major form of degeneration affecting nearly - ....ANSWER >>>>80% of all adults Most ACL injuries occur between the ages of - ....ANSWER >>>>15 to 25 muscles assist prime movers during functional movement patterns are known as - ....ANSWER >>>>synergists NASM Corrective Exercise Continuum is organized into which four phases - ....ANSWER >>>>inhibit, lengthen, activate, integrate of all the work related injuries that involve the trunk, more than ____involve the low back - ....ANSWER >>>>60% of the following shoulder injuries which diagnosis is the most common? - ....ANSWER >>>>shoulder impingment Clients with low back pain have been reported to demonstrate impaired postural control, delayed muscle relaxation and abnormal muscle recruitment patterns with the ____and____ musculature being most noticeable - ....ANSWER >>>>transverse abdominius and multifidus