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NASM CES Final Exam Study Guide Questions and Answers 2024.
Typology: Exams
1 / 75
Functionally tightened or overactive muscles accompanying the lower extremity movement impairment syndrome include peroneals, gastrocnemius, soleus, hamstrings, IT band, adductors A runner who experiences reoccurring episodes of plantar fascitis, shin splints and patellar tendonitis is most likely affected by which of the following postural distortion syndromes? pronation distortion syndrome Having an excessive forward lean in an overhead squat during LPHC movement compensation what muscles may be overactive? soleus A low back arch in the overhead squat indicates what muscles are overactive? hip flexors Hips that are shifted off the midline are most likely indicative of load-bearing habits to the side How many postural distortion patterns were identified by Janda? 3 If a client sits all day this in turn can lead to tight______ that can cause postural imbalances? hip flexors If the client has a hip hike during the single leg squat which muscle is underactive? adductor complex If the hip drops during a single leg squat which muscle is underactive? quadratus lumborum In the asymmetrical shift which muscles are most likely underactive? opposite side anterior tibialis In the inhibit phase for knee impairments which muscles should be SMR? Gastrocnemius/Soleus IT-Band tendonitis is often referred to as?
runners knee Knee injuries can cause decrease in nerual control to muscles that stabilize the? patellofemoral and tibiofemoral joints Low back pain is a major form of degeneration affecting nearly 80% of all adults Muscles that assist prime movers during functional movement patters are known as? synergists what is the most prevalent shoulder injury? shoulder impingement when shoulder pain is reported which is the most prevalent diagnosis shoulder impingement Swimmers often exhibit overemphasized_____ relation to scapular retractors? Pectoralis Anterior pelvic tilt is a characteristic of which compensatory pattern? lower crossed syndrome the tibiofemoral joint is comprised of the femur and the? tibia The transverse arch of the foot consists of the? cuboid and cuneiforms There is a strong correlation between ACL injuries and which chronic disease? Arthritis What altered joint motion is commonly displayed in an individual with upper crossed syndrome? increased scapular protraction What hip muscle has been shown to become weaker after an ankle sprain? gluteus medius What is the general effect of beta blockers on heart rate and blood pressure? decreases heart rate and decreases blood pressure what is the process by which a tight muscle diminishes neural drive and inhibits recruitment of its functional antagonist?
Altered reciprocal inhibition what is the process whereby a synergist compensates for a prime mover to maintain force production? synergistic dominance what motions occur at the knee during lower extremity supination? extension, abduction, external rotation which joint is comprised of the patella and femur? patellafemoral joint which levers are the most common in the body and have pull between the fulcrum and resistance? third class levers which muscle is commonly tight in an individual with lower crossed syndrome? rectus femoris which muscle is repeatedly placed in a shortened position during sitting illiopsoas which is a muscle that is prone to lengthening? infraspinatus which is an example of a predominantly transverse plane movement? radioulnar supination which of the following is an example of predominantly frontal plane movement? side shuffling Which of the following muscles would become synergistically dominant when the gluteus maximus lacks the ability for neural recruitment and force production to properly perform hip extension during functional movements? hamstrings which plane of motion bisects the body into top and bottom halves, and consists of primarily rotational movements? transverse plane which plane of motion consists of primarily flexion and extension movements? sagittal plane which of the following bones comprise the subtalar joint?
talus-calcaneus working with arms overhead for long periods of time (such as painting) may lead to shoulder soreness that could be the result of tightness in the latissimus dorsi and pectoralis and weakness in the? rotator cuff Muscles involved in the Anterior Oblique subsystem (AOS) Internal Oblique and adductor complex, external oblique and hip external rotators Function of anterior oblique subsystem provides transverse plane stabilization and force transmission necessary for functional activities involving the trunk and extremities Provides rotation of the pelvis *provides dynamic stabilization of lumbo-pelvic-hip complex Muscles involved in the lateral subsystem (LS) Gluteus medius, tensor fascia latae, adducor complex and quadratus lumborum Function of lateral subsystem (LS) frontal plan stability and pelvo-femoral stability, Dysfunction in the Lateral subsystem (LS) is evident by increased pronation of the knee, hip, or feet during walking, squats, lunges or climbing chairs Unwanted frontal plane movement is characterized by decreased strength and neuromuscular control in the lateral subsystem (LS) The anterior subsystem (AOS) functions in the in which plane transverse Force couple the synergistic action of a muscle to produce movement around a joint length tension relationships the resting length of a muscle and the tension the muscle can produce while resting The global stabilization subsystem in predominantly responsible for LPHC stabilization and eccentric deceleration The global stabilization subsystem consists of superficial musculature that originates from the pelvis to the ribcage, the lower extremities or both The major muscles of the global stabilization subsystem
rectus abdominis, external obliques, erector spinae, quadratus lumborum, psoas, and adductors The global stabilization subsystem muscles are predominately larger and associated with movement of the trunk and limbs The global stabilization subsystem equalizes external loads placed upon the body The muscles of the global stabilization subsystem are important in transferring and absorbing forces from the upper and lower extremities to the pelvis (eccentric deceleration) The global movement system is predominately responsible for concentric force production (acceleration) The muscles that make up global movement system gastrocnemius, hamstrings, quadriceps, gluteus maximus, latissimus dorsi and pectoralis major The local muscular system or local stabilization system consists of muscles that are primarily involved in joint support or stabilization The local muscular system or local stabilization system joint support muscles are not movement specific The local muscular system or local stabilization system joint support muscles provide stability to allow joint movement An estimated ACL injuries occur annually in the general U.S. population. 80,000 to 100, During an overhead squat you notice an asymmetrical weight shift, which muscles could be underactive? gluteus medius on the side of the shift During an overhead squat you have low back rounds compensation, which muscles could be underactive? erector spinae During the overhead squat assessment, the compensation of knees move inward can be attributed by overactivity of which muscles? vastus lateralis
Florence and Henry Kendall addressed postural deviations through the relationship of? agonist-antagonist muscle groups Flexion of the ankle is called dorsiflexion For a foot and ankle impairment what muscle should receive SMR? biceps femoris If the knees move inward what muscles would receive static stretching? TFL If client demonstrates an asymmetric shift which muscles should receive static stretching? TFL same side If low back arches which muscles should receive SMR? Latissimus dorsi Functionally tightened or overactive muscles accompanying the lower extremity movement impairment syndrome include peroneals, gastrocnemius, soleus, hamstrings, IT band, adductors Having an excessive forward lean in an overhead squat during LPHC movement compensation what muscles may be overactive? soleus A low back arch in the overhead squat indicates what muscles are overactive? hip flexors Hips that are shifted off the midline are most likely indicative of load-bearing habits to the side How many postural distortion patterns were identified by Janda? 3 If a client sits all day this in turn can lead to tight______ that can cause postural imbalances? hip flexors If the client has a hip hike during the single leg squat which muscle is underactive? adductor complex If the hip drops during a single leg squat which muscle is underactive? quadratus lumborum
In the asymmetrical shift which muscles are most likely underactive? opposite side anterior tibialis In the inhibit phase for knee impairments which muscles should be SMR? Gastrocnemius/Soleus IT-Band tendonitis is often referred to as? runners knee Knee injuries can cause decrease in nerual control to muscles that stabilize the? patellofemoral and tibiofemoral joints Low back pain is a major form of degeneration affecting nearly 80% of all adults Muscles that assist prime movers during functional movement patters are known as? synergists what is the most prevalent shoulder injury? shoulder impingement when shoulder pain is reported which is the most prevalent diagnosis shoulder impingement Swimmers often exhibit overemphasized_____ relation to scapular retractors? Pectoralis Anterior pelvic tilt is a characteristic of which compensatory pattern? lower crossed syndrome the tibiofemoral joint is comprised of the femur and the? tibia The transverse arch of the foot consists of the? cuboid and cuneiforms There is a strong correlation between ACL injuries and which chronic disease? Arthritis What altered joint motion is commonly displayed in an individual with upper crossed syndrome? increased scapular protraction
What hip muscle has been shown to become weaker after an ankle sprain? gluteus medius What is the general effect of beta blockers on heart rate and blood pressure? decreases heart rate and decreases blood pressure what is the process by which a tight muscle diminishes neural drive and inhibits recruitment of its functional antagonist? Altered reciprocal inhibition what is the process whereby a synergist compensates for a prime mover to maintain force production? synergistic dominance what motions occur at the knee during lower extremity supination? extension, abduction, external rotation which joint is comprised of the patella and femur? patellafemoral joint which levers are the most common in the body and have pull between the fulcrum and resistance? third class levers which muscle is commonly tight in an individual with lower crossed syndrome? rectus femoris which muscle is repeatedly placed in a shortened position during sitting illiopsoas which is a muscle that is prone to lengthening? infraspinatus which is an example of a predominantly transverse plane movement? radioulnar supination which of the following is an example of predominantly frontal plane movement? side shuffling Which of the following muscles would become synergistically dominant when the gluteus maximus lacks the ability for neural recruitment and force production to properly perform hip extension during functional movements? hamstrings
which plane of motion bisects the body into top and bottom halves, and consists of primarily rotational movements? transverse plane which plane of motion consists of primarily flexion and extension movements? sagittal plane which of the following bones comprise the subtalar joint? talus-calcaneus working with arms overhead for long periods of time (such as painting) may lead to shoulder soreness that could be the result of tightness in the latissimus dorsi and pectoralis and weakness in the? rotator cuff Neuromuscular efficiency The ability of the neuromuscular system to allow agonists, antagonists, synergists, and stablilzers to work synergistically to produce, reduce, and dynamically stabilize the kinetic chain in all three planes of motion. Posture The independent and interdependent alignment (static posture) and function (transitional and dynamic posture) of all components of the human movement system at any given moment; controlled by the central nervous system. Structural efficiency The alignment of each segment of the human movement system (HMS), which allows posture to be balanced in relation to one's center of gravity. Functional efficiency The ability of the neuromuscular system to recruit correct muscle synergies, at the right time, with the appropriate amount of force to perform functional tasks with the least amount of energy and stress on the human movement system. Cumulative injury cycle A cycle in which an injury will induce inflammation, muscle spasm, adhesion, altered neuromusclular control, and muscle imbalances. Movement impairment syndrome Refers to the state in which the structural integrity of the human movement system (HMS) is compromised because the components are out of alignment. Altered reciprocal inhibition
The process whereby a tight muscle (short, overactive, myofascial adhesions) causes decreased neural drive and therefore optimal recruitment of its functional antagonist. Synergistic dominance The process by which a synergist compenstates for a prime mover to maintain force production. Lower extremity movement impairment syndrome Usually characterized by excessive foot pronation (flat feet), increased knee valgus (tibia externally rotated and femur internally rotated and adducted or knock-kneed), and increased movement at the lumbo-pelvic-hip-complex (extension or flexion) during functional movements. Upper extremity movement impairment syndrome Usually characterized as having rounded shoulders and a forward head posture or improper scapulothoracic or glenohumeral kinematics during functional movements. Lengthening Techniques 2nd phase in the Corrective Exercise Continuum is to lengthen those overactive or tight neuromyofascial tissues. Lengthening refers to the elongation of mechanically shortened muscle and connective tissuenecessary to increase range of motion (ROM) at the tissue and joint. 2 most common methods of stretching: Static stretching Neuromuscular stretching Static stretching Combines low force with long duration using autogenic inhibition. This form of stretching allows for relaxation and concomitant elongation of muscle. To perform static stretching, the stretch is held at the first point of tension or resistance barrier for 30 seconds. Performed solo Neuromuscular stretching commonly called proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation,or PNF involves taking the muscle to its end ROM (point of joint compensation), actively contracting the muscle to be stretched for 7 - 15 seconds, then passively moving the joint to a new end ROM and holding this position for 20-30 seconds. Recurrent inhibition A feedback circuit that can decrease the excitability of motor neurons via the interneuron called the Renshaw cell.
Stretch reflex A muscle contraction in response to stretching within the muscle. Static stretching is characterized by: The elongation of neuromyofascial tissue to an end-range and statically holding that position fora period of time. Maximal control of structural alignment Minimal acceleration into and out of the elongated (stretch) position. Neuromuscular stretching is (NMS) characterized by: Taking the muscle to its end ROM (point of joint compensation) Active contraction of the muscle to be stretched Passively (or actively) moving to a new end ROM Statically holding new position for 20-30 seconds and repeating 3 times. Neuromuscular stretching Is a technique that involves a process of isometrically contracting a desired muscle in a lengthened position to induce a relazation response on the tissue, allowing it to further elongate. Requires the assistance of another person. Autogenic inhibition The process when neural impulses that sense tension are greater than the impulses that cause muscles to contract, providing an inhibitory effect to the muscle spindles What is the origin of the Anterior Tibialis? The lateral condyle and proximal two thirds f the lateral surface of the tibia What is the origin of the Posterior Tibilais? Proximal two thirds surface of the tibia and fibula What is the origin of the Soleus? Posterior surface of the fibular head and proximal one third of its shaft and the posterior side of the tibia What is the origin of the Gastrocnemius? Posterior aspect of the lateral and medial femoral condyles What is the origin of Peroneus Longus? Lateral condyle of the tibia, head and proximal two thirds of the lateral surface of the fibula What is the origin of the long head of Biceps Femoris? Ischial tuberosity of the pelvis and part of the sacrotuberous ligament What is the origin of the short head of Biceps Femoris?
Lower one third of the posterior aspect of the femur What is the origin of Semimembranosus? Ischial tuberosity of the pelvis What is the origin of Semitendinosus? Ischial tuberosity of the pelvis and part of the sacrotuberous ligament What is the origin of Vastus Lateralis? Anterior and inferior border of the greater trochanter, lateral region of the gluteal tuberosity, lateral lip of the linea aspera of the femur What is the origin of Vastus Medialis? Lower region of the intertrochanteric line, medial lip of the linea aspera, proximal medial supracondylar line of the femur What is the origin of Vastus Intermedius? Anterior-lateral regions of the upper two thirds of the femur What is the origin of Rectus femoris? Anterior-inferior illiac spine of the pelvis What is the origin of Adductor longus? Anterior surface of the inferior pubic ramus of the pelvis What is the origin of the anterior fibers of Adductor magnus? Ischial ramus of the pelvis What is the origin of the posterior fibers of Adductor magnus? Ischial tuberosity of the pelvis What is the origin of Adductor brevis? Anterior surface of the inferior pubic ramus of the pelvis What is the origin of Gracilis? Anterior aspect of the lower body of the pubis What is the origin of Pectineus? Pectineal line on the superior pubic ramus of the pelvis What is the origin of the anterior fibers of Gluteus medius? Outer surface of the ilium What is the origin of the posterior fibers of gluteus medius?
Outer surface of the ilium What is the origin of Gluteus maximus? Outer ilium, posterior side of the sacrum, coccyx, and sacrotuberous ligament, and the posterior sacroiliac ligament What is the origin of Gluteus minimus? Ilium, between the anterior and inferior gluteal line What is the origin of Tensor Fascia Late? Outer surface of the illiac crest just posterior to the anterior-superior iliac spine of the pelvis What is the origin of Psoas? Transverse processes and lateral bodies of the last thoracic and all lumbar vertebrae, including the intervertebral disc What is the origin of Sartorius? Anterior-superior iliac spine of the pelvis which of the following best describes how plantar fasciitits has affected the population? more than one million ambulatory care visits per year are attributed to plantar fasciitis which of the following is the correct sequence for NASM corrective exercise continuum? inhibit, lengthen, activate, integrate which of the following best describes a muscle imbalance? when a muscle on both sides of the joint are too strong which of the following best describes a postural distortion syndrome characterized by foot pronation and lower extremity muscle imbalances? pronation distortion syndrome which of the following best describes proper alignment of the kinetic chain checkpoints? feet/ankles: straight, knees: in line with toes, LPHC: pelvis level, Shoulders:level and head: neutral which of the following terms best describes an assessment in which movement is occuring without a change is one's base of support? transitional assessment which of the following compensations are viewed from the posterior view during the overhead squat assessment? heel of foot rises
which of the following muscles are overactive if the client demonstrates their feet turning out during the overhead squat assessment? soleus, Lateral gastrocnemius, Bicep Femoris Short Head, which of the following best describes the purpose of the standing row assessment? evaluates the function of the LPHC and the scapular and cervical stabilizers which of the following is the most appropriate when considering the LESS and tuck jump tests with a client? if a client has difficulty performing a single leg squat then these tests are not appropriate which of the following bones make up the medial longitudinal arch? calcaneus, talus, navicular, medial cuneiform, and first metatarsal which bones make up the ankle joint? The "ankle joint" is a synovial hinge composed of the talus, fibula, and tibia, the last of which bears 85% of the weight pressing down on the foot during standing. which of the following best describes shin splints medial tibial stress syndrome Pain in the front of the tibia is caused by an overload to the tibia and associated musculature which of the following best describes the tibia and the knww when the feet flatten? a flat foot will lead to internal tibial rotation and knees will move in which of the following goniometric measurements are likely to be found if a clients feet turn out during an overhead squat assessment? ... which of the following forces are the most likely to result in ACL rupture if the client does not demonstrate proper neuromuscular control of the lower extremities anterior, lateral, rotational which of the following is the most appropriate sequence of assessments for the knee impairments? static posture, overhead squat, single-leg squat, tuck jump, goniometric, and manual muscle testing if the knees move in during the overhead squat assessment which of the following muscles needs to be activated? gluteus medius which of the following would be the most appropriate integrated movement for a client with elbow and wrist impairments?
prone triceps extension with cobra during activation of the anterior tibialis, which of the following is the most appropriate position? dorsiflexion and inversion flexion of the ankle is called dorsiflexion functionally tightened or overactive muscles accompanying the lower extremity movement impairment syndrome include peroneals, lateral gastrocnemius, soleus, lateral hamstrings, IT band adductors low back pain is a major form of degeneration affecting nearly 80% of all adults Most ACL injuries occur between the ages of 15 to 25 muscles assist prime movers during functional movement patterns are known as synergists NASM Corrective Exercise Continuum is organized into which four phases inhibit, lengthen, activate, integrate of all the work related injuries that involve the trunk, more than ____involve the low back 60% of the following shoulder injuries which diagnosis is the most common? shoulder impingment Clients with low back pain have been reported to demonstrate impaired postural control, delayed muscle relaxation and abnormal muscle recruitment patterns with the ____and____ musculature being most noticeable transverse abdominius and multifidus what is the process by which a tight muscle diminishes neural drive and inhibits recruitment of its functional antagonist altered reciprocal inhibition what is the process whereby a synergist compensates for a prime mover to maintain force production synergistic dominance
what motions occur at the knee during lower extremity extension, abduction, external rotation which levers are the most common in the body and have the pull effort between the fulcrum and resistance? Third class levers which of the following is a common static malalignment associated with patellafemoral pain and ACL injury? Hyperpronation of the foot which of the following is an example of the predominantly sagittal plane movement? climbing stairs which of the following is an example of a predominantly frontal plane movement? side shuffling which plane of motion bisects the body into front and back halves and consists of primarily adduction and abduction movements frontal plane which plane of motion bisects the body into top and bottom halves, and consists of primarily rotational movements? transverse plane which plane of motion consists of primarily flexion and extension movements? sagittal plane which of the following is reported to be the most common sports related injury? ankle sprains joint motion is referred to as arthrokinematics when a muscle is exerting more force that is being placed on it resulting in the shortening of the muscle. What us the type of contraction? concentric which of the following terms explains the ability to move the body in one intended direction as fast as possible? speed what is the name of the plane where movements such as abduction and adduction primarily occur?
frontal plane the ability of the neuromuscular system to allow optimal levels of motor unit recruitment and synchronization within a muscle is known as: intermuscular coordination what is known as the study that uses principles of physics to quantitatively study how forces interact within the body? biomechanics exercises performed in the transverse plane of motion include cable lift resistance training can become a hinderance if the following factors occur improper assessment and poor flexibility protocol what is the term given to an anatomical location referring to a position on the same side of the body ipsilateral the LPHC has approximately how many muscles attached to it? 29 The ability of the body to repeatedly produce high levels of force for prolonged periods is known as strength endurance balance and neuromuscular efficiency are improved through repetive exposure to a variety of which of the following kinds of conditions multisensory conditions the bending of a joint, causing the angle of the joint to decrease is termed what? flexion balance is what type of process? static and dynamic which of the following exercises is performed predominantly in the sagittal plane of motion? bicep curls a cellular structure that supplies energy for many biomechanical cellular processes by undergoing enzymatic hydrolysis is known as? adenenosine triphosphate
what motion is the rectus abdominus responsible for? concentrically accelerating spinal flexion when the assisting muscle in the force couple substitutes for a prime mover during a muscle contraction, which of the following is occurring? synergistic dominance performing exercises in the scapular plane of motion is a preferred motion as it decreases the risk of rotator cuff impingement This can be accomplished in which of the following shoulder exercises? dumbbell scaption when excited which of the following sensory receptors will cause an activated muscle to relax through the process of autogenic inhibition Golgi tendon organs GTO performing exercises in the scapular plane of motion is a preferred motion as it decreases the risk of rotator cuff impingement. This can be accomplished in which of the following shoulder exercises? dumbbell scaption prolonged golgi tendon organ stimulation inhibits the muscle spindle of the same muscle resulting in: autogenic inhibition what is the name of the sensory afferents that are responsible for sensing distortions of body tissue? mechanoreceptors the kinetic chain, or human movement system constists of which of the following systems? nervous, muscular, and skeletal systems Research demonstrated that optimum stride length at maximum velocity is 2.1-2.5 times leg length the functional unit of the muscle formed by repeating sections of actin and myosin and lies in the space between two Z lines is known as sarcomere the single most functional unit of the nervous system is a neuron. What are its three outer components? cell body, axon, and dendrites
which muscle is primarily responsible for concentrically accelerating hip flexion and internal rotation TFL tensor fascia latae the core stabilizer muscles are predominantly made up of what muscle fiber type? type 1 when sprinting proper backside mechanics include which of the following movements? ankle plantar flexion the core is defined as which of the following Lumbo-pelvic-hip complex, thoracic spine and cervical spine during seated row exercise the motion occurring at the shoulder joint during the concentric phase of the movement is what? shoulder extension which section of the heart receives deoxygenated blood from the rest of the body? right atrium arterioles branch out into a multitude of microscopic blood vessels known as capillaries Trauma to the tissue of the body creates inflammation resulting in muscle spasm and adhesions. If left unchecked these adhesions can begin to form permanent structural changes in the soft tissue evident by which law? David's Law what is the anatomical position that refers to a position above a reference point? superior over time poor posture and repetive movements can begin to create dysfunctions in connective tissue, such as ligaments and tendons, resulting in the initiation of the cumulative injury cycle what is the correct position of the back leg during the cable rotation exercise? triple extension flexion and extension or forward and backward movement primarily occurs int which plane of motions? sagittal alterations in length tension relationships, force couple relationships and arthrokinematics can decrease which of the following?
neuromuscular control which section of the the heart gathers re-oxygenated blood coming from the lungs? left atrium which of the following muscles are involved during the inspiration phase? pectoralis minor during a squat exercise, which of the following muscles serve as a synergist? hamstrings which of the following sensory receptors are most sensitive to change in length and the same rate at which that change in length occurs? muscle spindles what is the name of the movement of a body part away from the middle of the body? abduction what is the term that refers to a position toward the back of the body? posterior The idea that there is a certain optimum length at which a muscle can produce the greatest amount of force is termed what? length tension relationship what is the term of the anatomical location referring to the position described as being closer to the midline of the body from a reference point? medial when a muscle is exerting less force than is being placed on it resulting in the lengthening of the muscle, this is known as what type of contraction? eccentric Type 1 muscle fibers are considered to be slow twitch A runner who experiences reoccuring episodes of plantar fascitis, shin splints and patellar tendonitis is most likely affected by which of the following postural distortion syndromes? pronation distortion syndrome An estimated ACL injuries occur annually in the general U.S. population. 80,000 to 100,
During an overhead squat you notice an asymmetrical weight shift, which muscles could be underactive? gluteus medius on the side of the shift During an overhead squat you have low back rounds compensation, which muscles could be underactive? erector spinae During the overhead squat assessment, the compensation of knees move inward can be attributed by overactivity of which muscles? vastus lateralis Florence and Henry Kendall addressed postural deviations through the relationship of? agonist-antagonist muscle groups Flexion of the ankle is called dorsiflexion For a foot and ankle impairment what muscle should receive SMR? biceps femoris If the knees move inward what muscles would receive static stretching? TFL If client demonstrates an asymmetric shift which muscles should receive static stretching? TFL same side If low back arches which muscles should receive SMR? Latissimus dorsi Functionally tightened or overactive muscles accompanying the lower extremity movement impairment syndrome include peroneals, gastrocnemius, soleus, hamstrings, IT band, adductors Having an excessive forward lean in an overhead squat during LPHC movement compensation what muscles may be overactive? soleus A low back arch in the overhead squat indicates what muscles are overactive? hip flexors Hips that are shifted off the midline are most likely indicative of load-bearing habits to the side
How many postural distortion patterns were identified by Janda? 3 If a client sits all day this in turn can lead to tight______ that can cause postural imbalances? hip flexors If the client has a hip hike during the single leg squat which muscle is underactive? adductor complex If the hip drops during a single leg squat which muscle is underactive? quadratus lumborum In the asymmetrical shift which muscles are most likely underactive? opposite side anterior tibialis In the inhibit phase for knee impairments which muscles should be SMR? Gastrocnemius/Soleus IT-Band tendonitis is often referred to as? runners knee Knee injuries can cause decrease in nerual control to muscles that stabilize the? patellofemoral and tibiofemoral joints Low back pain is a major form of degeneration affecting nearly 80% of all adults Muscles that assist prime movers during functional movement patters are known as? synergists what is the most prevalent shoulder injury? shoulder impingement when shoulder pain is reported which is the most prevalent diagnosis shoulder impingement Swimmers often exhibit overemphasized_____ relation to scapular retractors? Pectoralis Anterior pelvic tilt is a characteristic of which compensatory pattern? lower crossed syndrome the tibiofemoral joint is comprised of the femur and the?
tibia The transverse arch of the foot consists of the? cuboid and cuneiforms There is a strong correlation between ACL injuries and which chronic disease? Arthritis What altered joint motion is commonly displayed in an individual with upper crossed syndrome? increased scapular protraction What hip muscle has been shown to become weaker after an ankle sprain? gluteus medius What is the general effect of beta blockers on heart rate and blood pressure? decreases heart rate and decreases blood pressure what is the process by which a tight muscle diminishes neural drive and inhibits recruitment of its functional antagonist? Altered reciprocal inhibition what is the process whereby a synergist compensates for a prime mover to maintain force production? synergistic dominance what motions occur at the knee during lower extremity supination? extension, abduction, external rotation which joint is comprised of the patella and femur? patellafemoral joint which levers are the most common in the body and have pull between the fulcrum and resistance? third class levers which muscle is commonly tight in an individual with lower crossed syndrome? rectus femoris which muscle is repeatedly placed in a shortened position during sitting illiopsoas which is a muscle that is prone to lengthening?
infraspinatus which is an example of a predominantly transverse plane movement? radioulnar supination which of the following is an example of predominantly frontal plane movement? side shuffling Which of the following muscles would become synergistically dominant when the gluteus maximus lacks the ability for neural recruitment and force production to properly perform hip extension during functional movements? hamstrings which plane of motion bisects the body into top and bottom halves, and consists of primarily rotational movements? transverse plane which plane of motion consists of primarily flexion and extension movements? sagittal plane which of the following bones comprise the subtalar joint? talus-calcaneus working with arms overhead for long periods of time (such as painting) may lead to shoulder soreness that could be the result of tightness in the latissimus dorsi and pectoralis and weakness in the? rotator cuff biomechanics study that uses principles of physics to quantitatively study how forces interact within a living body sagittal plane bisects body into right a left halves (movements are flexion and extension) frontal plane bisects body into anterior and posterior halves (movements are lateral) transverse plane bisects body to create upper and lower halves (movement is rotational - int./ext. rotation, etc.) force influence applied by one object to another which results in acceleration or deceleration of the second object
length-tension relationship resting length of a muscle and the tension it can produce at that length force-velocity curve relationship of a muscle's ability to produce tension at differing shortening velocities force-couple synergistic action of muscles to produce movement around a joint rotary motion movement of bones around joints torque force that produces rotation (measured in newton-meters) agonist muscle that acts as prime mover antagonist muscle that acts in direct opposition to prime mover synergist muscle that assists prime mover during functional movement patterns stabilizer muscles that support body isometrically while prime movers and synergists perform functional movement patterns local musculature system muscle system predominately involved in joint support or stabilization global muscular system muscle system predominately responsible for movement deep longitudinal system posterior oblique system anterior oblique system lateral subsystem four distinct subsystems of the global muscular system motor behavior HMS response to internal and external stimuli