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NASM CNC Exam| 100 Questions all Answered with 100% Score| Updated 2024- 2025, Exams of Nursing

NASM CNC Exam| 100 Questions all Answered with 100% Score| Updated 2024-2025 A Nutrition Coach is sitting down with a new client for her initial evaluation. She noted on her Health History Questionnaire that she has never been able to maintain permanent weight loss and confides that she has made herself throw up after eating large meals. What is the best course of action? Select one: a.Refer her to a clinical psychologist. b.Tell her she has bulimia and refer her to a Certified Eating Disorder Specialist. c.Tell her she may have anorexia and refer her to a Certified Eating Disorder Specialist. d.Move forward with the client sessions but monitor her closely for any more selfinduced vomi a.Refer her to a clinical psychologist. With which client would it be most appropriate for the Nutrition Coach to work? Select one: a.Clients who wants advice on supplements b.Clients who wants to go vegan c.Issues with consistent weigh According to the SCOFF eating disorder assessment, how many

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Download NASM CNC Exam| 100 Questions all Answered with 100% Score| Updated 2024- 2025 and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! NASM CNC Exam| 100 Questions all Answered with 100% Score| Updated 2024- 2025 A Nutrition Coach is sitting down with a new client for her initial evaluation. She noted on her Health History Questionnaire that she has never been able to maintain permanent weight loss and confides that she has made herself throw up after eating large meals. What is the best course of action? Select one: a.Refer her to a clinical psychologist. b.Tell her she has bulimia and refer her to a Certified Eating Disorder Specialist. c.Tell her she may have anorexia and refer her to a Certified Eating Disorder Specialist. d.Move forward with the client sessions but monitor her closely for any more self- induced vomi a.Refer her to a clinical psychologist. With which client would it be most appropriate for the Nutrition Coach to work? Select one: a.Clients who wants advice on supplements b.Clients who wants to go vegan c.Issues with consistent weight loss d.Clients considering training for a half-Ironman c.Issues with consistent weight loss According to the SCOFF eating disorder assessment, how many positive answers might indicate an eating disorder? Select one: a.2 b.5 c.3 d.1 a.2 One of the roles of a Nutrition Coach is to help facilitate weight loss. Which of the following would be most appropriate to recommend for the overweight client? Select one: a.Drink a protein shake instead of eating lunch. b.Give up bread and avoid gluten. c.Refer to a certified personal trainer for a resistance training program. d.Limit carbohydrates to 35% of the diet. c.Refer to a certified personal trainer for a resistance training program. b.Preventive diseases c.Infectious diseases d.Palliative diseases a.Chronic diseases What kind of condition is health? Select one: a.Static b.Inert c.Dynamic d.Stagnant c.Dynamic How many dimensions of wellness are there? Select one: a.Four b.Three c.Five d.Six d.Six A heart-healthy dietary recommendation includes which of the following? Select one: a.Eating less fruits and vegetables b.Eating more processed meats c.Eating less whole grains d.Reducing sodium intake d.Reducing sodium intake Which of the following is best described as the energy consumed for fuel to support and maintain normal body functions like temperature regulation? Select one: a.Non-exercise activity thermogenesis (NEAT) b.Thermic effect of feeding (TEF) c.Resting metabolic rate (RMR) d.Thermic effect of activity (TEA) c.Resting metabolic rate (RMR) Most cells utilize which of the following as their primary source of energy? Select one: a.Fat b.Amino acids c.Protein d.Glucose d.Glucose A metabolic pathway that results in the generation of glucose from non- carbohydrate carbon substrates such as lactate, glycerol, and glucogenic amino acids is referred to as which of the following? Select one: a.Gluconeogensis b.Glycogenolysis c.Glycolysis d.Glucagon a.Gluconeogensis Which of the following is best defined as the energy accounted for during non- sustained exercise or activity? Select one: a.Resting energy activity thermogenesis (REAT) b.Non-exercise activity thermogenesis (NEAT) c.Non-energy burning thermogenesis (NEBT) d.Near resting energy thermogenesis (NRET) b.Non-exercise activity thermogenesis (NEAT) Which of the following may be the most optimal protein distribution pattern for an 70kg client with a goal to build muscle? Select one: A new client insists on maintaining their vegan lifestyle. How should the Nutrition Coach advise their protein source selection? Select one: a.A Nutrition Coach should advise the client to consume eggs and nonfat dairy. b.A Nutrition Coach should advise the client to consume a casein protein supplement. c.A Nutrition Coach should advise the client to consume a whey protein supplement. d.A Nutrition Coach should advise the client to consume a variety of grains, nuts, seeds, and legumes d.A Nutrition Coach should advise the client to consume a variety of grains, nuts, seeds, and legumes What disease associated with large intakes of fructose in inactive people has recently gained more attention as a health concern? Select one: a.Hyperinsulemia b.Hypertriglyridemia c.Non-alcoholic liver disease d.Cirrhosis c.Non-alcoholic liver disease Which complex carbohydrate chain contains straight-chain structures? Select one: a.Soluble fiber b.Amylopectin c.Amylose d.Insoluble fiber c.Amylose Which of the following combine to make maltose? Select one: a.Glucose and glucose b.Glucose and maltose c.Glucose and fructose d.Glucose and galactose a.Glucose and glucose Which polysaccharide is digested fastest? Select one: a.Soluble fiber b.Insoluble fiber c.Amylopectin d.Amylose c.Amylopectin How many sugar units are contained in oligosaccharides? Select one: a.3-10 sugar units b.5-12 sugar units c.12-18 sugar units d.10-15 sugar units a.3-10 sugar units hat is the definition of hydrophobic? Select one: a.Forcing hydrogen into vegetable oil to create a saturated fat. b.Likely to mix with water, or have an affinity for water. c.Likely to repel or not mix with water. d.Imbalance of free radicals and antioxidants. c.Likely to repel or not mix with water. Bile is an example of which of the following? Select one: a.An emulsifier b.A micelle After consuming alcohol, how much of the absorbed ethanol is metabolized in the liver? Select one: a.0.8 b.0.7 c.1 d.0.9 d.0.9 Based on the U.S. style eating pattern, how much energy should come from discretionary sources? Select one: a.0.05 b.0.14 c.0.18 d.0.08 b.0.14 Which product of ethanol metabolism disrupts fatty acid oxidation in peripheral tissues? Select one: a.NADH b.Acetaldehyde c.Acetyl-CoA d.Acetate d.Acetate Deficiencies in vitamin E can lead to which of the following? Select one: a.Sarcopenia b.Slurred speech c.Deafness d.Blindness b.Slurred speech What percent increased requirement do long distance runners have for iron compared to non-runners? Select one: a.0.25 b.0.7 c.0.5 d.0.35 b.0.7 What is the result of extended periods of high doses of fluoride? Select one: a.Damage to bones b.Anemia c.Hair loss d.Heart disease a.Damage to bones In what process does selenium play a critical role? Select one: a.Fatty acid metabolism b.Carbohydrate metabolism c.Production of neurotransmitters d.Antioxidant system d.Antioxidant system For clients engaged in prolonged endurance events who know what their sweat losses will be, which is the most appropriate advice to give in regards to developing a competition hydration strategy? Select one: a.Do not drink in excess of sweat losses and limit body mass loss to < 3-4%. b.Replace 150% of sweat losses with fluid intake during the competition. b.Foods high in fat content c.Transportable carbohydrates (soft gels) d.Solid foods low on the glycemic index c.Transportable carbohydrates (soft gels) A pre-exercise snack, such as chocolate milk, fruit, or yogurt, should be consumed how long before endurance activity? Select one: a.30 mins to 1 hour b.1.5 hours to 2 hours c.3.5 hours d.3 hours a.30 mins to 1 hour How many hours does a protein-rich food need to digest or leave the gut? Select one: a.Up to 1-2 hours b.Up to 3-4 hours c.Up to 7-8 hours d.Up to 5-6 hours b.Up to 3-4 hours What is the daily amount of caffeine that is considered safe in healthy individuals? Select one: a.400-500 mg/day b.10 mg/kg of body weight c.800 mg/day d.1,000 mg/day a.400-500 mg/day The Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA) for protein is which of the following? Select one: a.2.0 g/kg of body weight per day b.1.4 g/kg of body weight per day c.0.8 g/kg of body weight per day d.0.4 g/kg of body weight per day c.0.8 g/kg of body weight per day Proven side effects from creatine use in healthy individuals include which of the following? Select one: a.Dehydration b.Weight gain c.Muscle cramping d.Kidney damage b.Weight gain Which of the following is the recommended daily protein amount to help most exercisers build and maintain muscle tissue? Select one: a.0.8 to 1.0 g/kg of lean body mass per day b.1.2-2.2 g/kg of body weight per day c.1.2-2.2 g/kg of lean body mass per day d.0.8 to 1.0 g/kg of body weight per day b.1.2-2.2 g/kg of body weight per day A client is part of a peer-group that has shared the same struggles with eating properly and trying to lose weight but is now in the Action stage; of which of the following is this an example? Select one: a.Social modeling b.Emotional well-being c.Mastery experience d.Psychological facilitation a.Social modeling Which of the following represents the importance of mirroring as a nonverbal communication technique? Select one: a.Allows coach to demonstrate authority b.Allows coach to pick up on cultural differences c.Allows coach to influence client perceptions d.Allows coach set example for goal behavior b.Allows coach to pick up on cultural differences Which of the following is the best approach to gathering information related to a sensitive topic from a client? Select one: a.Encourage the client to fully share so that appropriate programming can be developed. b.Gather information in pieces throughout programming. c.Tell the client a story of another client with similar issues. d.Don't worry about sensitive information as it will make the client uncomfortable and decrease adherence. b.Gather information in pieces throughout programming. Based on the importance of "soft skills" in professional success, into which of the following would be the best continuing education course for a Nutritional Coach to enroll? Select one: a.Influences on food choices b.Components of effective programming c.Keys to effective communication d.Programming for vegetarian athletes c.Keys to effective communication Changing because of outside pressures is a controlled motive; however, changing because an individual wants to change is considered to be which one of the following? Select one: a.Integrated motive b.Extrinsic motive c.Self-determined motive d.Autonomous motive d.Autonomous motive A client is not sure that they can reduce their intake of snacks at work, but their Nutrition Coach reminds them that they felt the same way when they thought they could not reduce their alcohol intake. The coach is using which of the following to increase this client's self-efficacy for the specific task of reducing snacks? Select one: a.Physiological states b.Performance accomplishments c.Verbal persuasion d.Vicarious experience c.Verbal persuasion Self-efficacy is mediated by how many sources? Select one: a.3 b.5 c.2 d.4 d.4 In which stage of change might a Nutrition Coach help clients develop feasible plans for action? Select one: a.Preparation b.Precontemplation c.Termination d.Contemplation c.Every 1 - 2 years d.Every 1 - 2 weeks b.Every 1 - 2 months Based on the national food survey called What We Eat in America, about 75% of the United States population has an eating pattern that is low in which of the following? Select one: a.Grains b.Protein foods c.Fruits d.Saturated fats c.Fruits Which of the following best describes a characteristic of a 24-hour recall? Select one: a.It is a single-step process in which the client lists the brands of food items consumed in the last 24 hours. b.It only needs to be performed for one day every 3 months for an accurate assessment. c.It begins by making a quick list of foods and beverages consumed by the client. d.It takes approximately 1 minute to complete. c.It begins by making a quick list of foods and beverages consumed by the client. The amount of energy (i.e. number of calories) an individual uses at rest in order to sustain basic processes in the body is known as the which of the following? Select one: a.Activity level b.Energy intake c.Total daily energy expenditure d.Resting metabolic rate d.Resting metabolic rate A brand of oatmeal claims that it is a "Good Source of Soluble Fiber" on its label. According to FDA labeling requirements, what must the Nutrition Facts label specify? Select one: a.The Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA) for soluble fiber b.The percentage of soluble fiber in the package c.The role of soluble fiber in a healthy diet d.The amount of soluble fiber in the specified serving size d.The amount of soluble fiber in the specified serving size Which of the following nutrients does not have a % Daily Value listed on the Nutrition Facts label? Select one: a.Protein b.Carbohydrate c.Dietary Fiber d.Added Sugars a.Protein How many grams of fat does a 'Low Fat' product labeled on the Nutrition Facts panel have? Select one: a.Three grams of fat or less per serving b.One gram of fat per serving c.Five grams of fat or less per serving d.Three grams of fat per serving a.Three grams of fat or less per serving Portion control guidelines that use the image of a 'Healthy Eating Plate" generally recommend that protein foods comprise how much area on a plate? Select one: a.Approximately a sixth of the plate b.Approximately half of the plate c.Whether or not the foods used to prepare the meal are of high quality d.The amount and variety of nutrients provided in a food or meal d.The amount and variety of nutrients provided in a food or meal Which factor ultimately prevents an individual from losing body fat? Select one: a.Elevating insulin levels through carbohydrate consumption b.Eating foods high in cholesterol and salt c.A diet with >40% of calories coming from dietary fat d.Not being in a calorie deficit (negative energy balance) d.Not being in a calorie deficit (negative energy balance) A gluten-free diet is clinically prescribed in the treatment of what disorder? Select one: a.Celiac disease b.Hypertension c.Chron's disease d.Type 2 diabetes a.Celiac disease What does the body do during ketosis? Select one: a.Produces ketones (ketone bodies) from fat b.Produces ketones (ketone bodies) from glucose c.Rapidly increases the amount of cholesterol being made by the liver d.Converts ketones into amino acids a.Produces ketones (ketone bodies) from fat Which diet-related factor most strongly improves health in type 2 diabetics? Select one: a.Increased hydration b.Increased production of ketones (ketone bodies) c.Regular consumption of complex carbohydrates d.Weight loss d.Weight loss What is the recommended total daily fat intake on a low-fat diet (LFD)? Select one: a.10-15% of total calories b.<5% of total calories c.>40% of total calories d.20-35% of total calories d.20-35% of total calories Nonnutritive sweeteners may be associated with weight gain because of what psychological phenomenon? Select one: a.Glycemic control b.Satiety signaling c.Brain activation patterns d.Taste preferences c.Brain activation patterns Switching from conventional to organic produce significantly reduces biomarkers of pesticide exposure in as little as how many days? Select one: a.9-11 days b.5-7 days c.13-15 days d.1-3 days b.5-7 days What is the reason that most studies researching the health effects of fructose are not relevant? Select one: a.They involve unhealthy participants. b.They are too short in duration. c.Only keep foods in the house that need to be prepared or cooked (not premade or prepackaged). Which item represents a reason for poor long-term weight maintenance statistics? Select one: a.Lack of discipline b.Lack of willpower c.Increased availability of high-carbohydrate foods d.Impaired satiety signals d.Impaired satiety signals Which item represents a method for re-establishing an energy deficit after a plateau? Select one: a.Choose foods with similar calories but more volume. b.Increase protein intake to boost metabolism. c.Increase meal frequency. d.Choose foods with similar volume but fewer calories. d.Choose foods with similar volume but fewer calories. What percent of information that is told to a client is immediately forgotten? Select one: a.15-20% b.25-35% c.5-10% d.40-80% d.40-80% What is the evidence-based technique that the Nutrition Coach can use when discussing key findings to increase the client's comprehension of new information, promote accurate retention of the key findings once the session has ended, and improve adherence to the recommended plan known as? Select one: a.Coach-client communication b.Teach-back method c.Client debriefing d.Motivational interviewing b.Teach-back method A 1 kilogram reduction in body weight can reduce the relative risk of developing diabetes by what % according to some research? Select one: a.0.04 b.0.07 c.0.23 d.0.16 d.0.16 Peter consumes a modest fat intake of 30% of total calories. Peter is sticking with a 2,500-calorie diet to help lose some weight. How many calories should he consume from fat each day? Select one: a.850 calories b.750 calories c.650 calories d.950 calories b.750 calories