NASM CPT 7TH EDITION 2024 ACTUAL EXAM WITH COMPLETE 250 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS, Exams of Nursing

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NASM CPT 7TH EDITION 2024 ACTUAL

EXAM WITH COMPLETE 250 QUESTIONS

AND VERIFIED CORRECT

ANSWERS/GRADED A+

What BMI is a normal BMI? - ANSWER 18.5-24. What is BMI considered overweight? - ANSWER 25-25. Which of the following would be a contraindication discovered during a health risk assessment? A) Client smokes a pack of cigarettes a day B) Clients Mother passed away from a heart attack at age 50 C) Client has experienced angina within the past 3-days D) Client has leg pain due to recent increase in soccer play - ANSWER Client has experienced angina within the past 3- days What group of hormones are released by the brain during exercise help reduce pain? - ANSWER Endorphins When developing a safe and effective warm-up for Phase 1, what is an important consideration for flexibility? - ANSWER Self-myofascial techniques How are dietary supplements defined? - ANSWER Regulated dietary materials used to increase intake of a desired nutritional component

When discussing suspended bodyweight training, which of the following is the most accurate statement? - ANSWER It increases flexibility and joint mobility. What is the term for a postural disturbance being added to a task in order to make the task more difficult? - ANSWER Perturbation Which mechanoreceptor is sensitive to changes in muscular tension and rate of that tension change, causing the muscle to relax, which prevents the muscle from excessive stress and possible injury? - ANSWER Golgi tendon organs Starting at what percentage of bone density loss does the risk of hip fracture increase by 2.5 times? - ANSWER 10% Robert is a recently retired military veteran. He has earned his NASM-CPT credential because he wants to help young people prepare for the physical demands of serving in the military. Which employment options provide him with the greatest access to potential clients in all geographic locations? - ANSWER Conducting online coaching and personal training Contraction of the hamstring and rectus abdominis muscles create what motion of the pelvis in the sagittal plane? - ANSWER Posterior pelvic tilt

Which is a primary adaptation of the Stabilization Endurance phase? - ANSWER Postural alignment Which joint has the simplest movement, moving either back and forth or side to side? - ANSWER Nonaxial A client performs a heavy squat exercise followed by a set of squat jumps. What type of resistance training system is being used? - ANSWER Complex training What is sarcopenia? - ANSWER Age-related loss of muscle tissue Which condition is an example of a chronic disease? - ANSWER Type 2 diabetes If a Certified Personal Trainer helps a client improve their technique by using guided practice to enhance confidence, what determinant of behavior are they targeting? - ANSWER Self-Efficacy Which of the following reflects the characteristics of moderate-intensity exercise? - ANSWER Ability to talk comfortably during exercise without breathlessness in the average untrained individual Ambivalent people may be reluctant to start an exercise program. What should the fitness professional focus on when helping a potential client overcome this barrier? -

ANSWER Provide information about the benefits of participating and hope they decide to participate Which muscle functions as part of the global muscular system? - ANSWER Erector Spine A client wants to improve their mile time. Which of the following is an outcome goal? - ANSWER I want to run a 6- minute mile. Which ADL would be most likely to involve the hip hinge? - ANSWER Cleaning Which of the following options would be the correct superset for back exercises during Phase 2 of the OPT model? - ANSWER Seated cable row followed by stability ball dumbbell row What is a normal physiologic process of aging that results in arteries that are less elastic and pliable? - ANSWER Arteriosclerosis Which type of exercise accommodates effort whereby the harder the individual pushes or pulls, the more resistance they feel, despite the movement speed remaining constant? - ANSWER ISOKINETIC What is the RDA for protein? - ANSWER 0.8 g/kg of body weight

Which of these joint movements is part of backside mechanics? - ANSWER Hip extension The difference between the end-diastolic and end-systolic volumes is referred to as what? - ANSWER Stroke volume Which scenario best demonstrates companionship support?

• ANSWER Coordinating group events that are centered around physical activities Which of the following does not meet the criteria for exercise or activity to be considered aerobic? - ANSWER The exercise is intense Which of the following statements would be accurate with regard to muscle force and velocity during a concentric contraction? - ANSWER As the velocity of the muscle action increases, its ability to produce force decreases. Which is very important as a prenatal vitamin? - ANSWER FOLATE Which heart chamber gathers oxygenated blood coming to the heart from the lungs? - ANSWER left atrium right atrium - ANSWER Receives deoxygenated blood from the body right ventricle - ANSWER pumps deoxygenated blood to the lungs

Which of the following is the functional unit of a muscle cell?

• ANSWER Sarcomere Which subsystem is responsible for providing both frontal plane mobility and stabilization of the lumbo-pelvic-hip complex? - ANSWER Lateral Subsystem Stage 1 hypertension - ANSWER 130-139/80- 89 Stage 2 hypertension - ANSWER 140/ What is the optimal amount of protein per meal for muscle protein synthesis? - ANSWER 20 to 40 g The hamstring complex compensating for weakened hip extensors, which cannot produce force effectively, is an example of what key term? - ANSWER Synergistic dominance reciprocal inhibition - ANSWER The simultaneous contraction of one muscle and the relaxation of its antagonist to allow movement to take place Altered length-tension relationship - ANSWER muscle's resting length is too short or too long, reducing the amount of force it can produce

Altered reciprocal inhibition - ANSWER muscle inhibition caused by a tight agonist, which inhibits its functional antagonist What area of the body is most targeted during the single-leg squat to row exercise? - ANSWER posterior chain anterior chain - ANSWER the combination of the muscles in the front part of your body (quads, hip flexors, abdominals, pectorals) working together as a whole What are the three categories within the lipid family? - ANSWER Triglycerides, phospholipids, and sterols closed chain exercise - ANSWER Movement where the distal segment of the joint is fixed. open chain exercise - ANSWER exercise in which a distal segment of the body moves freely in space What interventions are suggested for an individual with a resting blood pressure of 134/86 mm Hg? - ANSWER Some lifestyle changes coupled with some medical monitoring Intentions are a good predictor of behavior, but what has been shown to help translate intentions into behavior? - ANSWER Planning

If someone went out for a 5-mile jog with their friend, which energy system would provide most of the ATP for this activity? - ANSWER Oxidiative phosphorylation Glycolysis - ANSWER the breakdown of glucose by enzymes, releasing energy and pyruvic acid. beta oxidation - ANSWER reaction that converts fatty acids to acetyl CoA to enter the Krebs cycle Which of the following would be an appropriate Phase 2 superset? - ANSWER Bench press and stability ball push-ups Which of the following does plyometric training help increase? - ANSWER Motor unit recruitment For someone training in the Muscular Development phase, which of the following changes would be optimal? - ANSWER Body fat loss Name the Levels of OPT model - ANSWER Level 1: Stabilization Level 2 : Strength Level 3: Power Name the phases of OPT model - ANSWER Phase 1: stabilization Phase 2: Strength Endurance Phase 3: Muscular Development Phase 4: Maximal Strength

Phase 5: Power Name the 6 fundamental movement patterns - ANSWER 1.Squatting 2.Hip hinge 3.Pulling motions 4.Pushing motions 5.Pressing 6.Multiplanar movement OHSA-Overhead Squat Assessment - ANSWER OHSA access dynamic flexibility, core strength, balance, and overall neuromuscular control OHSA-Overhead Squat Assessment 1.The client stands on a ____, _______ ______ with the feet shoulder-width apart and pointing ______ _____. 2.The foot and ankle complex should be in a _______ ________. 3.Ideally, the assessment should be performed with the shoes ___ to better view the client's ____ and _____ complex. 4.The client should raise their ____ completely overhead with ___ fully ____________. - ANSWER 1. Flat, stable surface and pointing straight ahead

2. Neutral position
3. off.

foot and ankle complex

4. Arms completely overhead with ELBOWS fully extended OHSA Movement 1.The client should squat to a depth that brings the ______ _________ to the ______ (approximately chair height) and then return to the starting position. The squat depth can be ______ if the client has _____ or is __________of performing a squat to this depth. 2.The client will repeat the movement for approximately _____ repetitions, while the fitness professional views them from both the ___________ and ________ vantage points. - ANSWER 1. - Femur parallel to the ground

• reduced, discomfort, incapable

2. • five repetitions

• anterior and lateral Anterior view How should the feet look? Common movement impairment? - ANSWER - Straight forward
• Feet externally rotating (turning out) Anterior View FEET Over active?

Under active? - ANSWER OA: Gastrocnemius, Soleus, Hamstring complex UA: Anterior and posterior tibialis, Gluteus max and medius Anterior view KNEES How should the knees look? Common impairment? - ANSWER - knees should track straight forward and remain directly over the client's second and third toes.

• KNEE VALGUS (caving inward) knock knees Anterior view KNEES Overactive? Under active? - ANSWER OA: Tensor fascia latae, and adductor complex UA: Gluteus maximus and medius Anterior and posterior tibialis Lateral View What should you view? Common impairment? - ANSWER - LPHC and shoulders f

• forward lean of the torso, an excessive low-back arch, or arms falling forward Lateral view: LOWBACK ARCH Overactive? Under active? - ANSWER OA:
• Hip flexors (rectus femoris, psoas, TFL)
• Lumbar extensors
• Latissimus dorsi UA: Hamstrings complex and Abdominals Lateral view: Forward lean Overactive: Under active? - ANSWER OA:
• Hip flexors
• Gastrocnemius/soleus
• Rectus abdominis and external obliques ( UA:
• Gluteus maximus
• Hamstrings complex
• Lumbar extensors Lateral view: Arms fall forward

Overhead? Under active? - ANSWER OA:

• Latissimus dorsi
• Pectoralis major and minor
• Teres major UA:
• middle and lower trapezius - Rhomboids
• Posterior deltoids
• Portions of the rotator cuff What muscle produces flexion of the leg at the knee joint and plantarflexion of the foot at the talocrural joint - ANSWER gastrocnemius What does the gastrocnemius do? - ANSWER Leg straight and Bending at the knee and foot on a gas pedal, pressing and releasing it, or standing on your tiptoes. The action of moving your whole foot up and down at the ankle joint is plantar flexion. What is the phase that the primary adaptation is Mobility and flexibility Core and joint stabilization Postural alignment and control Muscular and aerobic endurance - ANSWER Phase 1. Stabilization Endurance training What is the phase that the primary adaptation is

Core strength and joint stabilization Muscular endurance and prime mover strength - ANSWER phase 2. strength and endurance training What is the phase that the primary adaptation is Core strength Muscular strength and hypertrophy - ANSWER Phase 3 Muscular Development training What is the phase that the primary adaption is Core strength Maximal muscular strength - ANSWER Phase 4 maximal strength and training What is the phase that the primary adaption is - ANSWER Core strength Maximal muscular strength Rate of force production What phase 1 stabilization endurance training primary methods of progression is? - ANSWER - Master basic movement patterns.

• Progress exercises proprioceptively (controlled, yet unstable) once basic movement patterns are established.
• Increase the complexity of exercises once basic movement patterns have been established. Phase 2 strength endurance training primary methods of progression is - ANSWER - Decrease rest periods. Increase the volume of exercises (reps + sets).

• Increase the load (weight) of resistance training exercises.
• Increase the complexity of resistance training exercises. Phase 3 muscular development training methods of progression is - ANSWER - Increase the volume of exercises.
• Increase the load of resistance training exercises.
• Increase the complexity of resistance training exercises. Phase 4 maximal strength training methods of progression is
• ANSWER - Increase the load of resistance training exercises.
• Increase the sets of resistance training exercises. Phase 5 Power training methods of progression is - ANSWER
• Increase the load of resistance training exercises.
• Increase the SPEED (repetition tempo) of exercises.
• Increase the sets of exercises. Lower crossed syndrome - ANSWER anterior tilt to the pelvis (arched lower back) Lower crossed syndrome Over active muscles? Hip Flex Less extend - ANSWER Hip Flexors Lumbar Extensors Lower crossed syndrom Under active muscles? A Great

Grand Ham - ANSWER Abdominis Gluteus maximus Gluteus medius Hamstrings Upper crossed syndrome - ANSWER forward head and rounded shoulders Upper crossed syndrom Over active muscles? pucker PUCKER Up Lets Smack - ANSWER Pectoralis major Pectoralis minor Upper trapezius Levater scapula Sternocleidomastoid Upper crossed syndrome Under active muscles? Trap Low, Mid Right Down cross forward - ANSWER Trapezius lower and middle Rhomboids

Deep Cervical Flexors Pes planus distortion syndrome - ANSWER flat feet, knee valgus, adducted and internally rotated hips Pes planus distortion syndrome Overactive muscles? Go Slow And Hip FLex - ANSWER Gastrocnemius Soleus Adductor complex Hip flexors Pes planus distortion syndrome Under active muscles? Trial and Proud Great Marches - ANSWER Tibialis anterior and posterior Gluteus Max and Medius Active stretches are held for? - ANSWER 1 to 2 seconds and repeated for 5 to 10 repetitions. Dynamic stretches uses force production of a muscle and the body's momentum to take joint full ROM and are perform

for? - ANSWER one set of 10 repetitions using 3 to 10 dynamic stretches. Osteokinematics is - ANSWER how the bones and joints are moving through a ROM, Arthrokinematics - ANSWER motion of the joint surfaces Neuromuscular efficiency is the ability of the - ANSWER nervous system to recruit the correct muscles to produce force, reduce force, and dynamically stabilize the body's structure in all three planes of motion. gradually increases the intensity of the training program while simultaneously decreasing volume over a specific period of time. - ANSWER Linear periodization uses changes in volume, intensity, and exercise selection to provide loading differences on a daily or weekly basis. - ANSWER Undulating periodization OPT workout template is divided into six parts: - ANSWER Warm-Up, Activation, Skill Development, Resistance Training, Client's Choice, and Cool-Down Neuromuscular specificity - ANSWER the speed of contractions and exercise selection

Mechanical Specificity - ANSWER the weight and movements placed on the body Once a client displays adequate movement competency, resistance exercises should progress in a systematic fashion using three steps: - ANSWER 1) stabilization-focused exercises, (2) strength-focused exercises, and (3) power- focused exercises. Drop Sets - ANSWER Perform a set to failure, remove small percentage of load, then continue with set complex training - ANSWER a combination of high-intensity resistance training followed by plyometrics giant set - ANSWER Performing four or more exercises in rotation with NO rest as possible between sets Peripheral heart action - ANSWER variation of circuit training; alternates upper and lower body exercises to improve circulation Vertical Loading - ANSWER Performing exercises on the OPT template one after the other, in a vertical manner down the template. split routine - ANSWER breaking the body up into parts to be trained on separate days

multiple set - ANSWER performing multiple sets of each exercise a cardiorespiratory assessment that assesses the aerobic fitness of deconditioned clients by having them complete 3 minutes of continuous stepping on and off a 12-in. (30-cm) box. - ANSWER YMCA 3-minute step test a cardiorespiratory assessment that can be used to measure a client's aerobic endurance. - ANSWER 1.5-mile (2.4 km) run test 1.5 mile test measures - ANSWER estimates aerobic fitness levels by either scoring the individual's timed performance or their heart rate response, which is used to estimate VO2max An aerobic test for deconditioned individuals or those of low fitness levels in which they are instructed to walk as fast as possible and have their pulse taken immediately after completing 1 mile. - ANSWER Rockport walk test Rockport walk test predicts the - ANSWER maximal oxygen consumption (VO2max) from either a timed performance or heart rate response. Hypertensice crisis blood pressure? - ANSWER >180/> Seek immediate medical attention

Elevated blood pressure - ANSWER 120-129/<80 Lifestyle changes The B vitamins have a primary role in what? - ANSWER macronutrient metabolism What is the recommended frequency for cardiorespiratory training, if participating in vigorous-intensity exercise (e.g., jogging or running)? - ANSWER 3 times a week The number of sidewalks available in a community is an example of which of the following? - ANSWER Built environment What type of lever could be described as having a fulcrum in the middle like a seesaw? - ANSWER First class Which principle states that soft tissue will model along the lines of stress? - ANSWER Davis's law Wolff's Law - ANSWER bone grows or remodels in response to the demands placed on it overload principle - ANSWER placing an extra physical demand on your body in order to improve your fitness level vestibular system - ANSWER sense provides information about movement of the head in space?

Low-intensity activity burns a higher proportion of fat as fuel, but if someone wanted to burn the most total calories from any substrate, which of the following activities would be most effective? - ANSWER 20 minutes of moderate- intensity activity Weight-bearing exercise helps strengthen bones through what process? - ANSWER Remodeling Omega-3 fatty acids do not include which of the following fatty acids? - ANSWER Palmitic acid What is the process in which neural impulses that sense tension are greater than the impulses that cause muscles to contract, providing an inhibitory effect to the muscle spindles? - ANSWER Autogenic inhibition The cardiovascular and respiratory systems work together to remove what waste product? - ANSWER CO2 What is the term for the higher-than-normal energy expenditure during the recovery period after exercise? - ANSWER Excess postexercise oxygen consumption During the standing cable chest press, the resistance should be positioned to do what? - ANSWER Resist shoulder horizontal adduction Which component of evidence-based practice refers to a fitness professional's accumulated education, experience,

and practical skills? - ANSWER Individual professional expertise If a client performs a stabilization workout on Monday, a power workout on Wednesday, and an SAQ sports workout on Saturday, what kind of periodization is being used for their mesocycle? - ANSWER Undaulating Stored energy from an efficiently functioning stretch- shortening cycle is released during which muscle action? - ANSWER Concentric Which of the following is magnesium classified as? - ANSWER Macromineral Self-esteem and body image are said to have which type of relationship? - ANSWER Reciprocal If a client is having trouble maintaining form during a tuck jump exercise, what type of regression should be applied? - ANSWER Adding a stabilization pause between reps What is a characteristic of type I muscle fibers? - ANSWER SLOW TWITCH Performing a biceps curl with a dumbbell in the hand is an example of which type of lever? - ANSWER Third class Which of the following would be the recommended stability ball size for someone under 5 feet tall? - ANSWER 45 cm

Which muscles may be overactive with knee valgus during the single-leg squat? - ANSWER Adductor complex Which of the following is the best example of a complete protein source? - ANSWER Dairy Foods Which source of social support has been shown to be particularly important for older adults? - ANSWER Family Which of the following phases does not reflect the traditional components of cardiorespiratory training? - ANSWER Interval phase Which of the following types of balance occurs when an individual seeks to maintain the center of mass over an ever- changing limit of stability? - ANSWER Dynamic Balance Which disease is caused by a degeneration of cartilage within joints? - ANSWER Osteoarthritis Which of the following intensities best represents VT2 during the incremental test protocol? - ANSWER When the individual responds with "no" when asked, "Can you speak competently?" What term is used for a condition that would make it unsafe for the client to participate in any type of flexibility exercise?

• ANSWER Contraindication

What is defined as the ability to react and change body position with maximal force production, in all planes of motion, and from all body positions? - ANSWER Quickness What concern should you have when prescribing flexibility exercises to a client with osteoporosis? - ANSWER Osteoporosis is considered a contraindication to myofascial rolling. What is explained by the sliding filament theory? - ANSWER The shortening of a sarcomere to produce a muscle contraction What population is the VT2 talk test appropriate for? - ANSWER Individuals with performance goals Where is it most common to take an individual's circumference measurement to assess health risk? - ANSWER WAIST Which resistance training system is most appropriate for hypertensive clients? - ANSWER Peripheral heart action system For effective weight loss, how many calories should obese clients expend per exercise session? - ANSWER 200 to 300 kcal Which type of training would most likely lead to increased levels of testosterone, insulin-like growth factors, and