NASM CPT Final Exam 2023/2024 Q&A: Comprehensive Study Guide, Exams of Nursing

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NASM CPT Final Exam 2023/2024 Q&A

When is the best time for clients to measure their resting heart rate? - Correct answer- upon waking in the morning Name two common tests for assessing cardiorespiratory efficiency. - Correct answer- YMCA 3-Min Step Test & Rockport Walk Test What are three methods of assessing body fat percentage? - Correct answer- Underwater weighing, bioelectrical impedance, and skin fold measurements What is the BMI range for a person who has a very high risk of disease? - Correct answer-35.0-39. What are the two main calf muscles that are responsible for concentrically accelerating plantar flexion? - Correct answer-Gastrocnemius and soleus Name the muscle that is responsible for concentrically accelerating hip extension and external rotation. - Correct answer-Gluteus maximus What do you call measurable data regarding a clients physical state, such as body composition, movement assessments, and cardiorespiratory ability? - Correct answer- Objective information What do you call information gathered from a client that includes their occupation, lifestyle, and medical background - Correct answer-Subjective information What positional guidelines do you give a client who is setting up for an Overhead Squat assessment? - Correct answer-Feet shoulder-width apart and pointed straight ahead; foot and ankle complex in a neutral position; arms raised overhead, with elbows fully extended What is the level that a client is instructed to squat to when performing the Overhead Squat assessment? - Correct answer-Height of a chair Compensations observed during the Overhead Squat assessment from the anterior view. - Correct answer-Feet turn out and knees move inward Compensations observed during the Overhead Squat assessment from the lateral view.

• Correct answer-Low back arches, excessive forward lean, arms fall forward During an Overhead Squat assessment, what are the probable overactive muscles when the feet turn out? - Correct answer-Soleus, lateral gastrocnemius, and biceps femoris (short head)

During an Overhead Squat assessment, what are the probable underactive muscles if a client's feet turn out? - Correct answer-Medial gastrocnemius, medial hamstring complex, gracilis, sartorius, popliteus During an Overhead Squat assessment, what are the probable overactive muscles when the knees move inward? - Correct answer-Adductor complex, biceps femoris (short head), tensor fascia latae, vastus lateralis What are the probable underactive muscles when a client's knees move inward during an Overhead Squat Assessment? - Correct answer-Gluteus medius/maximus, vastus medialis oblique During an Overhead Squat assessment, what are the probable overactive muscles when there is an excessive forward lean? - Correct answer-Soleus, gastrocnemius, hip flexor complex, abdominal complex During an Overhead Squat assessment, what are the probable underactive muscles when a client shows an excessive forward lean? - Correct answer-Anterior tibialis, gluteus maximus, erector spinae During an Overhead Squat assessment, what are the probable overactive muscles when the low back arches? - Correct answer-Hip flexor complex, erector spinae, latissimus dorsi During an Overhead Squat assessment, what are the probable underactive muscles when a client's low back arches? - Correct answer-Gluteus maximus, hamstring complex, intrinsic core stabilizers During an Overhead Squat assessment, what are the probable overactive muscles when the client's arms fall forward? - Correct answer-Latissimus dorsi, teres major, pectoralis major/minor What are the probable underactive muscles when a client's arms fall forward during an Overhead Squat Assessment? - Correct answer-Middle/lower trapezius, rhomboids, rotator cuff After assessing a client's Overhead Squat, which muscles should you have them foam roll and stretch? - Correct answer-Overactive muscles After assessing a client's Overhead Squat, which muscles should you have them strengthen? - Correct answer-Underactive muscles Name movement compensations observed during a Pushing assessment. - Correct answer-Low back arches, shoulder elevates, head migrates forward

During a Pushing assessment, what are the probable overactive muscles when a client's lower back arches? - Correct answer-Hip flexors and erector spinae During a Pushing assessment, what are the probable underactive muscles when a client's lower back arches? - Correct answer-Intrinsic core stabilizers During a Pushing assessment, what are the probable overactive muscles when a client's shoulder elevates/head migrates forward? - Correct answer-Upper trapezius, sternocleidomastoid, and levator scapulae During a Pushing assessment, what are the probable underactive muscles when a client's shoulders elevate? - Correct answer-Middle/ lower trapezius During a Pushing assessment, what are the probable underactive muscles when a client's head protrudes forward? - Correct answer-Deep cervical flexors Name the assessment that measures lower extremity agility and neuromuscular control.

• Correct answer-Shark Skill Test What is an indicator that a female client's ankle complex will be in a plantar flexed position for extended periods of time based on occupation? - Correct answer-Wearing dress shoes (high heels) Name the class of medication that decreases heart rate and blood pressure - Correct answer-Beta-blockers Name 2 conditions in which Beta-blockers might be prescribed. - Correct answer-High blood pressure and arrhythmias What muscle action develops tension while lengthening and prevents resistance from accelerating in an uncontrolled manner? - Correct answer-Eccentric What muscle action develops when a muscle exerts more force than is placed on it, resulting in the shortening of the muscle? - Correct answer-Concentric Name the imaginary bisector that divides the body into right and left halves. - Correct answer-Sagittal plane This movement primarily occurs from side to side, as if there were a wall in front of and behind the body. - Correct answer-Frontal plane movements Name the energy storage and transfer unit within the cells of the body. - Correct answer-Adenosine Triphosphate or ATP What is the starting zone of cardiorespiratory training when a client scores poor during the YMCA 3 - Minute Step Test? - Correct answer-Zone one

What is the starting zone of cardiorespiratory training when a client scores average on the YMCA 3 - Minute Step Test? - Correct answer-Zone two What information can be provided to the health and fitness professional by knowing the client's occupation? - Correct answer-Common movement patterns What relevant information can you learn about a client based on their occupation and movement capacity? - Correct answer-Extended periods of sitting, repetitive movements, dress shoes, mental stress Which muscles have decreased neural control once a client has had an ankle sprain? - Correct answer-Gluteus maximus and gluteus medius This chamber of the heart gathers oxygenated blood coming to the heart from the lungs.

• Correct answer-Left atrium Give the straight percentage method equation for calculating a client's target heart rate.
• Correct answer-(220-client's age) x desired intensity Name the muscles involved in respiratory inspiration. - Correct answer-Name the muscles involved in respiratory inspiration. Diaphragm, external intercostals, scalenes, sternocleidomastoid, pectoralis minor What are three guidelines for the health and fitness professional when taking the radial pulse of a client? - Correct answer-Touch should be gentle, take the pulse when the client is calm, take the pulse over the course of 3 days (at the same time each day) and average the results to ensure accuracy Name the functional unit of the muscle that lies in the space between two Z lines. It produces muscular contraction and is formed by repeating sections of actin and myosin.
• Correct answer-Sarcomere The science concerned with the internal and external forces acting on the human body and the effects produced by these forces. - Correct answer-Biomechanics The heart rate training zone between 65 to 75% that builds an aerobic base and aids in recovery. - Correct answer-Zone 1 The heart rate training zone between 76 to 85% that increases both aerobic and anaerobic endurance. - Correct answer-Zone 2 The heart rate training zone between 86 to 95% that builds high-end work capacity. - Correct answer-Zone 3

Represents the pressure within the arterial system after the heart contracts. - Correct answer-Systolic blood pressure Represents the pressure within the arterial system when the heart is resting and filling with blood. - Correct answer-Diastolic blood pressure The method of measuring body fat percentages that conducts an electrical current through the body to measure fat. - Correct answer-Bioelectrical impedance What are the four skin-fold sites tested when using the Durnin-Womersley formula for body fat assessment? - Correct answer-Biceps, triceps, subscapular, iliac crest What is the waist-to-hip ratio for males and females that puts them at a greater risk for disease? - Correct answer-A ratio greater than 0.95 for males and greater than 0.80 for females Muscles that assist the prime movers. - Correct answer-Synergists Risk for disease increases when an overweight person's BMI level is. - Correct answer- 25 or greater Sensory receptors responsible for sensing distortion in body tissues. - Correct answer- Mechanoreceptors What is the amount of time recovery pulse is taken after completing the YMCA 3- Minute Step Test? - Correct answer-Within 5 seconds of completing the exercise, take the client's pulse for 60 seconds Receptors sensitive to change in tension of the muscle and the rate of that change. - Correct answer-Golgi tendon organs Receptors sensitive to change in length of the muscle and the rate of that change - Correct answer-Muscle Spindles On which clients should health and fitness professionals avoid the use of skin-fold calipers to measure body fat? - Correct answer-Very overweight clients The resting length of a muscle and the tension the muscle can produce at this resting length. - Correct answer-Length-tension relationship What is the functional unit of the nervous system? - Correct answer-Neuron The neuromuscular phenomenon that occurs when inappropriate muscles take over the function of a weak or inhibited prime mover. - Correct answer-Synergistic dominance

The process in which neural impulses that sense tension are greater than the impulses that cause muscles to contract, providing an inhibitory effect to the muscle spindles. - Correct answer-Autogenic inhibition Name some of the benefits of circumference measurements. - Correct answer-Can be used on obese clients, good for comparisons and progressions, good for assessing fat patterns and distribution, inexpensive, easy to record Name the systems of the human movement system (kinetic chain). - Correct answer- Nervous system, muscular system, skeletal system Name the agonist, synergist, stabilizer, and antagonist muscles activated during a squat exercise. - Correct answer-Agonists: Gluteus maximus, quadriceps; Synergists: Hamstring complex; Stabilizer: Transversus abdominis; Antagonist: Psoas What are some primary causes of muscle imbalance? - Correct answer-Postural stress, emotional duress, repetitive movement, cumulative trauma, poor training technique Feedback used after the completion of a movement to help inform clients about the outcome of their performance. - Correct answer-Knowledge of results The energy pathway used in moderate to high intensity activities that can only be sustained for 30 to 50 seconds. - Correct answer-Glycolysis The involved structures and mechanisms that the nervous system uses to gather sensory information and integrate it with previous experiences to produce a motor response. - Correct answer-Motor control Repeated practice of motor control processes, which leads to a change in the ability to produce skilled movements. - Correct answer-Motor learning When assessing a client during a Single-leg Squat, from which vantage point should you view the client? - Correct answer-Anterior Which muscle synergies (muscle groups) are primarily used in a Shoulder Press? - Correct answer-Deltoid, rotator cuff, trapezius The name of the receptors surrounding a joint that respond to pressure, acceleration, and deceleration in the joint. - Correct answer-Joint receptors Altered reciprocal inhibition, synergistic dominance, and arthrokinetic dysfunction all lead to this. - Correct answer-Muscle imbalance

The ability of the neuromuscular system to properly recruit muscles to produce force concentrically, reduce force eccentrically, and isometrically stabilize the entire kinetic chain in all three planes of motion. - Correct answer-Neuromuscular efficiency A layer of connective tissue that is underneath the fascia, and surrounds the muscle. - Correct answer-Epimysium What are the three support mechanisms of blood? - Correct answer-Transportation, regulation and protection The Davies test is contraindicated for which group of people? - Correct answer- Individuals lacking shoulder stability What muscle is responsible for concentrically accelerating shoulder extension, adduction, and internal rotation? - Correct answer-Latissimus dorsi Name three postural distortion patterns that might be seen during a static postural assessment. - Correct answer-Pronation distortion syndrome, lower crossed syndrome, upper crossed syndrome What are the altered joint mechanics associated with pronation distortion syndrome? - Correct answer-Increased: Knee adduction and internal rotation, foot pronation and external rotation; Decreased: Ankle dorsiflexion and inversion Name possible injuries associated with pronation distortion syndrome. - Correct answer- Plantar fasciitis, shin splints, patellar tendonitis, low back pain What are possible injuries associated with lower crossed syndrome? - Correct answer- Hamstring complex strain, anterior knee pain, low back pain Name the altered joint mechanics associated with lower crossed syndrome. - Correct answer-Increased lumbar extension and decreased hip extension Name the lengthened muscles associated with lower crossed syndrome. - Correct answer-Anterior tibialis, posterior tibialis, gluteus maximus, gluteus medius, transversus abdominis, and internal oblique Name the short muscles associated with lower crossed syndrome. - Correct answer- Gastrocnemius, soleus, hip flexor complex, adductors, latissimus dorsi, and erector spinae Name possible injuries associated with upper crossed syndrome. - Correct answer- Headaches, bicep tendonitis, rotator cuff impingement, and thoracic outlet syndrome

Which muscles would be lengthened in a client with upper crossed syndrome? - Correct answer-Deep cervical flexors, serratus anterior, rhomboids, mid-trapezius, lower trapezius, teres minor, and infraspinatus Average stroke volume of an adult. - Correct answer- 70 mL Name two abdominal muscles used for trunk rotation. - Correct answer-Internal and external obliques Name five performance assessment tests. - Correct answer-Davies Test, Shark Skill Test, Push-up Test, Upper Extremity Strength Assessment, Lower Extremity Strength Assessment What regressions could you make for clients who are unable to perform a Single-leg Squat assessment? - Correct answer-Use outside support for squatting assistance or perform a Single-leg Balance without squat A force that produces rotation. - Correct answer-Torque Movement of the bones around the joints. - Correct answer-Rotary motion What are the four Ps of marketing? - Correct answer-Product, price, place, promotion How many calories are in a gram of fat? - Correct answer- 9 Making a good first impression includes the following: - Correct answer-Making eye contact, introducing yourself by name and getting the client's name, smiling, shaking hands with the client, remembering and using the client's name, using good body language Name strategies that enhance exercise adherence. - Correct answer-Self-management, goal setting, self- monitoring, positive self-talk, psyching up, imagery Amino acids manufactured by the body from dietary nitrogen, fragments of carbohydrate, and fat. - Correct answer-Nonessential amino acids Name the five stages of change. - Correct answer-1. Precontemplation, 2. Contemplation, 3. Preparation, 4. Action, 5. Maintenance What are four types of support mechanisms to help clients reach their health and fitness goals? - Correct answer-Instrumental support, emotional support, informational support, and companionship support The type of support that deals with the tangible and practical factors necessary to help a person adhere to exercise or achieve exercise goals. - Correct answer-Instrumental support

Type of support expressed through encouragement, caring, empathy, and concern. - Correct answer-Emotional support This type of support includes directions, advice, or suggestions given to clients about how to exercise. - Correct answer-Informational support This type of support includes the availability of family, friends, and coworkers with whom clients can exercise. - Correct answer-Companionship support Type of questions that can be answered with one word. - Correct answer-Directive questions Guidelines the health and fitness professional should use when approaching potential clients. - Correct answer-Say ''Hello'' to each member; offer towels or water; roam the workout floor; don't hide behind desks, books, or a computer; introduce yourself by name; don't educate on the first interaction What are the amount of CEUs required every two years to retain your credential as a NASM Certified Personal Trainer? - Correct answer-2. The principles of effective goal setting as reflected by the acronym SMART. - Correct answer-Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Realistic, Timely What are four questions that may help clients determine their long-term goals? - Correct answer-1. What do I want to accomplish in 6 months? 2. What do I want to accomplish in the next year? 3. What do I want to accomplish in the next 5 years? 4. What is my dream accomplishment? The average daily nutrient intake level that is estimated to meet the requirement of half the healthy individuals who are in a particular life stage and gender group. - Correct answer-Estimated Average Requirement The average daily nutrient intake level that is sufficient to meet the nutrient requirement of nearly all healthy individuals who are in a particular life stage and gender group. - Correct answer-Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA) A recommended average daily nutrient intake level, based on observed approximations or estimates of nutrient intake that are assumed to be adequate for a group or groups of healthy people. Used when an RDA cannot be determined. - Correct answer-Adequate Intake The highest average daily nutrient intake level likely to pose no risk of adverse health effects to almost all individuals in a particular life stage and gender group. As intake increases above this level, the potential risk of adverse health effects increases. - Correct answer-Tolerable Upper Intake Level

What is one of the greatest contributions made by dietary complex carbohydrates that is also associated with a lower incidence of heart disease and certain types of cancer? - Correct answer-Fiber What is the chief source of energy for all body functions and muscular exertions? - Correct answer-Carbohydrates Neutral compounds of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen, which make up a large portion of animal foods. - Correct answer-Carbohydrates The daily recommended intake of fiber. - Correct answer-38gformen;25gforwomen What is the recommended protein intake for strength athletes? - Correct answer-1.2-1. g/kg (0.5-0.8 g/lb) The number of amino acids the body uses. - Correct answer- 20 Fatty acids considered to have favorable effects on blood lipid profiles and may play a role in the treatment and prevention of heart disease, hypertension, arthritis, and cancer. - Correct answer-Monounsaturated fatty acids and polyunsaturated fatty acids Name the macronutrient responsible for acting as transport for vitamins A, D, E, and K. - Correct answer-Fats What is the number of liters of water recommended for the average sedentary male? - Correct answer-3 liters What is the recommended percentage of dietary fat from daily total caloric intake? - Correct answer- 20 - 35% Name the eight essential amino acids. - Correct answer-Isoleucine, leucine, lysine, methionine, phenylalanine, threonine, tryptophan, valine Name the process in which amino acids are used in energy production. It occurs when the body is in a negative energy balance. - Correct answer-Gluconeogenesis A substance that completes or makes an addition to daily dietary intake. - Correct answer-Dietary supplement The process created to produce internalized experiences to support or enhance exercise participation - Correct answer-Exercise imagery What are four psychological benefits of exercise? - Correct answer-Promotes positive mood, reduces stress, improves sleep, reduces depression and anxiety

How many calories are contained in 1 pound of body fat? - Correct answer- 3500 What three vitamins can cause serious adverse effects such as birth defects, calcification of blood vessels, and damage to sensory nerves. - Correct answer-A, D, B Name three diets that are considered very low carbohydrate diets; each contains less than 21% carbohydrates. - Correct answer-Atkins diet, Protein Power diet, Ketogenic diet Name two high carbohydrate diets. Both of these have a carbohydrate content of greater than 60%. - Correct answer-Dean Ornish diet and the Pritikin diet Name six low carbohydrate diets that each have a carbohydrate content of 21-42%. - Correct answer-Zone diet, Carbohydrate Addicts diet, Abs diet, South Beach diet, Sugar Busters diet, Testosterone diet Name three diets that are moderately high in carbohydrates at a 51-60% carbohydrate content. - Correct answer-RDA Food Pyramid diet, Flat Belly diet, Mediterranean diet What are the risks of following an overly restrictive diet? Which is a very low calorie diet? - Correct answer-Increased risk of malnutrition; poor energy; behavioral ''pendulum'' swings; minor side effects: fatigue, constipation, nausea, and diarrhea; major side effects: gallstone formation What is the amount of energy expended while at rest? It typically accounts for 70% of total energy expenditure (TEE). - Correct answer-Resting metabolic rate (RMR) What is the amount of energy expended above the RMR as a result of processing food for storage and use? It typically accounts for approximately 6-10% of total energy expenditure (TEE). - Correct answer-Thermic effect of food (TEF) Name six guidelines for providing uncompromising customer service. - Correct answer- Take every opportunity to meet and greet each member, present a positive image, never give an impression that you are inconvenienced by a client/potential client, express ideas clearly through all forms of communication, take every opportunity to strengthen relationships, take ownership of complaints Name the condition in which delaminated protein is stored as fat. - Correct answer- Excess protein intake A food that supplies all of the essential amino acids in appropriate ratios. - Correct answer-Complete protein A food source low or lacking in one or more of the essential amino acids. - Correct answer-Incomplete protein

What is the factor when an essential amino acid is missing or present in the smallest amount? - Correct answer-Limiting factor What are the 10 nonessential amino acids? - Correct answer-Alanine, asparagine, aspartic acid, cysteine, glutamic acid, glutamine, glycine, proline, serine, tyrosine What are the two semi-essential amino acids? - Correct answer-Arginine and histidine What percentage of total caloric intake from protein defines a high protein diet? - Correct answer-More than 35% Name three monosaccharides. - Correct answer-Glucose, fructose, and galactose Name three disaccharides. - Correct answer-Sucrose, lactose, and maltose What percentage of the human body by weight is comprised of water? - Correct answer- 60% What are five things the body needs fats for? - Correct answer-Energy, cellular structure and membrane function, precursors to hormones, cellular signals, regulation and excretion of nutrients in cells What is the percentage of fat intake that athletes are recommended to consume? - Correct answer- 20 to 25% of total caloric intake Name six functions that decrease as a result of dehydration. - Correct answer-Blood volume, performance, blood pressure, sweat rate, cardiac output, blood flow to skin Name four functions that increase as a result of dehydration. - Correct answer-Core temperature, heart rate, perceived exertion, use of muscle glycogen Name two functions that are retained as a result of dehydration. - Correct answer-Water and sodium The fluid loss of even percent will adversely affect circulatory functions and decrease performance levels. - Correct answer- 2 In order to become more aware of the calories they're consuming, what is the length of time clients should track their food intake? - Correct answer-At least one week What is the duration of the post-workout window of opportunity for carbohydrate and protein ingestion? - Correct answer- 90 minutes Name seven typical disordered eating patterns. - Correct answer-Consuming junk food, avoidance of specific foods, eating one meal per day, irregular eating patterns, food

phobias, financial limitations affecting types of foods one can purchase, eating too much or too little protein or carbohydrates Name the four nutrients that have the greatest potential for excess dosage in dietary supplements. - Correct answer-Vitamin A, Vitamin D, Iron, Zinc Values that provide guidelines for what constitutes an adequate intake of a nutrient, these values are designed to estimate the nutrient needs of healthy people in various age groups and of both sexes. - Correct answer-Dietary reference intake What is a potential result of consuming an excessive amount of Vitamin D? - Correct answer-Calcification of blood vessels and eventually kidney, heart, and lung damage What is a potential result of consuming an excessive amount of calcium? - Correct answer-Kidney stones What are potential results of consuming an excessive amount of iron? - Correct answer- Interference with absorption of other minerals and gastrointestinal irritation How often does a NASM CPT need to renew their credentials? - Correct answer-Every 2 years What is the number of contact hours of continuing education necessary for NASM CPT credential renewal? - Correct answer- 20 hours, which equals 2.0 CEUs What is the traditional reason for use of a dietary supplement? - Correct answer-To provide the body with nutrients that might not be adequately supplied by a diet Physical activity accounts for approximately what percent of TEE? - Correct answer- 20% The professional who is legally qualified to practice in the field of nutrition. - Correct answer-Registered Dietician (RD) Four scenarios where supplemental protein may be helpful. - Correct answer-Quick amino acid consumption before or after weight training; to replace whole-food protein for weight loss; when whole food is not available; for bodybuilders, wrestlers, or weight conscious athletes preparing for competition How many calories are in one gram of a carbohydrate? - Correct answer- 4 calories Recommended percentage of total caloric intake from carbohydrates. - Correct answer- 1.5 g/kg What is the ultimate nutritional limiting factor for exercise performance? - Correct answer-Carbohydrate availability

Give four reasons why the body needs carbohydrates. - Correct answer-They are the preferred form of energy, they constantly need to be replaced, parts of the central nervous system relies exclusively on carbohydrates, they efficiently burn and use fat and protein Name five things carbohydrates provide for the body. - Correct answer-Nutrition, satiety, cellular fluid balance, blood sugar levels, protein conservation Name four body function processes that are improved with adequate water consumption. - Correct answer-Endocrine gland function, liver function, metabolic function, body temperature regulation Name four nutritional guidelines for lean body mass gain. - Correct answer-Consume 4 to 6 meals per day, spread protein intake throughout day, take advantage of the post- workout window of opportunity to have protein and carbohydrates, don't neglect the importance of carbohydrate and fat intake What are nine nutritional guidelines for weight loss? - Correct answer-Spread protein, carbohydrate, and fat consumption throughout the day; choose whole grains and vegetables over refined grains and simple sugars; eat 4 to 6 meals per day; avoid empty calories; drink plenty of water; weigh and measure foods for one week to get a better understanding of caloric intake; make small decreases in calories and increase activity; consume less that 10% of calories from saturated fat; limit alcohol consumption Name four precautionary statements on dietary supplements. - Correct answer- Investigate the use of multivitamins for your specific needs, specific compounds can allow the body to function at full capacity, individual results may vary, general population should not use supplements for medicinal purposes Name three nutrients that should not be around 100% of the DV. - Correct answer- Vitamin A, beta-carotene (contraindicated for smokers), calcium A unit of expression of energy equal to 1000 calories. - Correct answer-Kilocalorie or Calorie with a capital C Total energy expenditure (TEE) is the sum total of what three energy components? - Correct answer-Resting metabolic rate (RMR), Thermic effect of food (TEF), and Energy expended during physical activity Give factors that affect protein requirements - Correct answer-An individual's daily exercise and physical activity levels, daily caloric consumption, body-composition goals, sports-performance goals How much extra fluid should a person consume for every 15 to 20 minutes of exercise?

• Correct answer- 6 - 12 ounces

What is the recommended number of meals per day for someone with the goal of lean mass gain? - Correct answer- 4 - 6 People in this stage of change do exercise occasionally but are planning to begin exercising regularly in the next month. - Correct answer-Preparation Questions that cannot be answered with a one word answer - Correct answer- Nondirective or open-ended The primary purpose of a business. - Correct answer-To create and keep a loyal customer base or following The premise on which all buying decisions are based. - Correct answer-Emotion Personal trainers have how much time to make a good first impression? - Correct answer-20 seconds What are the four steps in the model of verbal communication? - Correct answer-1. What speaker means 2. What speaker says 3. What listener hears 4. What listener thinks speaker means What are some common barriers to exercising? - Correct answer-Time, unrealistic goals, lack of social support, social physique, anxiety, convenience Name the most frequent reason given for not exercising. - Correct answer-Lack of time The sum of the processes by which an animal or plant takes in and uses food substances, - Correct answer-Nutrition Name the structures that make up the lumbo-pelvic-hip complex (LPHC). - Correct answer-Lumbar spine, pelvic girdle, abdomen, and hip joint Dysfunction within the connective tissue of the kinetic chain that is treated by the body as an injury, initiating this repair process. - Correct answer-Cumulative injury cycle The type of flexibility training that applies gentle force to an adhesion, altering the elastic muscle fibers from a bundled position to a straighter alignment with the direction of the muscle and/or fascia. - Correct answer-Self-myofascial release Exercises in the core-stabilization level are identified through these characteristics. - Correct answer-They involve little motion through the spine and pelvis What are four common ways a stressor causes breakdown or injury? - Correct answer- Stress fractures, muscle strains, joint pain, emotional fatigue

Name four core-strength exercises. - Correct answer-Ball Crunch, Back Extensions, Reverse Crunch, Cable Rotations Name four core-stabilization exercises. - Correct answer-Marching, Floor Bridge, Floor Prone Cobra, Prone Iso-abs Name four core-power exercises. - Correct answer-Rotation Chest Pass, Ball Medicine Pullover Throw, Front Medicine Ball Oblique Throw, Soccer Throw Name five balance-stabilization exercises. - Correct answer-Single-leg Balance, Single- leg Balance Reach, Single-leg Hip Internal and External Rotation, Single-leg Lift and Chop, Single-leg Throw and Catch Name five balance-strength exercises. - Correct answer-Single-leg Squat, Single-leg Squat Touchdown, Single-leg Romanian Deadlift, Step-up to Balance, Multiplanar Lunge to Balance Name three balance-power exercises. - Correct answer-Multiplanar Hop with Stabilization, Multiplanar Single-leg Box Hop-up with Stabilization, Multiplanar Single- leg Box Hop-down with Stabilization What are four plyometric-stabilization exercises? - Correct answer-Squat Jump with Stabilization, Box Jump-up with Stabilization, Box Jump- down with Stabilization, Multiplanar Jump with Stabilization Name four plyometric-strength exercises. - Correct answer-Squat Jump, Tuck Jump, Butt Kick, Power Step-up Name three plyometric-power exercises. - Correct answer-Ice Skater, Single-leg Power Step-up, Proprioceptive Plyometrics Give 4 examples of chest exercises used in the Stabilization Level of the OPT model. - Correct answer-Ball Dumbbell Chest Press, Push-up, Ball Push-up: hands on the ball, Standing Cable Chest Press Give 4 examples of chest exercises used in the Strength Level of the OPT model. - Correct answer-Incline Dumbbell Chest Press; Incline Barbell Bench Press; Flat Dumbbell Chest Press; Barbell Bench Press Give 4 examples of chest exercises used in the Power Level of the OPT model. - Correct answer-Two-arm Medicine Ball Chest Pass; Rotation Chest Pass; Speed Tubing Chest Press; Plyometric Push-up Name two different leg-stabilization exercises. - Correct answer-Ball Squat and Multiplanar Step-up to Balance

Name two strength level exercises for the legs. - Correct answer-Leg Press and Barbell Squat Name two power level exercises for the legs. - Correct answer-Squat Jump and Tuck Jump Give examples of total-body stabilization exercises. - Correct answer-Single-leg Squat Touchdown, Curl, to Overhead Press; Single-leg Romanian Deadlift, Curl, to Overhead Press; Single-leg Squat to Row; Ball Squat, Curl, to Press; Multiplanar Step-up Balance, Curl, to Overhead Press Give examples of total-body strength exercises. - Correct answer-Lunge to Two-arm Dumbbell Press; Squat, Curl, to Two-arm Press; Step-up to Overhead Press: sagittal plane; Romanian Deadlift, Shrug to Calf Raise Give examples of total-body power exercises - Correct answer-Two-arm Push Press, Barbell Clean, Dumbbell Snatch, Squat Thrust, Kettlebell Hang, Clean and Jerk Give examples of shoulder exercises used in the Stabilization Level of training. - Correct answer-Single-leg Overhead Press; Single-leg Dumbbell Scaption; Seated Stability Ball Military Press Give examples of shoulder-strength exercises. - Correct answer-Seated dumbbell shoulder press and Seated shoulder press machine. Give three examples of shoulder- power exercises. - Correct answer-Front Medicine Ball Oblique Throw, Overhead Medicine Ball Throw, Speed Tubing Shoulder Press Give examples of back exercises used in the Stabilization Level of the OPT model. - Correct answer-Single-leg Pull-down; Ball Cobra; Standing Cable Row; Ball Dumbbell Row Give examples of back exercises used in the Strength Level of the OPT model. - Correct answer-Seated Cable Row; Seated Lat Pull- down; Straight-arm Pull-down; Pull-up; Supported Dumbbell Row Give examples of back-power exercises. - Correct answer-Medicine ball pullover throw and soccer throw Law stating that soft tissue models along the lines of stress. - Correct answer-Davis's law What are three things that a client should have established prior to incorporating a dynamic stretching program? - Correct answer-Good levels of tissue extensibility, core stability, and balance capabilities

Referred to as a co-contraction of global muscles, such as the rectus abdominis, external obliques, and quadratus lumborum. - Correct answer-Bracing It is critical that the core training program is designed to achieve these three functional outcomes in the right order. - Correct answer-1. Intervertebral stability, 2. Lumbo- pelvic stability, 3. Movement efficiency What are the proper backside mechanics during sprinting? - Correct answer-Ankle plantar flexion, knee extension, hip extension, and neutral pelvis What are the proper frontside mechanics during sprinting? - Correct answer-Ankle dorsiflexion, knee flexion, hip flexion, and neutral pelvis The ability to accelerate, decelerate, stabilize, and change direction quickly, while maintaining proper posture. - Correct answer-Agility The ability to react and change body position with maximum rate for force production, in all planes of motion and from all body positions, during functional activities. - Correct answer-Quickness The ability to move the body in one intended direction as fast as possible. - Correct answer-Speed The ability of the body to produce high levels of force for prolonged periods of time. - Correct answer-Muscular endurance What is a component of core-power exercises that make them easy to identify? - Correct answer-Explosive movements with medicine balls Exercises that use quick powerful movements involving an eccentric action immediately followed by an explosive concentric contraction. - Correct answer-Plyometric training What are the two techniques used in corrective flexibility according to the integrated flexibility continuum? - Correct answer-SMR (self-myofascial release) and static stretching What is the minimum amount of time static stretches should be held? - Correct answer- 30 seconds Based on the exercise selection continuum what exercises should be selected for the adaptation of stabilization? - Correct answer-Total-body, multi-joint or single joint, controlled unstable Body position progressions used for balance training. - Correct answer-1. Two-leg stable 2. Single-leg stable 3. Two-legs unstable 4. Single-leg unstable

Three types of core systems. - Correct answer-Local stabilization system, Global stabilization system, Movement system What is the minimum duration pressure should be sustained on adhesions while performing self- myofascial release? - Correct answer- 30 seconds What are the seven methods for prescribing exercise intensity? - Correct answer-Peak VO2, VO2 reserve, Peak metabolic equivalent (MET), Peak maximal heart rate, Heart rate reserve, Rating of perceived exertion, Talk test The cumulative sensory input to the central nervous system from all mechanoreceptors that sense position and limb movements. - Correct answer-Proprioception What are the acute variables for static stretching? - Correct answer- 1 - 2 sets, hold each stretch for 30 seconds What is the mechanism of action that occurs in active-isolated stretching? - Correct answer-Reciprocal inhibition When is the appropriate time to utilize dynamic stretching? - Correct answer-After self- myofascial release when training in Phase 5 How long should the cardiorespiratory portion of the warm-up last? - Correct answer- 5 - 10 minutes What does F.I.T.T.E. stand for? - Correct answer-Frequency, Intensity, Time, Type, Enjoyment Example of a Zone 1 cardiorespiratory activity and intensity level. - Correct answer- Walking or jogging at 65 - 75% of maximal heart rate Example of a Zone 2 cardiorespiratory activity and intensity level. - Correct answer- Group exercise classes or spinning at 76 - 85% of maximal heart rate Example of a Zone 3 cardiorespiratory activity and intensity level. - Correct answer- Sprinting at 86 - 95% of maximal heart rate Type of training that has been found to be just as beneficial as traditional forms of cardiorespiratory training. - Correct answer-Circuit training Name the structures that make up the core. - Correct answer-Lumbo-pelvic-hip complex, pelvic girdle, abdomen, and hip joint Name the five muscles of the Local Stabilization System of the core. - Correct answer- Transverse abdominis, internal oblique, lumbar multifidus, pelvic floor muscles, diaphragm

Name the four muscles of the movement system of the core. - Correct answer- Latissimus dorsi, hip flexors, hamstring complex, quadriceps The normal extensibility of all soft tissues that allows the full range of motion of a joint. - Correct answer-Flexibility The tendency of the body to seek the path of least resistance during functional movement patterns. - Correct answer-Relative flexibility What are the benefits of a warm-up? - Correct answer-Increased heart rate and respiratory rate, increased tissue temperature, and increased psychological preparation for bouts of exercise. The concept of muscle inhibition, caused by a tight agonist, which inhibits its functional antagonist. - Correct answer-Altered reciprocal inhibition The principle that states the body will adapt to the specific demands that are placed on it. - Correct answer-SAID Principle or Principle of Specificity What does the acronym SAID in SAID Principle stand for? - Correct answer-Specific Adaptation to Imposed Demands What kinetic chain deviations must a certified personal trainer watch for in the cardiorespiratory portion of the workout for clients who possess rounded shoulders? - Correct answer-On steppers and treadmills watch for the grasping of the handles; on stationary bikes, treadmills and elliptical trainers watch for rounding of the shoulders. Feedback that provides information about the quality of the movement during exercise. - Correct answer-Knowledge of performance The type of specificity that refers to the weight and movements placed on the body. - Correct answer-Mechanical specificity The state where there is an elevation of the body's metabolism after exercise. - Correct answer-Excess post-exercise oxygen consumption (EPOC) The three stages in the General Adaptation Syndrome. - Correct answer-Alarm reaction, resistance development, exhaustion Four performance adaptive benefits from resistance training. - Correct answer- Increased strength, increased power, increased endurance, increased neuromuscular control SAQ training can be used with what three nonathletic populations? - Correct answer- Youth, weight-loss clients, seniors

to recruit The main goal of balance training is to continually increase the client's awareness of their limit of stability by creating. - Correct answer-controlled instability What is the drawing-in Maneuver? - Correct answer-A maneuver that is used the local core stabilizers by drawing the naval towards the spine. Benefits of a cool-down include the following: - Correct answer-Reduced heart rate and breathing rates, gradually cools body temperature, returns muscles to their optimal length-tension relationships, prevents venous pooling of blood in lower extremities, restores physiological systems close to baseline Surface types for proprioceptive progressions during balance include. - Correct answer- Floor, sport beam, half foam roll, foam pad, balance disk, wobble board, BOSU ball Exercises that use quick, powerful movements involving an eccentric action immediately followed by an explosive concentric contraction. - Correct answer-Plyometric training Efficient movement requires eccentric force reduction, isometric stabilization, and concentric force production. - Correct answer-Integrated performance paradigm The ability of the neuromuscular system to produce internal tension to overcome an external load. - Correct answer-Strength What are six ways to progress plyometric exercises? - Correct answer-Easy to hard, simple to complex, known to unknown, stable to unstable, body weight to loaded, activity-specific Describe the five kinetic chain checkpoints? - Correct answer-Feet: shoulder-width apart, pointing straight ahead; Knees: in line with the second and third toes; Hips: level with lumbar spine in a neutral position; Shoulders: depressed and slightly retracted; and Head: cervical spine in a neutral position What is dynamic balance? - Correct answer-Dynamic balance is the ability to move and change directions under various conditions without falling What are the three phases of a plyometric exercise? - Correct answer-Eccentric phase, amortization phase, concentric phase What is the proper progression for balance training when utilizing the proprioceptive continuum? - Correct answer-Floor, balance beam, half foam roll, foam pad, balance disk The ability of muscles to exert maximal force output in a minimal amount of time. - Correct answer-Rate of force production

The position of the lumbo-pelvic-hip complex during running movements. - Correct answer-A slight forward lean with neutral spine What happens during the eccentric phase of a plyometric exercise - Correct answer- Increase in muscle spindle activity by pre stretching the muscle before activation Research has demonstrated increased electromyogram activity and pelvic stabilization when this maneuver is performed. - Correct answer-Drawing-in maneuver What is delayed-onset muscle soreness? - Correct answer-Pain or discomfort often felt 24 to 72 hours after intense exercise or unaccustomed physical activity. What is the proper way to progress an exercise in the stabilization level of training? - Correct answer-Increase proprioceptive demand Give eight reasons for the incorporation of flexibility training. - Correct answer-Correct muscle imbalances, increase joint range of motion, decrease excess tension of muscles, relieve joint stress, improve extensibility of musculotendinous junction, maintain normal functional length of muscles, improve neuromuscular efficiency, improve function Consistently repeating the same pattern of motion, which may place abnormal stresses on the body. - Correct answer-Pattern overload What are the three phases of the integrated flexibility continuum? - Correct answer- Corrective flexibility, active flexibility, functional flexibility The type of flexibility designed to improve extensibility of soft tissue and increase neuromuscular efficiency by using reciprocal inhibition. - Correct answer-Active flexibility During which phase of the general adaptation syndrome do stress fractures, muscle strains, joint pain and emotional fatigue occur? - Correct answer-Exhaustion phase The stretching technique that focuses on the neural system and fascial system of the body by applying gentle force to an adhesion - Correct answer-Self-myofascial release What are three things recent research has demonstrated regarding circuit training? - Correct answer-It is just as beneficial as traditional cardiorespiratory training, it produced greater levels of EPOC and strength, and it produced near identical caloric expenditure when compared with walking at a fast pace. The recommended reps and sets for resistance training in Phase 1 Stabilization Endurance Training of the OPT model. - Correct answer- 12 - 20 reps, 1 - 3 sets

The recommended intensity level for resistance training in the Stabilization Endurance phase of the OPT model. - Correct answer- 50 - 70% The resistance training tempo used in Phase 1 Stabilization Endurance Training of the OPT model. - Correct answer-4/2/1 The recommended rest intervals for resistance training in Phase 1 Stabilization Endurance Training of the OPT model. - Correct answer- 0 - 90 seconds What is the recommended resistance training exercise selection for Phase 2 of the OPT model? - Correct answer-Perform 1 strength exercise superset with 1 stabilization exercise List the acute variables for resistance training in Phase 2 Strength Endurance Training of the OPT model. - Correct answer-Perform 8-12 reps, 2-4 sets; 2/0/2 tempo for strength exercises, 4/2/1 tempo for stabilization exercises; 70- 80% intensity; 0- 60 seconds rest The recommended number of sets for resistance training in Phase 3 Hypertrophy Training of the OPT model? - Correct answer- 3 - 5 The recommended rest intervals for resistance training in the Hypertrophy Phase of the OPT model. - Correct answer- 0 - 60 seconds What repetition tempo is used for resistance training in Phase 3 Hypertrophy Training of the OPT model? - Correct answer-2/0/2 What is the recommended exercise selection and intensity for Phase 3 of the OPT model? - Correct answer- 2 - 4 strength level exercises per body part, 75 - 85% intensity What is the recommended number of reps and sets for resistance training in Phase 4 Maximal Strength Training of the OPT Model? - Correct answer- 1 - 5 reps, 4 - 6 sets What is the recommended exercise selection for resistance training for a client in the Maximal Strength phase of the OPT model? - Correct answer- 1 - 3 strength exercises per body part What is the recommended intensity and rest interval for resistance training in Phase 4 of the OPT model? - Correct answer- 85 - 100% intensity, 3 - 5 minutes rest What is the recommended number of reps and sets for resistance training in the Power phase of the OPT model? - Correct answer- 1 - 5 reps for the strength exercise and 8- 10 reps for the power exercise, 3-5 sets What is the recommended repetition tempo for resistance training in Phase 5 of the OPT model? - Correct answer-X/X/X (as fast as can be controlled)

What is the recommended exercise selection for resistance training in the Power phase of the OPT model? - Correct answer- 1 strength exercise superset with 1 power exercise Which phase(s) of the OPT model are most important for a client who has a goal of body fat reduction? - Correct answer-Phase 1 Stabilization Endurance and Phase 2 Strength Endurance Name the training system that involves performing one set of each exercise. - Correct answer-Single-set system In what Phase of the OPT Model would you perform Plyometric exercises as fast as possible? - Correct answer-Phase 5 Power A resistance training system popular since the 1940s that consists of performing a multiple number of sets for each exercise. - Correct answer-Multiple-set system A system of strength training that involves a progressive or regressive step approach that either increases weight with each set or decreases weight with each set. - Correct answer-Pyramid system A system of strength training that uses a couple of exercises performed in rapid succession of one another. - Correct answer-Superset system A resistance training system that consists of a series of exercises the client performs one after the other with minimal rest between each exercise. - Correct answer-Circuit training system The resistance training system that is another variation of circuit training that alternates upper body and lower body exercises throughout the circuit. - Correct answer- Peripheral heart action system The resistance training system that involves breaking the body up into parts to be trained on separate days. - Correct answer-Split-routine system A resistance training system that alternates body parts trained from set to set, starting from the upper extremity and moving to the lower extremity. - Correct answer-Vertical loading The resistance training system where the client performs all sets of an exercise or body part before moving on to the next exercise or body part. - Correct answer-Horizontal loading Name the four primary areas of focus in Phase 1 Stabilization Endurance Training. - Correct answer-Increasing stability, increasing muscular endurance, increasing

neuromuscular efficiency of the core musculature, improving intermuscular and intramuscular coordination The enlargement of skeletal muscle fibers in response to overcoming force from high volumes of tension. - Correct answer-Muscular hypertrophy Name four upper body progressions in the Progression Continuum. - Correct answer- Two-arms, alternating-arms, single- arm, single-arm with trunk rotation The ability of the neuromuscular system to produce the greatest force in the shortest amount of time. - Correct answer-Power What is the recommended rest period between pairs in Phase 5 Power Training of the OPT model (in reference to resistance training). - Correct answer- 1 - 2 minutes What is the recommended rest period between circuits for resistance training in the Power Phase of the OPT model? - Correct answer- 3 - 5 minutes Name benefits of suspension body- weight training. - Correct answer-Increased muscle activation, low compressive loads to the spine, increased performance, potential increase in caloric expenditure, improvements in cardiovascular fitness Name six benefits of vibration training. - Correct answer-Improved circulation and cardiovascular function, alleviation of muscle soreness, weight reduction and increased metabolism, increased bone density, increased flexibility and range of motion, improved overall well-being Approximately, what percent recovery of ATP and PC will occur after 60 seconds? - Correct answer- 85 to 90% What type of adaptations are seen with higher volume training? - Correct answer- Cellular adaptations Name three physiological considerations when training youth. - Correct answer-1. Submaximal oxygen demand (economy of movement): children are less efficient and tend to exercise at a higher percentage of their peak oxygen uptake as compared to adults. 2. Glycolytic enzyme production is insufficient to sustain bouts of high- intensity exercise. 3. Limited ability to sweat in response to hot, humid environments (decreased tolerance to temperature extremes). What type of adaptations are seen with low volume training? - Correct answer- Neurologic adaptations What is the means of progressing clients in Phase 5 of the OPT model? - Correct answer-Increasing the speed of the movement or the load used