Anatomy, Physiology, and Exercise Assessment Quiz, Exams of Nursing

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After leaving the left ventricle, blood enters which of the following structures? Select one: a. Superior vena cava b. Aorta c. Inferior vena cava d. Pulmonary artery - Correct answer Aorta Which of the following joints is between the metacarpals and phalanxes? Select one: a. Condyloid b. Pivot c. Saddle d. Hinge - Correct answer Condyloid According to continuing education requirements, which of the following is true? Select one: a. Accumulate 2 units of approved continuing education each year. b. Accumulate 2 units of approved continuing education every 2 years. c. Accumulate 3 units of approved continuing education each year. d. Accumulate 3 units of approved continuing education every 2 years. Check - Correct answer Accumulate 2 units of approved continuing education every 2 years. Which of the following muscles is a synergist during the seated cable row exercise? Select one: a. Latissimus dorsi b. Pectoralis major c. Biceps brachii

d. Rotator cuff - Correct answer Biceps brachia The autonomic nervous system contains which of the following subdivisions? Select one: a. Sympathetic b. Somatic c. Peripheral d. Central - Correct answer Sympathetic Increased force output of the synergists for hip extension to compensate for the weakened gluteus maximus is an example of which of the following? Select one: a. Autogenic inhibition b. Synergistic dominance c. Davis's law d. Arthrokinetic dysfunction - Correct answer Synergistic dominance According to the sliding filament theory, muscular contraction occurs when Select one: a. actin and myosin filaments slide away from each other. b. myosin cross bridge power strokes the actin filament across the myosin. c. the distance from Z line to Z line is increased. d. myofibrils are lengthened. - Correct answer myosin cross bridge power strokes the actin filament across the myosin. During a 40-yard dash, the hamstring complex begins to do most of the work for a weakened gluteus maximus. This is an example of which of the following concepts? Select one: a. Force-couple relationships b. Synergistic dominance c. Length-tension relationships d. Arthrokinematic dysfunction - Correct answer Synergistic dominance

Which of the following tests should a trainer use in his cardiorespiratory assessment to determine in which heart rate training zone the training should begin? Select one: a. Shark skill test b. Davies test c. YMCA step test d. L.E.F.T. test - Correct answer YMCA step test The Durnin-Womersley formula's four sites of skinfold measurement include which of the following anatomic locations? Select one: a. Biceps, triceps, subscapular, and iliac crest b. Chest, midaxillary, abdominal, and thigh c. Calf, gluteal, adductor, and oblique d. Supraspinale, anterior deltoid, thoracolumbar fascia, and hamstring Check - Correct answer Biceps, triceps, subscapular, and iliac crest The Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-Q) is primarily aimed at identifying an individual's Select one: a. level of risk for cardiovascular disease. b. level of motivation to begin an exercise program. c. level of readiness for participation in sports competitions. d. level of available social support to aid in weight loss endeavors. Check - Correct answer level of risk for cardiovascular disease. Which of the following methods uses a percentage of a client's estimated maximal heart rate to calculate target heart rate? Select one: a. Peak VO b. Peak maximal heart rate c. Heart rate reserve d. VO2 reserve - Correct answer Peak maximal heart rate

Which of the following is the best example of an exercise that predominately uses the ATP-PC pathway for energy? Select one: a. A set of three barbell cleans b. A 10-exercise circuit training workout c. 20-repetition body squats exercise d. 30 minutes of walking on a treadmill - Correct answer A set of three barbell cleans If a client demonstrates an excessive forward lean during the overhead- squat assessment, which of the following muscles should be stretched during the client's warm-up? Select one: a. Hip flexor complex b. Anterior tibialis c. Hamstring complex d. Posterior tibialis - Correct answer Hip flexor complex Which of the following would be most useful in determining shoulder complex compensations? Select one: a. Shark skill test, anterior view b. Overhead squat assessment, anterior view c. Pushing assessment, lateral view d. L.E.F.T. test, lateral view Check - Correct answer Pushing assessment, lateral view Which of the following assessments measures muscular endurance of the upper body? Select one: a. Push-up b. Pushing c. Pulling d. Bench press - Correct answer Push-up The Rockport Walk Test is used to determine which of the following?

Select one: a. VO2 reserve b. Estimated oxygen consumption c. Metabolic equivalent (MET) d. Heart rate reserve (HRR - Correct answer Estimated oxygen consumption During a static postural assessment, a personal trainer observes that a client has protracted shoulders and a forward head. Which of the following muscles would he expect to be shortened? Select one: a. Lower trapezius and rhomboids b. Teres minor and posterior deltoid c. Serratus anterior and infraspinatus d. Sternocleidomastoid and pectorals major - Correct answer Sternocleidomastoid and pectorals major During a pulling assessment, a personal trainer observes that a client's shoulders elevate. Which of the following muscles is most likely underactive? Select one: a. Lower trapezius b. Sternocleidomastoid c. Elevator scapulae d. Scalene Check - Correct answer Lower trapezius While observing a pulling assessment, a personal trainer notices a client's shoulders elevating. Which of the following exercises is appropriate to strengthen the client's underactive muscles? Select one: a. Standing shoulder shrug b. Seated shoulder press c. Ball cobra d. Ball bridge - Correct answer Ball cobra

While performing the overhead squat assessment, the personal trainer observes a client demonstrating a low back arch movement dysfunction. Which of the following muscles is probably overactive? Select one: a. Latissimus dorsi b. Rectus abdominis c. Biceps femoris d. Gluteus Maximus - Correct answer Latissimus dorsi During a single-leg squat assessment, a personal trainer notices his client's knee drifting inward. Which of the following muscles is probably underactive? Select one: a. Adductor brevis b. Gluteus medius c. Biceps femoris d. Vastus lateralis - Correct answer Gluteus medius A personal trainer is working with a client who regularly wears high heels. The trainer should expect to see overactivity or tightness in which of the following tissues? Select one: a. Gastrocnemius, soleus, and Achilles tendon b. Anterior tibialis, extensor hallucis longus, and peroneal brevis tendon c. Extensor digitorum longus, peroneus tertius, and posterior tibial tendon d. Popliteus, gracilis, and patellar tendon - Correct answer Gastrocnemius, soleus, and Achilles tendon Front lunges and biceps curls occur in which plane of motion? Select one: a. Frontal b. Scapular c. Transverse d. Sagittal - Correct answer Sagittal

Which of the following static stretches is most appropriate if a client's feet turn outward during the overhead squat test? Select one: a. Gastrocnemius stretch b. Scalene stretch c. Erector spinae stretch d. Sternocleidomastoid stretch - Correct answer Gastrocnemius stretch When performed at an appropriate tempo, which of the following exercises would offer the best improvement of the power of a client's pectoralis major? Select one: a. Single leg throw and catch b. Medicine ball rotation chest pass c. Floor push-ups d. Ball dumbbell chest press - Correct answer Medicine ball rotation chest pass Which of the following exercises is an appropriate training modification for a client who is taking medication for hypertension? Select one: a. The Valsalva maneuver b. Exercises in prone and supine positions c. Ball combo II d. Peripheral heart action resistance exercises - Correct answer Peripheral heart action resistance exercises A client has coronary heart disease, is obese, and is beginning an exercise program after receiving clearance from her physician. The trainer should Select one: a. use the talk test to measure an exercise's intensity. b. employ plyometric-stabilization training. c. use prediction formulas to estimate the client's max heart rate. d. implement a 4-2-1 repetition tempo. Check - Correct answer use the talk test to measure an exercise's intensity.

Which of the following exercises is most appropriate for a client in the hypertrophy phase of the OPT model? Select one: a. Barbell squat b. Single-leg Romanian dead lift c. Seated stability ball military press d. Multiplanar step-up to balance - Correct answer Barbell squat A client has been training three times per week in the hypertrophy phase for the last two weeks. He has worked with a repetition range of 8 to 12 repetitions, at an intensity of 80% to 85%, and rested for 20 to 30 seconds in between each exercise. He is no longer improving his strength and has expressed feeling fatigued. Which of the following modifications should be made to minimize the effects of overtraining? Select one: a. 3 repetitions, 95% intensity, and rest for 30 seconds in between each exercise b. 5 repetitions, 90% intensity, and rest for 20 seconds in between each exercise c. 8 repetitions, 75% intensity, and rest for 60 seconds in between each exercise d. 15 repetitions, 100% intensity, and rest for 3 minutes in between each exercise - Correct answer 8 repetitions, 75% intensity, and rest for 60 seconds in between each exercise Contracting the quadriceps while performing a hamstring stretch will cause which of the following effects? Select one: a. Reciprocal inhibition of the hamstrings b. Arthrokinetic dysfunction of the hamstrings c. Synergistic dominance of the quadriceps d. Relative flexibility of the quadriceps - Correct answer Reciprocal inhibition of the hamstrings Which of the following is a balance-strength exercise?

Select one: a. Single-leg balance and reach on Airex pad b. Multiplanar step-up to balance c. Single-leg lift and chop d. Single-leg hop-up with stabilization - Correct answer Multiplanar step- up to balance A client reports acute soreness and tightness in her calf muscle after a long run. She describes feeling knots in the muscle. Which of the following flexibility techniques should the client use first? Select one: a. Static stretching b. Self-myofascial release c. Active-isolated stretching d. Dynamic stretching Check - Correct answer Self-myofascial release When performing a single-leg squat exercise, a client is unable to keep the knee of the balance leg in line with the toes. Which of the following exercises is an appropriate modification? Select one: a. Single-leg balance reach b. Multiplanar lunge to balance c. Box hop-up with stabilization d. Single-leg squat touchdown - Correct answer Single-leg balance reach The carpals of the hand are which of the following types of bones? Select one: a. Long b. Short c. Flat d. Irregular - Correct answer Short While performing a multiplanar lunge to balance exercise, a client exhibits excessive extension of the lumbar spine. Which of the following instructions can help this client?

Select one: a. Tell the client to turn her front foot outward. b. Tell the client to reduce her stride length. c. Tell the client to have the majority of her body weight on her rear leg during the lunge. d. Tell the client to support herself mainly with the toes of the front leg. - Correct answer Tell the client to reduce her stride length. Which of the following is a plyometric-power exercise? Select one: a. Power step-up b. Ice skaters c. Tuck jump d. Butt kick - Correct answer Ice skaters With respect to the integrated flexibility continuum, in which of the following categories is dynamic stretching? Select one: a. Corrective flexibility b. Relative flexibility c. Active flexibility d. Functional flexibility - Correct answer Functional flexibility During sprinting, backside mechanics includes which of the following motions? Select one: a. Ankle plantarflexion, knee extension, and hip extension b. Ankle dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion c. Ankle eversion, knee adduction, and hip internal rotation d. Ankle inversion, knee abduction, and hip external rotation - Correct answer Ankle plantarflexion, knee extension, and hip extension When performing an active kneeling hip flexor stretch, internally rotating the rear leg will place a greater stretch on which of the following muscles? Select one: a. Psoas

b. Tensor fascia late c. Pectineus d. Adductor braves - Correct answer Psoas A client runs a mile in 6 min and 30 seconds. Which of the following systems is the client primarily using to produce energy? Select one: a. Oxidative b. Anaerobic glycolysis c. ATP-PC d. Lymphatic - Correct answer Oxidative A client is performing a standard push-up and the trainer notes a low-back arch. Which of the following muscles are most likely weak or underactive? Select one: a. Psoas b. Erector spinae c. Transverse abdominis d. Latissimus dorsi - Correct answer Transverse abdominals A client is taking prescription beta blockers. Which of the following exercises is safe for him to perform? Select one: a. Knee-up b. Standing cobra c. Reverse crunch d. Floor bridge - Correct answer Standing cobra During the descent of a single-leg squat, a client's knee moves inward. Which of the following muscles should the trainer recognize as requiring static stretching? Select one: a. Vastus lateralis b. Gluteus medius c. Vastus medialis oblique d. Gluteus Maximus - Correct answer Vastus lateralis

In order to effectively target the piriformis when performing self-myofascial release, the client should slowly foam roll the Select one: a. inner thigh. b. lateral thigh. c. axillary region. d. posterior hip. - Correct answer posterior hip. Dynamic stretching uses which of the following concepts to improve soft tissue extensibility? Select one: a. Synergistic dominance b. Reciprocal inhibition c. Relative flexibility d. Myotatic stretch-reflex Check - Correct answer Reciprocal inhibition When performing the static latissimus dorsi ball stretch, which of the following is a correct body position? Select one: a. Posteriorly rotated pelvis b. Anteriorly rotated pelvis c. 90° internally rotated humerus d. 90° horizontally abducted homers - Correct answer Posteriorly rotated pelvis Which of the following pairs is an example of a Phase 2 Strength Endurance Training superset? Select one: a. Barbell squat and single-leg touchdown b. Single-leg squat and stability ball row c. Single-leg squat and ball squat d. Squat jumps and barbell squats - Correct answer Barbell squat and single-leg touchdown

With respect to the general adaptation syndrome, delayed-onset muscle soreness would most likely occur during which of the following phases? Select one: a. Alarm reaction b. Resistance development c. Remodeling d. Exhaustion - Correct answer Alarm reaction Which of the following rep ranges is optimal for maximal strength adaptations? Select one: a. 1 to 5 b. 6 to 12 c. 13 to 20 d. 21 or greater - Correct answer 1 to 5 Which of the following exercises should be avoided when working with a diabetic client? Select one: a. Proprioceptive plyometrics b. Seated cable row c. Chest press machine d. Incline prone is-abs - Correct answer Proprioceptive plyometric Which of the following is a primary adaptation of a high-volume, low- intensity resistance training program? Select one: a. Decreased HDL cholesterol b. Increased metabolic rate c. Increased resting heart rate d. Increased rate of sarcopenia - Correct answer Increased metabolic rate A trainer is working with a client who is developing endurance in her legs using light weights and high repetitions. Which of the following principles of specificity is being used?

Select one: a. Neuromuscular b. Contractile c. Mechanical d. Metabolic - Correct answer Mechanical Which of the following is an example of a core-stabilization exercise? Select one: a. Rotation chest pass b. Back extension c. Reverse crunch d. Two-leg floor bridge - Correct answer Two-leg floor bridge A client performs a ball squat curl to press followed by a push-up, a standing cable row, a single-leg scaption, and a single-leg squat in a circuit fashion. This is an example of which of the following resistance training systems? Select one: a. Vertical loading system b. Split-routine system c. Peripheral heart action system d. Pyramid system - Correct answer Vertical loading system Which of the following is an example of a peripheral heart action system? Select one: a. Performing exercises with an increase in weight for each set b. Performing two exercises of similar joint dynamics in rapid succession c. Performing a circuit of exercises, alternating upper and lower body movements d. Performing all sets of an exercise before moving on to the next exercise Check - Correct answer Performing a circuit of exercises, alternating upper and lower body movements Which of the following is necessary for actin and myosin filaments in the sarcomere to have the greatest degree of overlap? Select one:

a. Optimal length-tension relationships b. Optimal relative flexibility c. Optimal autogenic inhibition d. Optimal synergistic dominance - Correct answer Optimal length-tension relationships For the last three months, a personal trainer has been working with a client who has coronary heart disease. Which of the following should the trainer consider when progressing the training program? Select one: a. Avoiding resistance training b. Including exercises with a 4/2/1 tempo c. Incorporating a circuit training format program. d. Adding supine core exercises - Correct answer Incorporating a circuit training format program. Training with an intensity range of 30% to 45% of a one-repetition maximum and a repetition tempo of X/X/X is associated with which of the following adaptations? Select one: a. Endurance b. Stabilization c. Power d. Hypertrophy - Correct answer Power Which of the following exercises should an intermediate client perform with a repeating tempo? Select one: a. Butt kick b. Squat jump with stabilization c. Ice skater d. Single-leg power step-up - Correct answer Butt kick A client wishes to increase muscular endurance and stabilization. Which of the following acute variables is most appropriate? Select one:

a. 12 repetitions at 70% of 1RM intensity b. Six repetitions at 80% of 1RM intensity c. Three repetitions at 90% of 1RM intensity d. 10 repetitions at 40% of 1RM intensity - Correct answer 12 repetitions at 70% of 1RM intensity A personal trainer is working with a client who has hypertension. Which of the following statements from the client indicates a need for further teaching? Select one: a. "I should perform my iso-ab exercise at an incline." b. "I should make sure my back is flat against the floor during a floor bridge." c. "I should stand and squeeze my shoulder blades together when performing the cobra exercise." d. "I should keep my back straight during the seated shoulder press." - Correct answer "I should make sure my back is flat against the floor during a floor bridge." A rest interval of 40 seconds between sets of resistance exercise will allow recovery of about which of the following percentages of ATP and PC? Select one: a. 25% b. 50% c. 75% d. 100% - Correct answer 75% A client has been training for a 10k race for 4 months and starts to experience pain in his Achilles tendon. Which of the following responses is the client experiencing? Select one: a. DOMS b. Alarm reaction c. Resistance development d. Exhaustion - Correct answer Exhaustion

A personal trainer suggests that his client increase her heart rate up to 95% of her heart rate maximum. Which of the following energy pathways is predominantly being used at this level of intensity? Select one: a. Krebs cycle b. Aerobic glycolysis c. Phosphagen d. Oxidative - Correct answer Phosphate What training adaptation is best achieved with a resistance training tempo of 4/2/1? Select one: a. Power b. Maximal strength c. Hypertrophy d. Stabilization - Correct answer Stabilization A personal trainer has his client perform the following exercises in order: ball squat curl to press, ball dumbbell chest press, standing cable row, seated stability ball military press, step-up to balance, and then repeat the sequence. Which of the following resistance training systems does this exercise routine represent? Select one: a. Vertical loading b. Peripheral heart action c. Drop-set d. Pyramid - Correct answer Vertical loading Which of the following muscle actions lengthens a sarcomere? Select one: a. Eccentric b. Isometric c. Concentric d. Isokinetic - Correct answer Eccentric Which of the following is a benefit of circuit training programs?

Select one: a. Significantly higher calorie expenditure than walking at a fast pace during the same amount of time b. Greater levels of excess post-exercise oxygen consumption c. Increased ability to tap into the fat-burning zone d. Increased muscle sarcopenia - Correct answer Greater levels of excess post-exercise oxygen consumption Which of the following has the highest concentration of calories per gram? Select one: a. Protein b. Carbohydrates c. Lipids d. Alcohol - Correct answer Lipids A personal trainer is advising a client on caloric distribution. Which of the following falls within the acceptable macronutrient distribution range for protein? Select one: a. 60% b. 50% c. 40% d. 30% - Correct answer 30% Large doses of beta-carotene intake can cause an increased risk for which of the following? Select one: a. Hip fractures in older women b. Birth defects if taken early in pregnancy c. Lung cancer in smokers d. Alzheimer's disease in the elderly - Correct answer Lung cancer in smokers Which fatty acids are predominately implicated to raise low-density lipoproteins cholesterol levels?

Select one: a. Monounsaturated b. Polyunsaturated c. Omega- d. Saturated - Correct answer Saturated Which popular diet has a carbohydrate content greater than 60%? Select one: a. Ketogenic diet b. Zone diet c. South Beach diet d. Dean Cornish diet - Correct answer Dean Cornish diet Which of the following is an acceptable macronutrient distribution range for adult carbohydrate intake? Select one: a. 16 g/kg/day b. 12 g/kg/day c. 8 g/kg/day d. 4 g/kg/day - Correct answer 8 g/kg/day Excess intake of vitamin D can lead to Select one: a. bone and joint pain. b. calcification of arteries. c. osteopenia. d. loss of hair. - Correct answer calcification of arteries. Which of the following is the maximum carbohydrate percentage recommended for a sports drink? Select one: a. 14% b. 12% c. 10% d. 8% - Correct answer 8%

Decreased levels of thyroid hormones tend to cause a decrease in Select one: a. resting metabolic rate. b. diastolic blood pressure. c. systolic blood pressure. d. resting heart rate. - Correct answer resting metabolic rate. Holding a static stretch for a prolonged period of at least 30 seconds causes which of the following neuromuscular phenomena? Select one: a. Synergistic dominance b. Remodeling c. Autogenic inhibition d. Pattern overload Check - Correct answer Autogenic inhibition For clients whose goal is to gain lean body mass, which of the following is a basic nutritional guideline? Select one: a. Ingestion of protein and fat within 120 min of a workout will increase recovery and protein synthesis, maximizing gains. b. Protein should generally make up the highest percentage of macronutrient calories. c. Eat 4 to 6 meals per day. d. Consume sports drinks containing up to 8% carbohydrate when exercising for less than 60 min. - Correct answer Eat 4 to 6 meals per day. A pregnant client decides to start taking a multivitamin under the supervision of her doctor. Which of the following attributes of her multivitamin could be harmful during the early stages of pregnancy, with the potential of causing birth defects? Select one: a. 700 μg Vitamin A b. 2.4 μg Vitamin B c. 400 μg Folic acid d. 30 μg Biotin - Correct answer 700 μg Vitamin A

Metabolic syndrome is a cluster of symptoms characterized by what conditions? Select one: a. Obesity, insulin resistance, hypertension, dyslipidemia b. Hyperthyroidism, sarcoidosis, sarcopenia, hypotension c. Osteoporosis, osteopenia, osteoarthritis, osteomyelitis d. Plantar fasciitis, Achilles tendonitis, sciatica, biceps tendinopathy - Correct answer Obesity, insulin resistance, hypertension, dyslipidemia The purpose of asking an open-ended question during a client's initial session is to Select one: a. get a clear "yes" or "no" answer. b. understand a client's true motivation and invite discussion. Correct This is the primary goal of an open-ended question. c. identify a client's resting heart rate and VO2 max. d. get an idea of a client's muscular imbalances. - Correct answer Which of the following is the best example of a directive question? Select one: a. Is it important for you to reach your goal by this summer? b. Why do you want to lose 20 pounds? c. What are you trying to achieve? d. How have you tried to lose weight in the past? - Correct answer Is it important for you to reach your goal by this summer? An individual exercises regularly but has not yet maintained the behavior for 6 months. In which of the following sections of the Stages of Change model is this individual? Select one: a. Contemplation b. Preparation c. Action d. Maintenance - Correct answer Action

An individual has a gym membership and visits sporadically, but not frequently enough to maintain a well-rounded exercise program. In which of the following sections of the Stages of Change model is this client? Select one: a. Contemplation b. Preparation c. Action d. Maintenance - Correct answer Preparation In which of the following scenarios is a trainer encouraging a client to practice self-monitoring? Select one: a. Train a client to notice negative thoughts and replace those thoughts with positive ones. b. Teach a client to imagine himself performing a barbell squat with greater confidence. c. Help a client come up with a list of songs that will help motivate him to exercise. d. Have a client keep an exercise log on a calendar to help keep him motivated - Correct answer Have a client keep an exercise log on a calendar to help keep him motivated A client is losing motivation to exercise, so his trainer recommends spending 15 min before his next session thinking about the feelings of accomplishment, sounds, and smells experienced during his last session. This is an example of which of the following? Select one: a. Self-monitoring b. Imagery c. Diffusion d. Remodeling - Correct answer Imagery A client is considering starting an exercise program in the next 6 months. Which of the following is the best strategy a personal trainer can use to help her progress into the Preparation section of the Stages of Change model?

Select one: a. Provide the client with easy-to-read education materials about the benefits of exercise. b. Compare the client's body to a fitness model to help provide motivation to begin. c. Insist the client begin an exercise program for her own good. d. Describe personal fitness-related triumphs to encourage the client to exercise. - Correct answer Provide the client with easy-to-read education materials about the benefits of exercise. Which of the following terms refers to a neurotransmitter that carries action potential across a synapse? Select one: a. Acetylcholine b. Myoglobin c. Mitochondria d. Troponin Check - Correct answer Acetylcholine Which of the following is an example of an open-ended question? Select one: a. "Does this exercise hurt?" b. "Are you ready to get started today?" c. "Why do you want to lose 20 pounds?" d. "Are you feeling okay?" Check - Correct answer "Why do you want to lose 20 pounds?" A new client tells the personal trainer that although he exercises occasionally, he is now ready to try a different approach to become a regular exerciser. This is an example of which section of the Stages of Change model? Select one: a. Precontemplation b. Action c. Preparation d. Maintenance - Correct answer Preparation

A personal trainer provides his client with step-by-step instructions on how to perform a ball squat to shoulder press and later asks the client if she was able to perform the exercise. This is an example of what type of support? Select one: a. Instrumental b. Emotional c. Informational d. Companionship - Correct answer Informational Which of the following exemplifies professional service and client care according to the Code of Professional Conduct? Select one: a. Instructing a client to take weight-loss nutritional supplements b. Referring a client with hypertension to a cardiologist c. Designing meal plans for a client who has diabetes d. Providing rehabilitation services to a client after a knee surgery Check - Correct answer Referring a client with hypertension to a cardiologist A 70-year-old client goes to see a personal trainer to regain cardiovascular fitness after a recent heart attack. The trainer has not received written clearance from the client's doctor prior to the first training session, but the client has already completed 10 training sessions with a different trainer. What is the appropriate course of action for the trainer to take? Select one: a. Obtain permission from the personal training manager to continue training. b. Monitor the client's blood pressure before every workout session. c. Postpone training sessions until written clearance is received from the doctor. d. Have the client sign an additional liability waiver. - Correct answer Postpone training sessions until written clearance is received from the doctor. Which of the following is outside of the personal trainer's scope of practice, according the Code of Professional Conduct?

Select one: a. Independently design training programs to correct muscle imbalances b. Provide flexibility training techniques to assist clients with medical clearance in adapting to past surgeries that limit their physical movement c. Inquire about current and past medications the client has been administered by a healthcare professional d. Provide nutritional counseling for a client who exhibits signs of an eating disorder - Correct answer Provide nutritional counseling for a client who exhibits signs of an eating disorder Which of the following actions falls within a personal trainer's scope of practice regarding a client's nutrition? Select one: a. Provide individual nutrition assessment b. Write individualized meal plans c. Recommend nutritional therapy d. Discuss food preparation methods - Correct answer Discuss food preparation methods Which of the following actions falls outside a personal trainer's scope of practice? Select one: a. Develop an exercise program for an obese client with hypertension and medical clearance for exercise. b. Perform various movement and postural assessments on a client to determine potential muscle imbalances. c. Educate clients regarding nutrients contained in foods or supplements. d. Counsel a client with anorexia about the health benefits of a well- balanced diet. - Correct answer Counsel a client with anorexia about the health benefits of a well-balanced diet. Which of the following requirements is necessary for a personal trainer to recertify his NASM-CPT certification? Select one: a. Submit an online CPR and first aid certification. b. Acquire 20 hr. of hands-on work experience.