NATIONAL PESTICIDE APPLICATOR CERTIFICATION CORE MANUAL QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS, Exams of Pest Management

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NATIONAL PESTICIDE APPLICATOR

CERTIFICATION CORE MANUAL

QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS

VERIFIED LATEST 2023-2024 GRADE A +

Using barriers to prevent pests from getting into an area is an example of which type of pest management method? A. Biological control B. Mechanical control C. Genetic control D. Chemical control - ANSWER>>>B. Mechanical control Lowering the humidity of stored grains and other food products to reduce damage from mold is an example of which type of pest management method? A. Biological B. Mechanical C. Physical/environmental modification

D. Regulatory pest control - ANSWER>>>C. Physical/environmental modification Which statement is "true" about biological control methods? A. If pesticides are part of a biological control program to control an exotic pest, it is better to apply them at the strongest label rate and to choose the more toxic pesticides B. Modifying the environment to enhance natural enemies is a recommended practice in biological control C. Biological control involves the importation of exotic pests to control natural enemies D. Using several cultural practices and a wide variety of pesticides works best in biological control - ANSWER>>>B. Modifying the environment to enhance natural enemies is a recommended practice in biological control Sealing cracks and crevices and small openings in buildings is an example of which type of mechanical control method?

A. Exclusion B. Trapping C. Cultivation D. Mulching - ANSWER>>>A. Exclusion Which statement is "true" about cultural control practices? A. Cultural practices alter the environment, the condition of the host, or the behavior of the pest to prevent or suppress an infestation B. Trapping is an important cultural control practice C. Sanitation is not considered a cultural practice D. Cultural controls involve the release of parasites and predators found in foreign countries - ANSWER>>>A. Cultural practices alter the environment, the condition of the host, or the behavior of the pest to prevent or suppress an infestation Which statement is "true" about regulatory pest control?

A. Pests that pose a serious public health threat are rarely regulated by federal and state agencies B. Pests that are to be eradicated are rarely under quarantine restrictions C. Airports and ocean ports are monitored by pest quarantine regulatory agencies D. Entry of pests across state lines is not regulated - ANSWER>>>C. Airports and ocean ports are monitored by pest quarantine regulatory agencies Which statement is "true" about pest management strategies in IPM? A. The goal is often to maintain pest damage at economically acceptable levels B. Eradication is never the goal of an IPM program C. Pesticides are not included in an IPM strategy D. Non-chemical methods usually provide only short-term control of a pest - ANSWER>>>A. The goal is often to maintain pest damage at economically acceptable levels

Which would be considered a preventive pest management strategy? A. Planting weed- and disease-free seed B. Releasing natural enemies to help reduce pest populations C. Eliminating rodents from a commercial food establishment D. Removing from an area a pest that is a public health concern - ANSWER>>>A. Planting weed- and disease- free seed Which statement is "true" about action thresholds? A. The IPM technician needs to implement control measures below the action threshold level B. The action threshold for a pest may be set a a zero pest population density C. Action thresholds are usually easy to establish D. In an urban landscape, action thresholds are usually more related to economics than aesthetics -

ANSWER>>>B. The action threshold for a pest may be set a a zero pest population density Which would increase the likelihood pesticide resistance? A. An insect has only one generation per year B. Continual use of the same pesticides or pesticides from the same chemical class C. Limiting the number of pesticide applications D. Applying a pesticide that has little or no residual effect - ANSWER>>>B. Continual use of the same pesticides or pesticides from the same chemical class Which federal agency is responsible for registering or licensing pesticide products for use in the United States? A. U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) B. U.S. Department of Agriculture (UADA) C. U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service (USFWS) D. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) - ANSWER>>>A. U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)

Which federal law governs the establishment of pesticide tolerances for food and feed products? A. Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act (FIFRA) B. Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FFDCA) C. Food Quality Protection Act (FQPA) D. Worker Protection Standard (WPS) - ANSWER>>>B. Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FFDCA) Which federal law requires that all pesticides meet new safety standards? A. Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act (FIFRA) B. Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FFDCA) C. Food Quality Protection Act (FQPA) D. Worker Protection Standard (WPS) - ANSWER>>>C. Food Quality Protection Act (FQPA)

Which statement about FIFRA is "false"? A. State restrictions on pesticides can be more liberal than those of FIFRA B. Approved pesticide labels have the force of law C. The EPA has the authority to remove pesticide products from the market D. FIFRA regulates the registration and licensing of pesticide products - ANSWER>>>A. State restrictions on pesticides can be more liberal than those of FIFRA Experimental use permits required under Section 5 of FIFRA can be used when conducting experimental field tests on new pesticides or new uses of pesticides on: A. 10 or more acres of land or 1 or more acres of water B. 5 or more acres of land or 1 or more acres of water C. 7 or more acres of land or 2 or more acres of water D. less than 1 acre of land or water - ANSWER>>>A. 10 or more acres of land or 1 or more acres of water

Both civil and criminal penalties can be assessed for FIFRA violations A. True B. False - ANSWER>>>A. True Which statement about the requirements of the FQPA is "true"? A. For setting new standards, the FQPA considers aggregate exposures to pesticides but not cumulative exposures B. The FQPA does not require review of older pesticides with established residue tolerances on food C. The FQPA does not consider additional safety standards to account for exposure risks to infants and children D. Testing of pesticides for endocrine-disruption potential is required under the FQPA - ANSWER>>>D. Testing of pesticides for endocrine-disruption potential is required under the FQPA

Under the federal Endangered Species Protection Program, what must be on pesticide products that might adversely affect an endangered species? A. A label statement advising applicators to consult a county bulletin to determine if they must take any special precautionary measures when using the product B. A label statement advising them to consult a local conservation officer for a permit to apply the pesticide C. A label statement prohibiting them from applying pesticides in all areas where endangered species might be harmed D. A label statement that lists the endangered species that might be harmed by the pesticide and how to prevent it - ANSWER>>>A. A label statement advising applicators to consult a county bulletin to determine if they must take any special precautionary measures when using the product What is needed to apply a pesticide legally when a pest problem arises for which a food or feed commodity is not on the registered pesticide label or a tolerance has not yet been established? A. An emergency exemption

B. Use a restricted-use pesticide C. A minimum-risk pesticide classification D. An emergency registration - ANSWER>>>A. An emergency exemption Which of the following sections under FIFRA exempts from registration pesticides considered to pose minimum risk? A. Section 3 B. Section 18 C. Section 24 (c) D. Section 25 (b) - ANSWER>>>D. Section 25 (b) The active ingredient in Lorsban 75WG is listed as chlorpyrifos: 0,0-diethyl 0-(3,5,6-trichloro 2-pyridinyl) phosphorothioate. What does the term "chlorpyrifos" represent? A. The brand name

B. The chemical name C. The common name D. The registered trade name - ANSWER>>>C. The common name Which statement about pesticide label names and ingredients is "true"? A. The active ingredients and the inert ingredients must be listed by chemical name B. Various manufacturers use different trade names, even though the products contain the same active ingredient C. The common names are those accepted officially by the manufacturer D. Inert ingredients are responsible for the pesticidal activity - ANSWER>>>B. Various manufacturers use different trade names, even though the products contain the same active ingredient What is the purpose of the signal word?

A. To give the user an indication of the relative acute toxicity of the product to humans and animals B. Informs the user of what type of PPE to wear C. Informs the user of how toxic the pesticide is to wildlife and the environment D. Tells the user what type of first-aid treatment to seek in case of exposure - ANSWER>>>A. To give the user an indication of the relative acute toxicity of the product to humans and animals The route of entry statement on a label "Extremely hazardous by skin contact - rapidly absorbed through the skin" would most likely appear with which signal word? A. DANGER B. WARNING C. CAUTION D. No signal word required - ANSWER>>>A. DANGER The statement "Do not breathe vapors or spray mist" is an example of:

A. A specific action statement B. A statement of practical treatment C. A route of entry statement D. A protective clothing statement - ANSWER>>>A. A specific action statement Which is "true" about statements of practical treatment? A. They are not associated with signal words B. It is not important to have the pesticide label in case of a poisoning emergency C. Statements about inducing vomiting are not found on the label D. All DANGER labels contain a note to physicians describing appropriate medical procedures - ANSWER>>>D. All DANGER labels contain a note to physicians describing appropriate medical procedures Directions for mixing and loading a pesticide are usually found under:

A. The agricultural use requirements B. The directions for use C. Environmental hazards D. Precautionary statements - ANSWER>>>B. The directions for use Who is responsible for developing MSDSs on specific chemicals and providing them on request? A. The EPA B. The USDA C. OSHA D. The product manufacturer - ANSWER>>>D. The product manufacturer The name "Sevin 5G" on a pesticide label indicates: A. A granular pesticide with B. A gel pesticide with 5 percent active ingredients

C. A granular pesticide with 5 percent active ingredients D. A gel pesticide with 5 percent inert ingredients - ANSWER>>>C. A granular pesticide with 5 percent active ingredients Which is the pesticide formulation process by which solid particles are dispersed in a liquid? A. ULV solvents B. Solution C. Suspension D. Emulsion - ANSWER>>>C. Suspension Which liquid pesticide formulation consists of a small amount of active ingredient (often 1 percent or less per unit volume) dissolved in an organic solvent? A. Emulsifiable concentrate (EC) B. Ready-to-use low-concentrate solutions (RTU) C. Ultra-low volume (ULV)

D. Flowables (F)/liquids (L) - ANSWER>>>B. Ready-to- use low-concentrate solutions (RTU) Which liquid pesticide formulation may approach 100 percent active ingredient? A. Emulsifiable concentrate (EC) B. Ready-to-use low-concentrate solutions (RTU) C. Ultra-low volume (ULV) D. Aerosols (A) - ANSWER>>>C. Ultra-low volume (ULV) Which is a disadvantage of both EC and ULV formulations? A. Solvents may cause rubber or plastic hoses, gaskets, and pump parts and surfaces to deteriorate B. Contribute to abrasive wear of nozzles and pumps C. Require constant agitation to keep in suspension D. Difficult to handle, transport, and store - ANSWER>>>A. Solvents may cause rubber or plastic

hoses, gaskets, and pump parts and surfaces to deteriorate Which dry/solid formulation is mixed in water and reduces the risk of inhalation exposure during mixing and loading? A. Dusts (D) B. Wettable powders (WP) C. Soluble powders (SP) D. Water-dispersable granules (WDG) or dry flowables (DF) - ANSWER>>>D. Water-dispersable granules (WDG) or dry flowables (DF) Which type of dry/solid pesticide formulation consists of particles that are the same weight and shape? A. Dusts B. Granules C. Pellets D. Baits - ANSWER>>>C. Pellets

Which is an advantage of microencapsulated materials? A. They pose few hazards to bees B. Delayed or slow release of the active ingredient prolongs its effectiveness C. Their pesticidal activity is independent of weather conditions D. They usually require only short restricted-entry intervals

• ANSWER>>>B. Delayed or slow release of the active ingredient prolongs its effectiveness Which type of adjuvant functions as wetting agents and spreaders (i.e., they physically alter the surface tension of spray droplets)? A. Surfactants B. Stickers C. Extenders D. Buffers - ANSWER>>>A. Surfactants

Which type of adjuvant increases the viscosity of spray mixtures? A. Stickers B. Extenders C. Plant penetrants D. Thickeners - ANSWER>>>D. Thickeners The capacity of a pesticide to cause short-term (acute) or long-term (chronic) injury is referred to as its: A. Toxicity B. Exposure C. Hazard D. Oral LD- 50 - ANSWER>>>A. Toxicity Which statement is "false" about harmful effects of pesticides? A. The most common form of pesticide injury is by inhalation

B. Fumigants can cause severe blisters C. Asthma-like symptoms may be caused by allergies to pesticides D. Many herbicides and fungicides cause dermatitis - ANSWER>>>A. The most common form of pesticide injury is by inhalation Which signal word is associated with Hazard Class I and chemicals that have severe corrosive properties but do not necessarily have very low oral LD-50 values? A. DANGER-POISON B. DANGER C. WARNING D. CAUTION - ANSWER>>>B. DANGER Which statement is "true" about pesticide toxicity? A. A pesticide with an oral LD-50 of 250 mg/kg is more toxic than a pesticide with an LD-50 of 5 mg/kg

B. Manufacturers are not required to include chronic toxicity warning statements on product labels; only acute toxicity warnings are included C. Delayed effects occur only after a single acute toxicity exposure D. Cholinesterase inhibition due to exposure to organophosphate or carbamate insecticides can cause acute or delayed effects - ANSWER>>>D. Cholinesterase inhibition due to exposure to organophosphate or carbamate insecticides can cause acute or delayed effects What is the purpose of routine or emergency cholinesterase monitoring? A. To enable a physician to recognize the occurrence of excessive exposure to organophosphate and carbamate insecticides B. To enable a physician to recognize the occurrence of excessive exposure to pyrethroid insecticides C. To enable the pesticide handler to know when to stop using pesticide products during the course of a normal workday

D. To enable the pesticide handler to know when he/she has been overexposed to restricted-use pesticides - ANSWER>>>A. To enable a physician to recognize the occurrence of excessive exposure to organophosphate and carbamate insecticides When should a blood test for baseline cholinesterase be done? A. Baseline testing should be done during the time of year when pesticide use is the greatest and at least 14 days into the application season B. Baseline testing should be done during the time of year when pesticides are not being used or at least 30 days from the most recent exposure C. Baseline testing should be done during the time of year when pesticides are not being used or within one week of the most recent exposure D. Baseline testing should be done about halfway through the application season to measure the average amount of pesticide exposure - ANSWER>>>B. Baseline testing should be done during the time of year when pesticides are not being used or at least 30 days from the most recent exposure

Which statement is "true" about pesticide exposure routines? A. Oil-based liquid pesticide formulations, such as emulsifiable concentrates, do not absorb through the skin B. Evidence indicates that about 97 percent of all body exposure to pesticides during a spraying operation is by inhalation C. Some products that cause systemic injury are as toxic as when they are swallowed D. The palms and forearms absorb more pesticides than the warm, moist areas of the body - ANSWER>>>C. Some products that cause systemic injury are as toxic as when they are swallowed Which statement is "false" about first-aid response for pesticide exposure to the eye? A. Hold the eye open and immediately begin gently washing the eye with drips of clean water B. The water should be dripped directly into the eye, don't use an eyewash dispenser

C. Continuously rinse the eye for 15 minutes D. Flush under the eyelid with water to remove debris - ANSWER>>>B. The water should be dripped directly into the eye, don't use an eyewash dispenser What is the "first" thing you should do the help a victim of inhalation exposure? A. Get the victim to fresh air B. Administer artificial respiration C. Have the victim lie down and loosen clothing D. Keep the chin up to ensure that the air passages are open for breathing - ANSWER>>>A. Get the victim to fresh air Which statement is "true" about heat stress? A. Wearing lots of PPE prevents heat stroke B. Constriction of pupils is a symptom of heat stroke