NAVLE Exam Questions With 100% Correct Answers 2023-2024, Exams of Advanced Education

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NAVLE Exam Questions With 100%

Correct Answers 2023-

An epidural with morphine and bupivicaine is scheduled for a dog undergoing a stifle surgery. At which one of the following locations should this be performed A - S1-Cd B - Cd-1-Cd C - L6-S D - L7-S E - T13-L1 - Correct Answer-D - L7-S A dog hit by a car presents with stiff hypermetric forelimbs and flaccid, paralyzed hindlimbs. Where is the lesion likely to be? A - Cannot tell without more information B - Cranial cervical: C1-C C - Thoracolumbar T3-L D - Lumbosacral L4-S E - Cervicothoracic: C6-T2 - Correct Answer-C - Thoracolumbar T3-L A calf with pinkeye is being treated with an injection of long acting oxytetracycline. Image of typical pinkeye: http://zukureview.us6.list-manage.com/track/click? u=0f3f1e77d01640174b00d543d&id=d8ea758d4d&e=3d2928b The calf weighs 100 lbs and the dose is 10mg/kg. How many milligrams will be needed for one dose? A - 2200 milligrams B - 4.5 milligrams C - 22 milligrams D - 454.5 milligrams E - 75 milligrams - Correct Answer-D - 454.5 milligrams During a necropsy on a 4-year old Beagle who died suddenly, a severe right ventricular hypertrophy is noted. See image at: http://zukureview.us6.list-manage.com/track/click? u=0f3f1e77d01640174b00d543d&id=c2ba0c8b72&e=3d2928b

Which condition is highest on the differential diagnosis list? A - Pulmonic stenosis B - Aortic stenosis C - Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) D - Mitral dysplasia E - Tricuspid dysplasia - Correct Answer-A - Pulmonic stenosis A 9 year old German shepherd is presented with unchecked bleeding from a cut on the gums above the right canine tooth. The owner relates that the dog has lost weight and had an episode of collapse 3 days ago, but he recovered. On physical exam, the gums are pale with petechiae and ecchymotic hemorrhages. There is tachycardia and a palpable cranial abdominal mass. A coagulation profile shows the following: Thrombocytes= 82,533 per microliter..[N=200,000-900,000] Buccal mucosal bleeding time (BMBT), increased Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT), increased Prothrombin time (PT), increased Thrombin time (TT), increased Fibrin degradation products (FDPs), increased What disorder of coagulation best fits this pattern? A - Anticoagulant rodenticide toxicity B - Hepatic insufficiency C - Von Willebrand's disease D - Idiopathic thrombocytopenia E - Disseminated intravascular coagulation - Correct Answer-E - Disseminated intravascular coagulation At what age do a cow's first permanent upper incisor teeth (I1) begin to erupt? A - Cows don't have upper incisor teeth B - 4 years C - 3 years D - 1 year E - 2 years - Correct Answer-A - Cows don't have upper incisor teeth Several piglets in a group weaned 10 days ago in the nursery facility of a large commercial swine operation were found dead. On evaluation, some weaners have swelling around the eyes and forehead.

Some are in lateral recumbency and dyspneic. Necropsy of the dead piglets reveals subcutaneous and submucosal edema. The most likely causative organism is... A - Brachyspira hyodysenteriae B - Lawsonia intracellularis C - Escherichia coli D - Streptococcus suis E - Clostridium septicum - Correct Answer-C - Escherichia coli Most of a litter of European wild boar at a zoological park have died. The surviving piglets are in lateral recumbency with a frothy nasal discharge. Necropsy of the piglets reveals pulmonary edema and copious fluid in the trachea and bronchi along with grayish- white necrotic foci on the myocardium. Which one of the following diseases is the most likely diagnosis? A - Encephalomyocarditis B - Porcine Respiratory and Reproductive Syndrome C - Glasser's Disease D - Edema disease E - Pseudorabies - Correct Answer-A - Encephalomyocarditis An 8 year-old spayed female DSH cat is presented for right head tilt of 24 hours duration. The cat is up to date on vaccinations. Physical exam shows horizontal nystagmus with the fast phase to the left. The rest of the physical exam is unremarkable. What can the owner be told regarding the cat's treatment and prognosis? A - Good prognosis with corticosteroids and anti-emetics B - Excellent prognosis without medication C - Excellent prognosis with corticosteroids and antibiotics D - Excellent prognosis with corticosteroid therapy E - Fair prognosis with corticosteroids and antibiotics - Correct Answer-B - Excellent prognosis without medication A ewe is examined because of a large swelling on the shoulder. On evaluation the swelling is fluctuant and has a draining purulent discharge. Other sheep in the herd have nonpainful subcutaneous swellings on the neck and shoulder. A few animals in the herd appear emaciated. What is the best way to confirm a presumptive diagnosis of caseous lymphadenitis?

A - Isolation of Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis from an aspirate B - PCR for capsular antigen A C - Fecal culture of Mycobacterium ovis D - Serologic testing for phospholipase D exotoxin E - ELISA test for antibodies to Pasteurella multocida from a serum sample - Correct Answer-A - Isolation of Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis from an aspirate Which choice is the pastern joint? A - Proximal interphalangeal joint (PI-PII) B - Carpometacarpal joint C - Metacarpophalangeal joint D - Intermetacarpal joint E - Distal interphalangeal joint (PII-PIII) - Correct Answer-A - Proximal interphalangeal joint (PI-PII) Follow this link to see a fetlock and pastern anatomy image (http://www.merckmanuals.com/vet/musculoskeletal_system/lameness_in_horses/ laminitis_in_horses.html). Clinically important because one of the 3 most important nerve blocks, the foot block (also called pastern or abaxial sesamoid nerve block (ASNB)) is done just above the pastern. You can use a pastern block to make a horse with acute laminitis comfortable. Which lesions are most commonly associated with Marek's disease? A - Wrinkled eggs B - Nerve enlargement C - Blood in the trachea D - Hemorrhagic skin lesions E - Edematous facial swelling with sinusitis - Correct Answer-B - Nerve enlargement Damage to the left recurrent laryngeal nerve is associated with "roaring" in horses. The left recurrent laryngeal nerve is a branch off of which cranial nerve? A - Glossopharyngeal (CN 9) B - Trigeminal (CN 5) C - Hypoglossal (CN 12) D - Facial (CN 7) E - Vagus (CN 10) - Correct Answer-E - Vagus (CN 10) Which diseases are classically associated with a high anion gap (AG)? A - Hypercalcemia of malignancy, Hypoadrenocorticism, Displaced abomasum B - Eosinophilic enteritis, Hypothyroidism, Gastrinoma C - Prostatic adenocarcinoma, Pleural effusion, Lymphangiectasia D - Grain overload, Ethylene glycol toxicity, Renal insufficiency

E - Diabetes mellitus, Pancreatitis, Proliferative enteritis - Correct Answer-D - Grain overload, Ethylene glycol toxicity, Renal insufficiency Which one of the following choices is the most appropriate next step after a 3-year old stray cat tests positive for Feline Immunodeficiency Virus (FIV) on a routine FIV ELISA screening test? A - Pull a blood sample for FeLV Antigen test B - Pull a blood sample for a Western Blot FIV test C - Repeat ELISA to rule out false positive D - Euthanize E - Recheck serum by FIV complement fixation test - Correct Answer-B - Pull a blood sample for a Western Blot FIV test A newborn foal is examined two hours after birth. The foal has a heart rate of 100 bpm [N=100-120], and a continuous murmur loudest on the left side. Which one of the following choices is the most likely explanation for these findings? A - Incipient septicemia B - Hypoxic ischemic encephalopathy C - Foal dysmaturity D - Normal in a neonatal foal E - Ventricular septal defect - Correct Answer-D - Normal in a neonatal foal (These findings are NORMAL in a neonatal foal. The heart rate and a finding of a continuous murmur on the left side (due to slight opening of the ductus arteriosis, which usually closes within 4-5 days) are normal in newborn foals. Persistent patent ductus arteriosis is rare in horses.)