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NAVLE Practice Exam Questions With 100% Correct Answers 2023-2024, Exams of Advanced Education

NAVLE Practice Exam Questions With 100% Correct Answers 2023-2024 A two-year-old Angus cow is presented with weakness of the hind limbs and a staggering gait. On physical exam, the heart rate and respiratory rate are slow and irregular, and the pupils are dilated. The cow's breath and urine smell like the odor of mouse urine. Suddenly the cow's pulse becomes rapid and thready, she collapses, and dies of apparent respiratory failure. Which one of the following plants is most likely to have caused this spectrum of clinical signs? A - Pinus ponderosa (Western yellow pine) B - Veratrum spp (False hellebore, Skunk cabbage) C - Centaurea spp (Knapweed, Yellow star thistle) D - Conium maculatum (Poison hemlock) E - Tetradymia spp (Horsebrush) - Correct Answer-D - Conium maculatum (Poison hemlock)

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NAVLE Practice Exam Questions With

100% Correct Answers 2023-

A two-year-old Angus cow is presented with weakness of the hind limbs and a staggering gait. On physical exam, the heart rate and respiratory rate are slow and irregular, and the pupils are dilated. The cow's breath and urine smell like the odor of mouse urine. Suddenly the cow's pulse becomes rapid and thready, she collapses, and dies of apparent respiratory failure. Which one of the following plants is most likely to have caused this spectrum of clinical signs? A - Pinus ponderosa (Western yellow pine) B - Veratrum spp (False hellebore, Skunk cabbage) C - Centaurea spp (Knapweed, Yellow star thistle) D - Conium maculatum (Poison hemlock) E - Tetradymia spp (Horsebrush) - Correct Answer-D - Conium maculatum (Poison hemlock) You are presented a healthy ten-year-old maiden mare for breeding evaluation in January in North America. On rectal palpation, both ovaries have multiple, small (less than 15 mm) follicles and no corpus lutea. The uterus is flaccid with no edema. Which one of the following choices is the most likely explanation of the findings in this mare? A - Seasonal anestrus B - The mare is in diestrus C - Estrus has just passed D - Early pregnancy E - The mare is too old and now is infertile - Correct Answer-A - Seasonal anestrus A five-month-old Yorkshire terrier is presented with ataxia in all four limbs and neck pain. There is loss of conscious proprioception in all four limbs. A radiograph of the cervical spine is shown below. Which one of the following choices is the most likely diagnosis? A - Atlantoaxial instability B - Caudal occipital malformation C - Intervertebral disk disease D - Discospondylitis E - Spina bifida - Correct Answer-A - Atlantoaxial instability An 11-year-old male, neutered Cavalier King Charles spaniel is presented for an episode of acute collapse with inability to support himself on the hind limbs and disorientation. Based on the radiographs and history, which one of the following tests would be next indicated?

A - Magnetic resonance imaging B - Edrophonium challenge test C - Myelography D - Bronchoscopy E - Echocardiography - Correct Answer-E - Echocardiography An eight-year-old dog is found recumbent and non-responsive in a horse pasture. His left pupil is small, the right one is moderately dilated but responds to light. The right upper eyelid and lip are droopy, hanging lower than normal. Head trauma is suspected. The mucous membranes are pale pink, capillary refill time is 1-2 seconds. T= 98.7°F, (37.0°C) [N 100-102.5°F, 37.8-39.2°C] HR=56 [N 90-160 beats/min] The respiratory rate and pattern are quite variable. He breathes fast and deep for 5- breaths, then more slowly and shallowly, then is apneic for 10 seconds. The pattern repeats over and over. What is this respiratory pattern? A - Orthopnea B - Cheyne-Stokes breathing C - Apneustic respiration pattern D - Agonal respiration E - Kussmaul pattern - Correct Answer-B - Cheyne-Stokes breathing A seven-year-old cat is presented with miosis, ptosis, enophthalmos, and protruded nictitating membrane involving the left eye. These signs are caused by DAMAGE to which one of the following innervation pathways? A - Right trigeminal innervation to the eye B - Right parasympathetic innervation to the eye C - Left oculomotor innervation to the eye D - Left sympathetic innervation to the eye E - Right vagal innervation to the eye - Correct Answer-D - Left sympathetic innervation to the eye A flock of sheep has been grazing on Sorghum halepense (Johnson grass), Tetradymia spp. (horsebrush) and Artemisia nova (black sage). Many of the exposed animals have edema, especially in their heads. This lamb has edema around the eyes and the ears show hyperkeratinized tissue. What is the photosensitizing agent responsible for this condition? A - Tetradymia spp. B - Chlorophyll C - Phylloerythrin D - Artemisia nova E - Bile acids - Correct Answer-C - Phylloerythrin

A young adult dairy cow is presented for evaluation in Minnesota in February. She has multifocal, nonpruritic, circular, alopecic, and gray-white crusty lesions, mainly affecting the head and neck. Several other herdmates are similarly affected, with lesions also on the chest and limbs. What is the most common way to address this condition? A - Cull the worst-affected cows B - Oral griseofulvin C - Parenteral oxytetracycline D - Pour-on doramectin E - No treatment - Correct Answer-E - No treatment What is the purpose of placing a permanent rumen fistula in some cattle? A - This procedure is not done on a permanent basis in cows B - Allow for direct administration of medications into rumen long-term C - Manage vagal indigestion in the fistulated animal D - Create transfaunation donors E - Treat traumatic reticuloperitonitis in the fistulated animal - Correct Answer-D - Create transfaunation donors Which one of the following choices includes the cardinal sign of trigeminal neuritis? A - Masseter muscle pain associated with chewing B - Circling and head tilt toward side of lesion, no other signs C - Dysphagia, dysphonia and stridor D - Inability to close the mouth E - Paralyzed eyelid, ear or lip on one or both sides of the face - Correct Answer-D - Inability to close the mouth Two calves aged eight weeks are presented that are both down and extremely weak. They are depressed and lying in pools of foul-smelling brown diarrhea with a small amount of blood. One other calf died suddenly the night before with no signs at all. They are found to be dehydrated, with rectal temperatures of 105.2 and 105.6 F (40.7 40. C)..[N=101.5-103.5F, N=37.8-39.7 C], respectively. Based on the condition at the top of the differential diagnosis list, what is the treatment plan? A - Immunize well and sick calves and adult cattle with MLV vaccine, antibiotics for sick calves B - NSAIDS, antibiotics in feed and water C - IV fluids, NSAIDS, fequent milk feeding, antibiotics if septic D - Cull sick calves, disinfect feeding areas, prophylactic antibiotics and NSAIDs for well animals E - Isolate sick calves, immunize, antibiotics, cull those that do not respond to treatment

  • Correct Answer-C - IV fluids, NSAIDS, fequent milk feeding, antibiotics if septic

What kind of organism causes equine granulocytic ehrlichiosis? A - Spirochete B - Anaplasma C - Ehrlichia D - Protozoa E - Chlamydia - Correct Answer-B - Anaplasma A two-year-old heifer is presented who died the night before. She was stunted compared to her herd mates, and had a three-week history of poor appetite, unthriftiness, diarrhea. Necropsy reveals that the abomasum is edematous and covered in small umbilicated nodules 1-2 mm in diameter (cobblestone or "Moroccan leather" appearance). Several other younger cows in this Spring-calving herd look unthrifty and have diarrhea too. Which one of the following options is the most consistently effective against all stages of this parasite? A - Amprolium B - Thiabendazole C - Levamisole D - Ivermectin E - Morantel - Correct Answer-D - Ivermectin At what age do a cow's permanent 4th incisors begin to erupt in the mandible? A - 7-8 years B - 2 to 2.5 years C - 3 years D - 3.5 to 4 years E - 5-6 years - Correct Answer-D - 3.5 to 4 years A flock from a turkey farm is presented with a mysterious illness. Several dead birds are notable, mostly younger animals. Sick turkeys are listless, with drooping wings, unkempt feathers, yellow droppings. Sick older birds are emaciated. Necropsy shows a yellowish green, caseous exudate in the ceca, cecal ulcerations and thickening of the cecal wall. What is the diagnosis? A - Necrotic enteritis B - Histomoniasis C - Avian spirochetosis D - Coronaviral enteritis of turkeys E - Hemorrhagic enteritis of turkeys - Correct Answer-B - Histomoniasis Acromegaly is associated with what three diseases in cats? A - Hypoadrenocorticism, Congestive heart failure, Hepatic lipidosis B - Hyperadrenocorticism, Pleural effusion, Lameness

C - Diabetes mellitus, Cardiomyopathy, Renal disease D - Prognathism, Pulmonary edema, Pulmonary Hypertension E - Vertebral spondylosis, 3rd degree heart block, Glomerulonephritis - Correct Answer- C - Diabetes mellitus, Cardiomyopathy, Renal disease Under what conditions is a very sensitive test used? A - Rare disease, Early diagnosis improves prognosis B - Lethal disease, Highly prevalent disease C - Treatment does not affect prognosis, Non-infectious diseases D - Common disease, infectious diseases E - Zoonoses, untreatable diseases - Correct Answer-A - Rare disease, Early diagnosis improves prognosis For the last ten years, your state has had a mandatory vaccination program against "pedunculated giblet disease" in fur-bearing turtles and the prevalence of this terrible disease has decreased markedly. How does this decrease in prevalence affect the predictive value positive (PVP) of the best serologic test for pedunculated giblet disease? A - PVP depends on the number tested, not prevalence B - PVP is affected by specificity, not prevalence C - PVP increases as prevalence decreases D - PVP decreases as prevalence decreases E - PVP stays the same as prevalence decreases - Correct Answer-D - PVP decreases as prevalence decreases A large male guinea pig from a group of four is presented with swollen and scabby hind feet from which Staphylococcus aureus is cultured. Which one of the following recommendations is the most appropriate choice? A - Isolate affected animal, treat with oral amoxicillin B - Improve sanitation, install smooth-floored enclosure C - Cull affected animal, increase ventilation of environment for remaining animals D - Tetracycline-medicated water for all animals E - Debridement and topical 1% butenafine cream - Correct Answer-B - Improve sanitation, install smooth-floored enclosure A cow is presented on emergency with urea/non-protein nitrogen toxicity. What is the treatment of choice? A - Rumenotomy B - Relieve bloat, drench with 2-8 liters sodium bicarbonate C - IV Fluids with MgSO4, Na thiosulfate PO D - Rumenal infusion 2-8 liters vinegar, 3-10 gallons cold water E - Atropine, Protopam chloride IV q 4-6 hours - Correct Answer-D - Rumenal infusion 2-8 liters vinegar, 3-10 gallons cold water

Which organism determines the minimum temperature needed to pasteurize milk in the United States? A - Mycobacterium bovis B - Listeria monocytogenes C - Brucella abortus D - Escherichia coli E - Coxiella burnetii - Correct Answer-E - Coxiella burnetii Failure to control mild endemic respiratory disease in swine caused by Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae predisposes pigs to complications. Which other organism works in conjunction with Mycoplasma hyopneumonia to cause exudative bronchopneumonia and polyarthritis? A - Bordetella bronchiseptica B - Fusobacterium necrophorum C - Hemophilus parasuis D - Pasteurella multocida E - Swine influenza virus - Correct Answer-D - Pasteurella multocida Retained placenta and metritis can predispose to which one of the following secondary conditions in horses? A - Laminitis B - Postpartum dysgalactia syndrome C - Contagious equine metritis D - Cystic endometriosis E - Colic - Correct Answer-A - Laminitis A 12-year-old spayed female black Scottish terrier is presented with a three week history of limping on the right forelimb. The second digit of the paw is enlarged, ulcerated, and bleeding with a loose toenail. A lytic bone lesion of the 3rd phalanx is visible on radiographs, and cytology of a fine needle aspirate of the mass suggests neoplasia. If biopsy of the mass confirms malignant subungual melanoma, which one of the following choices contain the best advice to the owner? A - Long-term prognosis is excellent if the tumor is completely resected. B - Metastasis is common. Radical excision, plus adjuvant therapies is typically recommended. C - Due to the exquisite sensitivity of melanoma to radiotherapy, it is preferred as a sole treatment. D - DNA-based vaccine encoding canine tyrosinase is effective against oral tumors but not licensed for subungual melanoma. E - Nail bed melanomas in dogs are almost always beni - Correct Answer-B - Metastasis is common. Radical excision, plus adjuvant therapies is typically recommended.

During the necropsy of an eight-year-old mixed breed dog from the Southern United States, reactive granulomas in the esophagus containing bright red worms, 40 mm to 70 mm long are found. Which choice is the most likely diagnosis? A - Ollulanus tricuspis B - Haemonchus placei C - Spirocerca lupi D - Gastrophilus spp. E - Physaloptera spp. - Correct Answer-C - Spirocerca lupi A five-year old lactating Holstein dairy cow is being evaluated for a two-month history of watery diarrhea, weight loss, and decline in milk production. On examination, the cow is bright, alert and responsive, but unthrifty and very thin, with a soft intermandibular swelling. What is the most appropriate management of this herd? A - Cull positives, ensure 4 L. colostrum uptake for calves B - Quarantine herd, treat until herd tests negative C - Test herd, treat positive animals, add coccidiostat to ration D - Test herd, cull positives, remove calves from dam at birth E - Test herd, treat positive animals, test and treat replacements - Correct Answer-D - Test herd, cull positives, remove calves from dam at birth A female show dog is approaching estrus and the owner has consulted you about planning a breeding for this dog. She is aware of the signs of proestrus and plans to contact you when those are apparent in her dog. In addition to vaginal cytology, which one of the following will be the most useful to you in planning the timing of breeding? A - Vaginoscopy B - Determination of serum estrogen levels C - Timed administration of luteinizing hormone D - Serial progesterone testing E - Ovarian ultrasonography - Correct Answer-D - Serial progesterone testing A 12-year-old neutered male black labrador retriever is presented with a three week history of limping on the right fore. The lateral digit is swollen and the nail is deviated ventrally, with ulceration of the nail bed. A lytic bone lesion of the 2nd phalanx is visible on a radiograph and cytology of the mass suggests neoplasia. Chest radiographs are clear. Following amputation of the digit, histopathology indicates that the mass is a squamous cell carcinoma. Which of the following is the best advice for the owner? A - 95% chance he will survive 1 year B - Chemotherapy is indicated C - Radiotherapy is indicated D - Guarded prognosis

E - 50% chance he will survive 1 year - Correct Answer-A - 95% chance he will survive 1 year What is the most common clinical sign exhibited by a horse with cystic calculi (bladder stones)? A - Straining to defecate B - Colic C - Hematuria after exercise D - Uremic breath and urethral ulcers E - Inappetance - Correct Answer-C - Hematuria after exercise A cat with a previous diagnosis of diabetes mellitus confirmed by persistent fasting hyperglycemia and persistent glycosuria is presented for a routine check-up. The owner relates that she ran out of injectable insulin two months ago, but the cat seemed to do fine without it, so she stopped giving insulin shots. On physical exam, the cat appears healthy and a dipstick test shows a blood glucose level of 125 mg/dL (6.9 mmol/l) [normal 61-132 mg/dL (3.5-7.3 mmol/l)]. What is the most likely explanation? A - Type I diabetes mellitus B - Concurrent diabetes insipidus C - Incorrect initial diagnosis D - Diabetic remission E - Insulin resistance - Correct Answer-D - Diabetic remission A seven-year-old dog weighing 24 lbs (10.9 kg) is presented after the owner caught the dog eating warfarin-containing rat poison the day before. The dog has no overt clinical signs at presentation. Baseline coagulation parameters are normal [Prothrombin time (PT), Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) and Proteins induced by vitamin K absence or antagonism (PIVKA)]. The dog is confined to limit exercise and monitored. At 72 hours PT and PIVKA tests are elevated. Which one of the following choices is the most appropriate treatment step? A - Oral vitamin K B - Plasma transfusion C - Blood transfusion D - Subconjunctival apomorphine E - Activated charcoal - Correct Answer-A - Oral vitamin K In which equine virus is antigenic drift the most important in the development of novel strains? A - Adenovirus B - Herpesvirus- C - Herpesvirus-

D - Influenza virus E - Papillomavirus - Correct Answer-D - Influenza virus Prior to the 1950s, heat pasteurization of milk was done principally to prevent transmission of one organism to people. Today, that organism is re-emerging in bi- national communities with ties to Mexico who consume unpasteurized milk products. What is the organism? A - Mycobacterium bovis B - Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli O157:H C - Mycobacterium avium subspecies paratuberculosis D - Mycobacterium tuberculosis E - Mycobacterium avium - Correct Answer-A - Mycobacterium bovis It is noticed on a flow chart that a doctor had entered "ongoing losses WNL" under the comments section. What are "ongoing losses" in fluid therapy? A - Urine output B - Fluids given minus extracellular volume estimate C - Fluid lost during panting D - Vomiting and diarrhea E - Percent dehydration multiplied by body weight - Correct Answer-D - Vomiting and diarrhea A four-year-old male, neutered cat is presented with a history of severe lethargy and inappetance. The cats mucous membranes are extremely pale and his PCV at presentation is 9%. [Normal=30-45%] A blood transfusion is indicated. Which one of the following choices best explains the rationale for blood typing prior to transfusion in cats? A - Cats have naturally-occurring antibodies against the blood group antigen they lack. B - Blood typing is not necessary. Cats are universal receivers and can receive any blood type. C - Cats that are negative for DEA 1.1 are more likely to have a reaction to DEA 1. positive blood. D - If donor is Type A, it is a universal donor and recipient typing is not needed. E - Blood typing will determine if recipient cat is Rh factor negative or Rh positive. - Correct Answer-A - Cats have naturally-occurring antibodies against the blood group antigen they lack. A mare is presented with a history of intermittent lameness in the right fore involving a shortened stride and occasional stumbling. She relieves pain by pointing the affected foot with the heel off the ground. A flexion test of the distal right forelimb exacerbates the lameness temporarily. Which one of the following choices is the most likely diagnosis?

A - Laminitis B - Caudal heel pain C - Villonodular synovitis D - Pedal osteitis E - Sidebone - Correct Answer-B - Caudal heel pain A commercial turkey operation experiences an outbreak of disease in 40% of its 12- week old birds. Typically affected birds show only depression, then death. Some animals appear weak, recumbent with one leg forward and one leg back. On necropsy, diffuse or nodular lymphoid tumors are visible in various organs, particularly the liver, and spleen. Two affected birds have distorted pupils. What is the diagnosis? A - Viral hepatitis of turkeys B - Newcastle disease C - Marek's disease D - Infectious bursal disease E - Histomoniasis - Correct Answer-C - Marek's disease Which one of the following organisms transmits the causative agent of blackhead disease in turkeys? A - Heterakis gallinarum B - Ascardia galli C - Capillaria spp D - Eimeria spp E - Raillietina spp - Correct Answer-A - Heterakis gallinarum Which one of the following hormones can induce neoplastic transformation of hypertrophied mammary tissue in cats? A - Oxytocin B - Progesterone C - Estrogen D - Testosterone E - Prolactin - Correct Answer-B - Progesterone Syndactyly is most commonly found in which of the following cattle breeds? A - Brown Swiss B - Angus C - Hereford D - Holstein-Friesian E - Simmental - Correct Answer-D - Holstein-Friesian Which one of the following would be the best way to prevent a vibriosis abortion storm in ewes? A - Vaccination program

B - Separate lambs from ewes and bottle-feed colostrum-replacer C - Cull affected ewes D - Twice yearly ivermectin E - Chloramphenicol in the water - Correct Answer-A - Vaccination program Oxalate is the toxic agent found in which one of the following plants? A - Hypericum perforatum (klamathweed) B - Delphinium spp. (larkspur) C - Sarcobatus vermiculatus (greasewood) D - Hordeum spp. (foxtail) E - Solanum spp. (nightshade) - Correct Answer-C - Sarcobatus vermiculatus (greasewood) Several piglets in a group weaned ten days ago in the nursery facility of a large commercial swine operation were found dead. On evaluation, some weaners have swelling around the eyes and forehead. Some are in lateral recumbency and dyspneic. Necropsy of the dead piglets reveals subcutaneous and submucosal edema. What is the most likely causative organism? A - Brachyspira hyodysenteriae B - Escherichia coli C - Lawsonia intracellularis D - Clostridium septicum E - Streptococcus suis - Correct Answer-B - Escherichia coli Acquired equine motor neuron disease is a disease characterized by weight loss, paresis with trembling, preference for lying down, and decreased activity. Which one of the following choices is associated with this disease? A - Thiamine deficiency B - Vitamin E deficiency C - Lead toxicosis D - Organophosphate toxicosis E - Rickettsial infection - Correct Answer-B - Vitamin E deficiency A 15-year-old cat is presented with a three week progression of wandering in circles to the left, standing in corners, and dull mentation. Conscious proprioceptive deficits (knuckling) can be elicited in the right thoracic and right pelvic limbs. There is a decreased menace response on the right, but palpebral and pupillary light reflexes are normal in both eyes. The rest of the examination is normal. A brain tumor is suspected. Where is the most likely location of the lesion? A - Right brainstem B - Right cerebrum C - Left brainstem

D - Left cerebrum E - Cerebellum - Correct Answer-D - Left cerebrum A positive serology for Sarcocystis neurona antibodies in the serum of a horse indicates which one of the following? A - Favorable response to treatment for equine protozoal myeloencephalitis B - Definitive diagnosis of equine protozoal myeloencephalitis C - Poor response to treatment for equine protozoal myeloencephalitis D - Exposure to Sarcocystis neurona E - The horse has been in Africa - Correct Answer-D - Exposure to Sarcocystis neurona A group of feeder pigs is presented for strange behavior. The pig farmer complains they are hyperexcitable yet are not squealing. A few are lethargic, wandering aimlessly, and seem to be blind. Bloodwork shows a marked increase in sodium concentration. Upon inspection of the pen, it turns out that the waterer had been inadvertently turned off. Which one of the following treatments is indicated? A - Frequent small amounts of water B - Ad lib H2O access C - Mannitol D - Furosemide E - Hypertonic saline solution IV, rapid bolus - Correct Answer-A - Frequent small amounts of water Which one of the following diseases have been linked with the variant form of Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (vCJD) in humans? A - Bovine spongiform encephalopathy B - Q fever C - Sporadic bovine encephalomyelitis D - Equine West Nile virus encephalitis E - Eastern equine encephalomyelitis (EEE) - Correct Answer-A - Bovine spongiform encephalopathy An outbreak of diarrheal disease of piglets has occurred which affected the healthiest animals in the herd, one to two weeks after weaning. Some affected piglets had no signs except peracute death. Other affected piglets exhibit diarrhea, ataxia, paralysis, and recumbency. What condition is at the top of the differential diagnosis list? A - Edema disease B - Epidemic transmissible gastroenteritis (TGE) C - Hemagglutinating encephalomyelitis virus (HEV) D - Clostridium perfringens type C enteritis E - Porcine proliferative enteritis - Correct Answer-A - Edema disease

Which one of the following choices includes the cardinal sign of trigeminal neuritis? A - Dysphagia, dysphonia and stridor B - Circling and head tilt toward side of lesion, no other signs C - Masseter muscle pain associated with chewing D - Paralyzed eyelid, ear or lip on one or both sides of the face E - Inability to close the mouth - Correct Answer-E - Inability to close the mouth Which of the following is the correct location for placement of a proximal paravertebral block used to perform a standing laparotomy in a cow? A - In the spaces between L1, L2, L3, and L B - Above and below the transverse processes of L1, L2 and L C - Caudal to the transverse processes of T13, L1, and L D - Midway between spine and the ends of the transverse processes of L1, L2, L E - At the ends of the transverse processes of L1, L2, and L4 - Correct Answer-C - Caudal to the transverse processes of T13, L1, and L What condition is associated with rectal stricture in pigs? A - Coccidiosis B - Salmonella typhimurium C - Intestinal spirochetosis D - Intussusception E - Rotavirus - Correct Answer-B - Salmonella typhimurium Which nerve block would most specifically relieve lameness resulting from fracture of the navicular bone? A - Median and ulnar B - Tibial and peroneal C - Abaxial sesamoidean D - Low four-point E - Palmar digital - Correct Answer-E - Palmar digital A practice is using an FeLV test with a sensitivity of 90% and a specificity of 95%. Assuming the prevalence of feline leukemia in the area is 5%, what is the predictive value negative (PVN) of the test? A - 75% B - 45% C - 88% D - 99% E - 55% - Correct Answer-D - 99%

A four-year-old Rat Terrier is presented with a three day history of progressive stumbling and falling. Physical exam reveals a right head tilt, left sided hypermetria, generalized ataxia and vertical nystagmus. Which one of the following choices is at the top of the differential list? A - Central pontine myelinolysis B - Fibrocartilagenous embolism C - Amyotrophic lateralizing sclerosis D - Granulomatous meningoencephalitis E - Ascending and descending myelomalacia - Correct Answer-D - Granulomatous meningoencephalitis A seven-year old male German shepherd is presented with a history of weakness in the hind limbs, urinary incontinence and recent obsessive chewing around his tail area. Dorsiflexion of the tail over the back and extension of the hind limbs elicits a painful response. He does not withdraw each hind leg when a toe is pinched, but bears weight on the hindlimbs. Patellar reflexes are normal. What is the clinical diagnosis? A - Radiculoneuritis B - Hip dysplasia C - Wobbler syndrome D - Diskospondylitis E - Cauda equina syndrome - Correct Answer-E - Cauda equina syndrome An adopted adult male cat from a shelter with an unknown vaccination history is presented. The cat tests positive for feline leukemia virus (FeLV) infection by IFA. What should the owner be told? A - Need a Western blot test to confirm diagnosis B - Need an ELISA test in 12 weeks to confirm diagnosis C - Possible transient FeLV infection D - Cat may be vaccinated for FeLV E - Strong chance of lifelong FeLV infection - Correct Answer-E - Strong chance of lifelong FeLV infection A four-year-old Quarter horse gelding is presented with a three-day history of poor appetite, and stiffness in the hind limbs. Equine infectious anemia (EIA) is on the differential diagnostic list. What other diagnosis should be considered for a horse with edema, icterus, and fever? A - Equine viral arteritis (EVA) B - Purpura hemorrhagica C - Equine influenza D - Equine viral rhinopneumonitis (equine herpes-1) E - African horse sickness - Correct Answer-A - Equine viral arteritis (EVA)

Which one of the following choices is the mechanism of action of omeprazole? A - Cyclooxygenase blocker B - Beta-adrenergic receptor agonist C - H2-receptor antagonist D - Synthetic prostaglandin E1 analog E - Proton pump inhibitor - Correct Answer-E - Proton pump inhibitor A pig farm reports a problem in weaning-age piglets. The affected piglets are depressed and anorexic with slight fevers. A few of the more severely-affected piglets have an exudative epidermitis affecting the face, limbs, and ventral abdomen. What should be recommended? A - Vaccinate herd with modified live vaccine B - Report to state vet C - Cull affected animals D - High-dose antibiotics for sick piglets E - Topical coumaphos/disinfectant combination dip - Correct Answer-D - High-dose antibiotics for sick piglets Two bucket-fed veal calves are depressed and stunted and have sticky feces coating their hindquarters. Fluid-splashing sounds are audible during auscultation over the left flank when a calf is drinking. Passage of a stomach tube obtains a rancid-smelling liquid with a pH of 5.2 [N=5.9-6.2]. Which one of the following choices is the most appropriate diagnosis? A - Pica B - Vitamin E/Selenium deficiency C - Colibacillosis D - Ruminal drinker E - Enterotoxemia - Correct Answer-D - Ruminal drinker Fractures of the proximal sesamoid bones in horses are often associated with damage to which structure? A - Superficial digital flexor tendon B - Superior check ligament C - Deep digital flexor tendon D - Impar ligament E - Suspensory ligament - Correct Answer-E - Suspensory ligament A rabbit is presented with inflamed and chapped membranes of the anus and genital region. The genital area is scalded and raw, with brownish crusts and purulent exudate. What two conditions top the differential diagnosis list? A - Tularemia, cystitis

B - Myxomatosis, moist dermatitis C - Treponematosis, hutch burn D - Pasteurellosis, ulcerative pododermatitis E - Glomerulonephritis, coccidiosis - Correct Answer-C - Treponematosis, hutch burn Several younger sheep in a large herd have died suddenly with a diagnosis of infectious necrotic hepatitis secondary to fluke infestation. Which choice is the most practical and effective control measure you can take next to prevent future cases? A - Treat ponds with copper sulfate molluscicide against lymnaeid snails B - Clorsulon antihelmintic for whole herd C - Clostridium hemolyticum bacterin for animals under 3 years D - Vaccinate all animals with Clostridium novyi toxoid E - High-dose penicillin for clinical cases - Correct Answer-D - Vaccinate all animals with Clostridium novyi toxoid A middle-aged, depressed, coughing, exercise-intolerant Doberman pinscher is presented. The dog has a rapid and irregular heart rate. What disease is at the top of the differential diagnosis list? A - Mitral regurgitation B - Tricuspid insufficiency C - Chronic bronchitis D - Wolf Parkinson White syndrome E - Dilated cardiomyopathy - Correct Answer-E - Dilated cardiomyopathy A three-year-old white rat is presented with yellowing fur and a brownish, granular sebaceous secretion at the base of affected hair shafts. What should the owner be told? A - Probable ringworm, resolves spontaneously with sunlight exposure B - Moisture-related dermatitis, cage needs more frequent cleaning C - Staph dermatitis, responsive to antiseptic shampoo D - Common manifestation of chorioptic mange E - Normal age-related change - Correct Answer-E - Normal age-related change Damage to the left recurrent laryngeal nerve is associated with "roaring" in horses. The left recurrent laryngeal nerve is a branch off of which cranial nerve? A - Glossopharyngeal (CN 9) B - Hypoglossal (CN 12) C - Trigeminal (CN 5) D - Facial (CN 7) E - Vagus (CN 10) - Correct Answer-E - Vagus (CN 10) What recommendation should be given to the owner of a mare that has had Caslick's vulvoplasty surgery?

A - Mare should not be bred by a stallion B - Mare should not be bred C - Mare will need an episiotomy before foaling D - Mare has a decreased risk for perineal laceration E - Mare has a higher than normal risk for metritis - Correct Answer-C - Mare will need an episiotomy before foaling