Navy Regulations and Policies, Exams of Military Strategy and Training

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Which type of agents produce their effects by interfering with oxygen utilization at the cellular level? - Correct Answer Blood What is the usual route of entry for blood agents? - Correct Answer Inhalation Which type of warfare intentionally uses viruses, bacteria, microorganisms, or toxins that are derived from living organisms to cause death or disease in humans, animals, or plants? - Correct Answer Biological Which type of biological warfare agents produce severe disease but not death? - Correct Answer Incapacitating What are the areas of the body that biological warfare agents enter through called? - Correct Answer Portals of Entry Which MOPP level will be immediately donned when entering an area that is known to be or suspected of being contaminated with an NBC agent? - Correct Answer 4 How many days is the incubation period for smallpox? - Correct Answer 7

• 17 What is the process of creating records for accountability and / or maintenance purpose? - Correct Answer Equipment gain Who is the only individual authorized by the commanding officer to transfer personal property? - Correct Answer Equipment manager Which program provides for the preparation, casketing, and inspection of remains? - Correct Answer Current death program Which program encompasses casualty reporting, casualty notification, and administration of the program that provides for travel of Navy family

members to burial sites? - Correct Answer Casualty Assistance Calls Program (CACP) Who is the only authorized individual to interact with the primary next of kin on transportation matters? - Correct Answer Casualty Assistance Calls Officer (CACO) Who has overall responsibility for the safety and occupational health SOH program? - Correct Answer Secretary of the Navy Who is responsible for implementation and management of the safety and occupational health SOH program? - Correct Answer Chief of Naval operations CNO How often at a minimum must commanding officers ensure that an INSURV safety and occupational inspection or Naval Safety Center afloat safety survey is conducted? - Correct Answer Every 3 years Who is responsible for managing the safety and occupational health Soh program? - Correct Answer Safety officer Personnel must monitor compartments every 4 hours for manned spaces at or below which dry bulb temperatures? - Correct Answer 85 degrees Fahrenheit What is the maximum amount of water that personnel should drink while working in a heat stress environment per hour? - Correct Answer 1.5 L How many hours of continuous sleep per 24 hours is recommended for personnel working in heat stress environment? - Correct Answer 6 What is the eyewear prescription form number? - Correct Answer DD 771 What are formal written guidance that informs and instructs Navy personnel by communicating policy and procedures used in the performance of their duties? - Correct Answer Directives How many different ways can a directive be issued depending on the purpose and use? - Correct Answer 3

Which type of directives are issued and applicable only to addressees these within the issuing authority's organization? - Correct Answer Internal Which form should be use to cancel a form? - Correct Answer DD 67 Notices are normally issued for policy, forms, or information collection requirements of a short-term nature typically less than how many years? - Correct Answer 1 Which type of documents should not be issued via a directive? - Correct Answer Top secret How often at a minimum must all Navy instructions be reviewed? - Correct Answer Annually Which instruction establishes policy and procedures to ensure timely and accurate completion of deployment Health assessments? - Correct Answer OPNAVINST 6100.3A How many components do deployment Health assessments consist of? - Correct Answer 3 The DD 2795 shall be administered at home station or at a Navy mobilization processing site (NMPS) no earlier than how many days prior to the expected deployment date? - Correct Answer 120 The DD 2796 shall be completed no earlier than how many days prior to the expected redeployment date? - Correct Answer 30 The DD 2900 shall be administered and completed 90 to how many days after we deployment? - Correct Answer 180 What should be used to identify service members who require deployment Health assessments? - Correct Answer Medical Readiness reporting system (mrrs) How many days from the expected deployment date must servicemembers complete a DD 2795? - Correct Answer 120

How many days before or after redeployment must service members complete a DD 2796? - Correct Answer 30 What instruction establishes policy and procedures to ensure the Individual Medical Readiness (IMR) of Navy and Marine Corps Active Component (AC) and Reserve Component (RC) is complete? - Correct Answer SECNAVINST 6120. What is the form number of the adult preventive and chronic care flow sheet? - Correct Answer DD 2766 What is the form number of the active duty/Reserve forces dental examination? - Correct Answer DD 2813 What is the form number of the pre-deployment health assessment? - Correct Answer DD 2795 What is the form number of the post-deployment health assessment? - Correct Answer DD 2796 What is the form number of the post-deployment health reassessment? - Correct Answer DD 2900 What is the form number of the periodic Health assessment? - Correct Answer NAVMED 6120/ Service members must be referred to optometry if during the PHA visit their distance or nearby nocular visual acuity is worse than what? - Correct Answer 20 / 40 Service members less than how many years of age do not require near vision testing unless they report difficulties with near vision? - Correct Answer 45 What Dental class does a service member have to be in to be considered worldwide Deployable? - Correct Answer 1 or 2 What Dental class does a service member have to be in to be considered at increased risk to experience a dental emergency and is normally not regarded to be worldwide Deployable? - Correct Answer 3 or 4

How many consecutive days at a minimum must National Guard and Reserve members be called or ordered to active service to be eligible to participate in the active-duty Tricare program? - Correct Answer 30 How many miles must personnel be within an available Primary Care manager PCM to enroll in Tricare Prime? - Correct Answer 100 What is the form number for the Tricare Prime enrollment, disenrollment, and Primary Care manager PCM change form? - Correct Answer DD 2876 What act requires you to have health care coverage that meet the mininum standard called minimum essential coverage? - Correct Answer Affordable Care Act (ACA) How many days of transitional Health Care benefits to help certain service members and their families transition to civilian life is provided by Transitional Assistance management Program (TAMP)? - Correct Answer 180 How many days worth of most medications at no cost can Personnel receive from military pharmacies? - Correct Answer 90 What publication defines the path of advancement? - Correct Answer NAVPERS 18068F What paygrades (one paygrade only) do COs / OICs have the authority to reinstate members to anytime after reduction in rate, without referral to higher authority? - Correct Answer E2 or E Who is responsible for worksheet preparation for each candidate participating in the Navy wide advancement cycle (E4 through E7) including LDO program candidates? Educational Service Office (ESO) - Correct Answer How many award points is a Navy and Marine Corps medal worth when calculating FMS for E4 to E6 advancement exam candidates? - Correct Answer 3

How many award points is a Navy and Marine Corps achievement medal worth when calculating FMS for E4 to E6 advancement exam candidates? - Correct Answer 2 What is an early promote evaluation recommendation worth? - Correct Answer 4. What is a must promote evaluation recommendation worth? - Correct Answer 3. What is a promotable evaluation recommendation worth? - Correct Answer 3. What is a progressing evaluation recommendation worth? - Correct Answer 3. What is a significant problems evaluation recommendation worth? - Correct Answer 2. Which examinations will be used for candidates who did not take the examination on the regularly scheduled day? - Correct Answer Substitute A maximum of how many PNA points for any one advancement cycle may be received by a candidate? - Correct Answer 3 How many PNA points towards future exams will advancement exam candidates be credited with when they score in the top 25th percentile but do not advance? - Correct Answer 1. What form will the CNO (N135C) prepare upon receipt of a posthumous advancement authorization to indicate a posthumous advancement? - Correct Answer DD 1300 What performance trait grade represents performance to full Navy standards? - Correct Answer 3. A CPO or Senior Chief Petty Officers (SCPO) may sign reports on personnel what pay grade and below only? - Correct Answer E

What type of counseling must be provided at the midpoint of the periodic report cycle as well as when reports are signed? - Correct Answer Performance Who was responsible for the FITREP, CHIEFEVAL and EVAL programs? - Correct Answer Chief of Naval Personnel What performance trait grade is reserved for performance that is far above standards as well as being notable for its exemplary or leadership quality? - Correct Answer 5. Adverse or downgraded FITREPs, CHIEFEVALs and EVALs may not be directed as punishment or used as an alternative to the proper disposition of misconduct under the what? - Correct Answer Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) Which performance report block contains the members name? - Correct Answer 1 Which performance report block contains the members grades / rate? - Correct Answer 2 Which performance report block contains the members designator? - Correct Answer 3 How many enlisted warfare /qualification designators can be entered in Block 3 when preparing a performance report? - Correct Answer 2 Which performance report block contains the members social security number? - Correct Answer 4 Which performance report block contains the members Duty /competitive status? - Correct Answer 5 Which performance report block contains the members UIC? - Correct Answer 6 Block 6 of the performance report should match the primary UIC of the reporting senior in what block? - Correct Answer 26

What should be entered for activities to which no UIC is assigned when preparing the performance report? - Correct Answer 00000 Which performance report block contains the members ship /station? - Correct Answer 7 Which performance report block contains the members promotion status? - Correct Answer 8 Which performance report block contains the date that the member reported? - Correct Answer 9 Which performance report blocks contain the occasion for report? - Correct Answer 10 through 13 Which performance report blocks contain the period of report? - Correct Answer 14 through 15 Which performance report block contains the space used to put not observed report if it is applicable? - Correct Answer 16 Which performance report blocks contain the type of report? - Correct Answer 17 through 19 Which performance report block contains the members physical readiness status? - Correct Answer 20 Which performance report block contains the members Billet subcategory, if any? - Correct Answer 21 Which performance report block names the reporting senior? - Correct Answer 22 Which performance report block contains the reporting seniors grade? - Correct Answer 23 Which performance report block contains the reporting seniors four digit officer designator? - Correct Answer 24

Which performance report block contains this reporting seniors title? - Correct Answer 25 Which performance report block contains the reporting seniors UIC? - Correct Answer 26 Which performance report block contains the reporting seniors social security number? - Correct Answer 27 Which performance report block contains command employment and command achievements? - Correct Answer 28 Which performance report block contains the members primary/ collateral/ watchstanding duties? - Correct Answer 29 Which performance report block contains the date the new member was counseled? - Correct Answer 30 Which performance report block contains the name of the members counselor? - Correct Answer 31 Which performance report block contains the signature of the individual counseled? - Correct Answer 32 Which performance report blocks contain the members performance traits?

• Correct Answer 33 through 39 Which performance report block contains the individual trait average? - Correct Answer 40 Which EVAL performance report block contains the career recommendations for the member being counselled? - Correct Answer 41 Which performance report block contains the signature of the raitor? - Correct Answer 42 Which EVAL performance report block contains comments on performance? - Correct Answer 43

Which performance report block contains the members qualifications and achievements? - Correct Answer 44 Which EVAL performance report block contains the individuals promotion recommendation? - Correct Answer 45 What grade may not be given in any performance trait if a must promote or early promote recommendation is to be given? - Correct Answer 2. Receiving what grade on any performance trait will terminate Good Conduct Medal eligibility for at least 3 years following the end date of the report? - Correct Answer 1. Which EVAL performance report block contains the summary? - Correct Answer 46 Which performance report block contains the retention recommendation? - Correct Answer 47 Which EVAL performance report block contains the reporting seniors address? - Correct Answer 48 Which performance report block contains the signature of the senior rater?

• Correct Answer 49 Which EVAL performance report block contains the reporting seniors signature? - Correct Answer 50 Which eval performance report block contains the signature of the individual being evaluated? - Correct Answer 51 The reporting senior shall hand write in the signature block of the member "certified, copy provided" if the report is not adverse and if the member is not expected to return to or visit the command within 15 days (active duty) or how many days inactive duty? - Correct Answer 30 Which EVAL performance report block contains the regular reporting senior signature on concurrent reports? - Correct Answer 52

Personnel at or below what paygrade may have their reports signed by an enlisted OIC in the grade of E9 or civilians in command positions who hold the grade of GS-9 through GS-12? - Correct Answer E Personnel at or below what pay grade may have the report signed by a CPO or SCPOs? - Correct Answer E EVALs for enlisted personnel at or below what pay grade require the signatures of a rater, senior rater, and reporting senior? - Correct Answer E Reports on members in the grade of E4 and below may not be delegated below what military grade? - Correct Answer E What grade should the rater be for E5 and E6 personnel whenever possible? - Correct Answer E What is the only type of report that provides continuity? - Correct Answer Regular An NOB report is identified by an "X" in what block of the performance report? - Correct Answer 16 What type of reports are used to fulfill reporting requirements when graded reports are inappropriate? - Correct Answer NOB In some cases, it may sometimes be appropriate to evaluate a limited number of traits (no more than how many traits) without making a promotion recommendation. In these cases, submit an observed report (leaving block 16 blank)? - Correct Answer 3 Briefly give the reason for submitting a NOB report and provide necessary administrative information in block 43 for all reports, other than reports for annual training that are greater than 10 days and less than how many days? - Correct Answer 90 FITREPs, CHIEFEVALs, along with what else are the preferred reports for significant, observed performance? - Correct Answer EVAL

In place of a Regular FITREP, CHIEFEVAL or EVAL report a Performance Information Memorandum may be prepared for Duty, DUINS, TEMDU, or TEMDUINS for a period of how many months or less? - Correct Answer 3 How may a Performance Information Memorandum that only contains administrative or academic information be signed? - Correct Answer "By Direction" What type of style is preferred when filling out the comments block on performance reports? - Correct Answer Bullet What should be limited to ensure performance reports are understandable by all current and future readers? - Correct Answer Acronyms How many or more declined trait grades by the same reporting senior define a decline in performance? - Correct Answer 2 What EVAL block are items marked with asterisk reported in? - Correct Answer 44 Court-martials are concluded after what approves the findings and sentence? - Correct Answer Convening Authority How many days do members normally have to appeal NJP punishment? - Correct Answer 5 A female member shall not be given a less favorable reports only because of what? - Correct Answer Pregnancy What may be typed in place of a signature if no one is available to serve as the rater or senior rater? - Correct Answer None available When only one person is available, that person should sign as the rater rather than senior rater. The same person may not sign more than how many blocks? - Correct Answer 2 What should be completed if an enlisted member refuses to sign a performance report? - Correct Answer NAVPERS 1070/

What is the only way, other than the addition of supplementary material, that a FITREP, CHIEFEVAL, or EVAL may be modified once it has been filed in the official military personnel/ field service record? - Correct Answer Administrative change Which mark is not a recommendation either for or against advancement? - Correct Answer Progressing What is a recommendation against advancement that withdraws any previous advancement recommendation in the current grade? - Correct Answer Significant problems What is the PMA awarded for an early promote promotion recommendation? - Correct Answer 4. What is the PMA awarded for a must promote promotion recommendation?

• Correct Answer 3. What is the PMA awarded for a promotable promotion recommendation? - Correct Answer 3. What is the PMA awarded for progressing promotion recommendation? - Correct Answer 3. What is the PMA awarded for a significant problems recommendation? - Correct Answer 2. What block of the EVALs being used in the advancement cycle will personnel locate the PMA? - Correct Answer 45 Who are responsible for ensuring the continuity of the members FITREP, CHIEFEVAL, or EVAL records? - Correct Answer Service member What box should members mark who desire to make a statement for submission with an EVAL performance Report? - Correct Answer 51 Which U.S. Navy Regulations article provides the authority to request Captain's Mast to raise questions concerning FITREPs, CHIEFEVALs, and EVALs with the CO? - Correct Answer 1151

Which instruction contains preparation guidance for Privacy Act Amendment requests? - Correct Answer SECNAVINST 5211.5D What shall be performed at the midpoint of each evaluation cycle, and when the FITREP, CHIEFEVAL or EVAL is signed? - Correct Answer Counseling Block 1 along with what other blocks must be filled out on counseling worksheets? - Correct Answer 29 through 32 What pay grade should the rater normally be for E1 to E4 personnel? - Correct Answer E For personnel in what paygrades will the counselor normally be the reporting senior or the immediate supervisor who will draft the FITREP or CHIEFEVAL? - Correct Answer E7 to O Vessels may not discharge pulped trash within how many nautical miles of the U.S. coastline? - Correct Answer 12 How many fathoms under the sea must submarines be before compacted trash can be discharged? - Correct Answer 1000 How many nautical miles away from any foreign Coastline must vessels be before discharging a new trash? - Correct Answer 25 What type of fuel do most of the Navy's ships and all of its aircraft to use? - Correct Answer Petroleum Who set up the Navy Sponsor Program to ease the relocation of Naval personnel and their families when transferred on permanent change-of- station (PCS) orders? - Correct Answer CNO Which form can personnel use to request a sponsor? - Correct Answer NAVPERS 1330/ Servicewomen may not be assigned overseas or travel overseas after the beginning of what week of pregnancy? - Correct Answer 28th

How many days of convalescent leave do commanding officers normally grant after the servicewoman has delivered the baby? - Correct Answer 42 Service members in a single or dual military status with children or dependents under what age are required to have a formalized family care plan? - Correct Answer 19 What is intentional misleading or deceitful conduct called that deprives the government of its resources or rights? - Correct Answer Fraud What is extravagant, careless, or needless expenditure of government resources defined as? - Correct Answer Waste What is the intentional wrongful or improper use of government resources referred to as? - Correct Answer Abuse What Naval office inquiries into and reports on any matter that affects the discipline or military efficiency of the DoN? - Correct Answer Inspector General (IG) Which Navy regulations article defines equal opportunity? - Correct Answer Article 1164 Which Amendment of the Constitution guarantees freedom of speech and assembly? - Correct Answer First Amendment What is defined as any conduct whereby a military member or members, regardless of service or rank, without proper authority causes another military member or members, regardless of service or rank, to suffer or be exposed to any activity which is cruel, abusive, humiliating, oppressive, demeaning, or harmful? - Correct Answer Hazing What is unwelcome sexual advances, requests for sexual favors, and other verbal or physical conduct that is sexual in nature called? - Correct Answer Sexual harassment Sexual in nature, occurs in or impacts the work environment, along with what else are the three criteria for a person's Behavior to be considered sexual harassment? - Correct Answer Unwelcome

Which type of sexual harassment are personnel being subjected to when they are offered or denied something that is work connected in return for submitting to or rejecting unwelcome sexual behavior? - Correct Answer Quid pro quo Which U.S. Navy regulations article states no person in the Navy is to enter a personal relationship that is unduly familiar, does not respect differences in rank, and is prejudicial to good order and discipline? - Correct Answer Article 1165 What volunteer liaises between command and families? - Correct Answer Command ombudsman In what year did President Dwight D Eisenhower prescribe a code of conduct for members of the Armed Forces? - Correct Answer 1955 How many articles does the code of conduct contain? - Correct Answer 6 Which code of conduct article states that "when questioned, should I become a prisoner of war, I am required to give my name, rank, service number and date of birth"? - Correct Answer V What are naval personnel called when they are assigned military police duties? - Correct Answer Shore Patrol SP Who is in charge of the master-at-arms force headed by the CMAA? - Correct Answer Executive officer The UCMJ, Navy regulations, along with what else are the three official sources that set forth the basic disciplinary laws for the Navy? - Correct Answer SORN What describes Navy members rights and responsibilities? - Correct Answer United States Navy regulations Who issues the United States Navy regulation changes after they are approved by the president? - Correct Answer Secretary of the Navy

Which UCMJ article subjects offenders to charges for failing to obey Navy regulations? - Correct Answer Article 92 Which Navy regulations article discusses officer precedence? - Correct Answer Article 1002 Which Navy regulations article governs leave and liberty? - Correct Answer Article 1157 What year did the UCMJ become effective? - Correct Answer 1951 Which UCMJ article states that certain UCMJ articles must be carefully explained at certain intervals to every enlisted person? - Correct Answer Article 137 What is the physical Restraint of a person called? - Correct Answer Confinement Which UCMJ article explains commanding officers non-judicial punishment? - Correct Answer Article 15 Which UCMJ article explains service members rights to not provide evidence against themselves (self-incrimination)? - Correct Answer Article 31 Which UCMJ article prohibits any cruel or unusual punishment? - Correct Answer Article 55 What are the UCMJ punitive articles? - Correct Answer 77 through 134 What is defined as an agreement between two or more persons to commit a crime? - Correct Answer Conspiracy What are members of the Armed Forces who, without permission, leave their place of duty or organization with the intent to remain away permanently guilty of? - Correct Answer Desertion How many days of absence, or sooner if the intent to desert as apparent, does the status of an absentee change to that of a deserter? - Correct Answer 30

Which UCMJ article covers missing ships movement? - Correct Answer Article 87 What term means inattention to duty or failure to take action that, under the circumstances should have been taken to prevent the loss, destruction, or damage of any military property? - Correct Answer Neglect Which UCMJ article covers personnel drunk on duty? - Correct Answer Article 112 What is the maximum punishment that may be imposed on a sentinel on post who was found asleep or drunk in time of war? - Correct Answer Death What type of offense is defined as any act to avoid duty by feigning (pretending) to be ill or physically or mentally disabled? - Correct Answer Malingering How many or more persons must be engaged against anyone who may a post them to be classified as a riot? - Correct Answer 3 What is the unlawful killing of another called? - Correct Answer Manslaughter What is the unlawful killing of another committed without intent to kill or inflict great bodily harm? - Correct Answer Involuntary manslaughter Which UCMJ article allows for punishable acts or omissions not specifically mentioned in other articles? - Correct Answer Article 134 Confinement on bread and water or diminished rations may be imposed only on enlisted persons in what pay grade and below aboard ship? - Correct Answer E What is the maximum amount of time per day that extra duty can be assigned? - Correct Answer 2 hours What UCMJ article prohibits compulsory self-incrimination? - Correct Answer Article 31

Summary, Special, along with what else are court-martial types based on article 16 of the UCMJ? - Correct Answer General What is the minimum amount of members that special court-martials can be made up of? - Correct Answer 3 A general court-martial consists of a military judge and not less than how many members? - Correct Answer 5 What is probably the most important log that personnel maintain onboard ships? - Correct Answer Deck log Which bill contains list of stations that must be manned during battle and at other specified times? - Correct Answer Battle Ships-of-the-line, frigates, along with what else were the three major classes of vessels during the Revolutionary War and into the 19th century?

• Correct Answer Sloops of War Which ships were the largest of all the sailing warships carrying 64 to over 100 guns of various sizes during the Revolutionary War and into the 19th century? - Correct Answer Ships of the line Which type of vessel was characterized as a small, fast, flexible, flush deck ship that carried smooth bore cannons? - Correct Answer Schooner What was the first United States Navy Flagship that is said to be the first United States Naval vessel where the "flag of Freedom" was hosted by John Paul Jones? - Correct Answer USS Alfred What are practices called that have been established for so long that they now have the force of law? - Correct Answer Customs What are acts of verbal expressions of consideration or respect for others referred to as? - Correct Answer Courtesies What are the solutes that are rendered to individuals of merit called? - Correct Answer Honors

Which publication provides basic naval uniform policy? - Correct Answer NAVPERS 15665 What is the maximum length permitted for men's hair? - Correct Answer Four inches What length measured from the tip of the finger must fingers nails not in exceed? - Correct Answer 1/4 inch Which type of agents include microorganisms, fungi, toxins, and micro toxins that cause diseases that kill or produce other types of casualties? - Correct Answer Biological warfare (BW) Which type of agents cause death, injury, temporary incapacitation, or irritation effects? - Correct Answer (CW) Which type of antidote must be immediately administered to counteract the rapid action of nerve agents? - Correct Answer 2 Pam C Which type of agents affect the eyes, mucous membranes, lungs, and skin? - Correct Answer Blister Which type of agents inhibit enzyme actions responsible for transferring oxygen from the blood to the cells of the body? - Correct Answer Blood Which type of warfare uses living organisms, toxins, and micro toxins to disable or to destroy people and domestic animals, damage crops, or deteriorate supplies? - Correct Answer Biological warfare (BW) What condition occurs when air enters the stomach instead of the lungs during artificial ventilation? - Correct Answer Gastric distention How many quarts of blood does the average adult body contain? - Correct Answer 5 How many pints of blood loss Will usually cause shock? - Correct Answer 2 Life is endangered when at least what percent of the body is burned? - Correct Answer 20%

Which type of injuries occur when the ligaments and soft tissues are damaged that support joints? - Correct Answer Sprains What type of injury is caused by the forcible overstretching or tearing of a muscle or tendon? - Correct Answer Strain What are the two most common sexually transmitted diseases in the United States? - Correct Answer Syphilis and gonorrhea What water temperature, or lower, puts Personnel at risk for hypothermia? - Correct Answer 75 degrees Fahrenheit Which condition is characterized by swelling of the foot by numbness and power lack of color or discoloration? - Correct Answer Immersion foot How many types of discharges from Naval service are there? - Correct Answer 5 Which type of discharge indicates satisfactory service by personnel but not to the standards established by the Navy? - Correct Answer General What is the combination of air temperature, thermal radiation, humidity, air flow, and workload called the place of stress on the body? - Correct Answer Heat stress Which instruction contains Navy safety information? - Correct Answer OPNAVINST 5100.19 Retain a deserter's record on board for how long? - Correct Answer 120 days What form shows proof of death to government and commercial agencies that pay benefits to survivors of eligible Sailors? - Correct Answer DD 1300 Approximately how many inches will the bulk of men's hair not exceed? - Correct Answer 2

What is defined as the distance that the massive hair protrudes from the scalp? - Correct Answer Bulk Mustaches shall not go beyond a horizontal line extending across the corners of the mouth and no more than what distance Beyond a vertical line drawn from the corner of the mouth? - Correct Answer 1/4 inch Fingernails shall not extend past what distance for males? - Correct Answer Fingertips What is the maximum fingernail length measured from the f - Correct Answer ***** fingertip that f****** females can f****** have? *Quarter-inch While in uniform, only one ring per hand is authorized, plus a wedding or engagement ring set. Rings are not authorized to be worn on what fingers?

• Correct Answer Thumbs For women, one earring per year (centered on earlobe) may be worn while in uniform. Earrings shall be what size ball, plain with shiny or brushed matte finish, screw on or with posts? - Correct Answer 4 mm to 6 mm What is OPNAVINST 1720.4A? - Correct Answer Suicide prevention program What is opnavinst 3500.39C? - Correct Answer Operational risk management (ORM) What is that portion of identified risk that is allowed to persist during the mission or task called? - Correct Answer Acceptable risk How many steps are involved in the Navy planning process? - Correct Answer 6 What is defined as the remaining risk after the controls have been identified and selected? - Correct Answer Residual risk What is OPNAVINST 5354.1F? - Correct Answer Naval equal-opportunity (EO) policy

Which system resolve equal opportunity complaints at the lowest appropriate chain of command level? - Correct Answer Informal resolution system (IRS) Which type of behavior is not asked for and is considered as undesirable or offensive? - Correct Answer Unwelcome Which type of sexual harassment have personnel been subjected to when they are offered or denied something that is work connected in return for submitting to or rejecting unwelcome sexual behavior? - Correct Answer Quid pro quo Which instruction contains the department of Navy's policy on Military equal opportunity complaint processing? - Correct Answer OPNAVINST 5350.16A What is OPNAVINST 5370.2C? - Correct Answer Navy fraternization policy Which United States Navy regulations article prohibits fraternization? - Correct Answer Article 1165 What has the Navy historically relied upon to define the bounds of acceptable personal relationship among its members? - Correct Answer Customs and traditions