Navy Uniform Regulations and Administrative Procedures, Exams of Military Strategy and Training

Download Navy Uniform Regulations and Administrative Procedures and more Exams Military Strategy and Training in PDF only on Docsity! PMK-EE (E-4) Career Information 290 Questions and Answers. Who issues the usn uniform regulations? - correct answer cno Historically, uniforms have been the product of a sailor's environment: which included what three factors? - correct answer physical, geographical, and technical Historically, what were women's uniforms designed to duplicate? - correct answer civilian fashion trends Which type of headgear may be left on indoors? - correct answer tiaras What type of uniforms must not be worn when operating in any operating fire room? - correct answer 100% polyester Which executive order delegated the quantity and kind of clothing or cash allowances in lieu of clothing, for enlisted personnel, to the secdef? - correct answer 10113 Which directives outlines uniform allowances policies and regulations? - correct answer dod directives 1338.5 Which manual is the authority for clothing allowances payments? - correct answer dod military pay and allowances entitlements manual What type of cash allowance is provided for replacing a minimum quantity of each required uniform that is paid over the estimated useful file of the articles? - correct answer cra Who is responsible for ensuring uniform policy compliance as issued by the prescribing authority regarding liberty parties and members of the command operating ashore? - correct answer sopa Which uniform may be worn during any season when traveling on leave, tad or transfer? - correct answer service dress blues Who may authorize working uniforms in specific geographic regions or situations when warranted by local conditions? - correct answer area coordinators What should personnel traveling overseas consult for any particular uniform or civilian clothing requirements for their destination? - correct answer dod foreign clearance guide Which publication should navy personnel in a duty, leave, or liberty status consult when traveling on commercial international flights to determine what appropriate uniform or civilian clothing is required? - correct answer usaf foreign clearance guide Which uniform may not be worn commuting to and from work? - correct answer navy blue coveralls What is the direct route from a place of residence to place of work by the means of a private vehicle including all travel aboard dod- owned/controlled aircraft referred to as? - correct answer commuting What are personnel not allowed to consume while wearing nwus off base? - correct answer alcohol Within the national capital region (ncr) the nwu is authorized for wear at all locations with the exception of inside the pentagon building, national mall area bonded by capitol hill and surrounding What type of solution may be used to brighten embroidered insignia? - correct answer diluted ammonia Hair above the ears and around the neck shall be tapered from the lower natural hairline upwards at least 3/4 inch and outward not greater than what length to blend with hair-style for me? - correct answer 3/4 inch How many inches is the maximum length for men's hair? - correct answer four Approx how many inches will the bulk of men's hair not exceed? - correct answer two What is defied as the distance that the mass of hair protrude from the scalp? - correct answer bulk What part of the ear will sideburns not extend past? - correct answer middle When a womans hairstyle of multiple braids is worn, the braids shall be of uniform dimension, small in diameter (approx. What size), and tightly interwoven to present a neat, professional, well groomed appearance?? - correct answer 1/4 inch What is the maximum length that womens hair may extend past the top of the jumper collar? - correct answer 1.5" What is the max length that the bulk of womens hair as measured from the scalp can be? - correct answer 2" What is the max number of small barrettes, combs, or clips that are similar to the members hair color that may be used in womens hair? - correct answer two The face shall be clean shaven unless a shaving waiver is authorized be the co per what instruction? - correct answer bupersinst 1000.22 Mustaches shall not go beyond a horizontal line extending across the corners of the mouth and no more than what distance beyond a vertical line drawn from the corner of the mounth? - correct answer 1/4 inch What is the max length that an individual mustache hair that is fully extended can be? - correct answer 1/2 inch If a shaving waiver is authorized, no facial/neck hair shall be shaved, manicured, style or outlined nor exceed what length? - correct answer 1/4 inch What form shall female service members submit to their co to express their desire to obtain permanent makeup? - correct answer navpes 1336/3 Fingernails shall not extend past what distance for males? - correct answer fingertips What is the max fingernail length measured from the fingertip that females can have? - correct answer 1/4 inch While in uniform, only one ring per hand is authorized, plus a wedding/engagement ring set. Rings are not authorized to be worn on what fingers? - correct answer thumbs For women, one earing per ear (centered on earlobe) may be worn while in uniform. Earing shall be what size ball, plain with shiny or brushed matte finish, screw on or with posts? - correct answer 4mm - 6mm Content, location, size, along with what else are the four criterias that will be used to determine whether tattoos/bod art/brands are permitted for navy personnel? - correct answer cosmetic What is defined as the intentional radical alteration of the body, head, face, or skin for the purpose of and or resulting in an abnormal appearance? - correct answer mutilation Tattoos/body art/brands/mutilation/dental ornamentation may be waived if they existed prior to what date and are not prejudicial to good order, discipline, and morale or are of a nature to bring discredit upon the naval service? - correct answer january 24th, 2003 For men, no individual hair will measure more than how many inches in length? - correct answer 4 inches Dod directive 1338.5 along with what other instruction contain the uniform requirements that the initial clothing articles issued to enlisted personnel must meet? - correct answer dod instruction 133.18 Who is responsible for approving the fabrics used for naval uniform manufacturing? - correct answer cno Which personnel must have their seabags inspected at regular intervals to ensure that they possess the required items? - correct answer e1-e3 Approximately how high should stencil letter be? - correct answer 3/8 inch What should the size of the embroidered letters on navy coveralls be? - correct answer 3/4 inch buttons down each side of the front, with a front closure held together by two 28-line navy eagle buttons with a link approximately how long? - correct answer 3/4" Cwo shoulder insignia surface is black cloth. Stripe widths are as specified for sleeves of blue coats but what length are the blue break(s) rather than being 2 inches apart? - correct answer 1/2 inch Collar points of the cpo/officer males white dress shirt worn with the dinner dress uniform measure no more than how many inches with a medium spread? - correct answer 3.25" Approximately how many inches from the floor at the back of the shoe should dress blue trousers hang? - correct answer 2" Which side of the buckle do women wear the belt the clip with the exception of the nwu and coveralls? - correct answer right How many detachable 35-line navy eagle gilt buttons on the right front are there on the service dress white officers/cpo coat? - correct answer 5 The male officer necktie, black, four-in-hand is made of authorized fabric measuring no more than how many inches wide? - correct answer 3.25" Within what distance of the top of the belt buckle does the bottom of the male officer necktie, black, four-in-hand hang? - correct answer 1" The sword worn with the ceremonial uniform for lcdr and above shall have a cut and thrust blade, from 22 inches to how many inches long, half basket hilt, and fir in a scabbard of plain black grain leather or synthetic material presenting the leather appearance? - correct answer 36" The traditional sword belt is made of plain black grain leather, or synthetic material presenting the same appearance, 1-3/4 inch wide, with sling straps of the same material, 3/4 inch wide. The buckle and mounting are gold plated with the buckle how many inches in diameter? - correct answer 2" What is the maximum width that tie clasps are authorized to be? - correct answer 5/16 inch How far below the center of the tie in a horizontal position may tie clasps be worn on the four-in-hand tie? - correct answer 1" The blue garrison cap will be worn squarely on the head, with fore and aft crease centered vertically between the eyebrows and the lowest point approximately what distance above the eyebrows? - correct answer 1 inch The black jacket should be worn with the zipper closed at least what amount of the way up? - correct answer 3/4 Which personnel will not wear insignia on the sweater? - correct answer e6 and below Which uniform is miniature command insignia not worn with? - correct answer full dress Poly/cotton may be worn only as working khaki effective as of what year? - correct answer 1999 Approximately how many inches from the floor at the back of the shoe shall service khaki trousers hang? - correct answer 2 inches Which fabric makes up 100 percent of the dress white jumper? - correct answer polyester Approximately how many inches from the floor at the back of the shoe shall coveralls hang? - correct answer 2 inches When authorized, coverall sleeves will be rolled with the inside out, forming a roll approximately how many inches wide, and terminating at a point approximately 2 inches above the elbow? - correct answer three inches wide The watch cap will worn with a single fold approximately 3.5 inches - 4 inches diagonally from the base of the back of the head, across the ears and on the forehead with the bottom of the fold what distance above the eyebrows? - correct answer 1/4 inch What type of fabric is the optional gold long sleeve ptu shirt 100% made of with anti-microbial and moisture wicking materials and crewneck collar? - correct answer polyester The navy ballcap shall be worn squarely on the head, with bottom edge parallel to and at least how far above the eyebrows? - correct answer 1.5 inch When authorized, nwu sleeves will be rolled (cuff right-side out) forming a 3 inch wide band covered by the cuff of the shirt (the outside digital camouflage pattern of the nwu will show). Approximately how many inches above the elbow will the termination point of the roll be? - correct answer two How many of the top boot eyelets should be covered by the blouse from the nwu trouser legs - correct answer three eyelets Which officer rank is identified by one sleeve stripe that is 0.5"? - correct answer ensign What officer rank wears a one 1/2 inch stripe with one 1/4 inch stripe above it? - correct answer ltjg Which officer rank is identified by two 1/2 inch stripes on their sleeve? - correct answer lt Which officer rank is identified by two 1/2 inch strips with one 1/4 inch strip in between on their sleeve? - correct answer lcdr Which officer rank is identified by three 1/2 inch stripes on their sleeve? - correct answer cdr Which officer rank is identified by four 1/2 inch stripes on their sleeve? - correct answer capt Which officer rank is identified by one 2 inch stripe on their sleeve? - correct answer rear admiral lower half Which officer rank is identified by two 2 inch stripes with one 1/2 stripe above it on their sleeve? - correct answer rear admiral What officer rank is identified by one 2 inch stripe with two 1/2 inch stripes above it on their sleeve? - correct answer vice admiral What officer rank is identified by one 2 inch stripe with three 1/2 inch stripes above it on their sleeve? - correct answer admiral Which officer rank is identified by one 2 inch stripe with four 1/2 inch stripes above it on their sleeve? - correct answer fleet admiral Which cwo rank is identified b one 1/4 inch stripe with breaks 2 inches apart, three breaks centered symmetrically on outer face of sleeve? - correct answer w-1 Which cwo rank is identified by one 1/2 inch stripe with breaks 2 inches apart, three breaks centered symmetrically on outer face of sleeve? - correct answer w-2 Which cwo rank is identified by one 1/2 inch stripe with breaks 2 inches apart, two breaks centered symmetrically on outer face of sleeve? - correct answer w-3 Which cwo rank is identified by one 1/2 inch stripe with one break, centered on the outer face of the sleeve? - correct answer w-4 Which cwo rank is identified by one 1/2 inch stripe with 1/8 inch bluestrip broken by one hash mark, centered on the outer face of the sleeve? - correct answer w-5 What type of officer is identified by a five-pointed gold star placed on the sleeve with one ray pointing downward? - correct answer line officer Which type of officers are identified by a gold embroidered spread oak leaf, surcharge with a silver embroidered acorn, placed on the sleeve, stem down? - correct answer medical corps Which type of officers are designated by a gold embroidered spread oak leaf, placed on the sleeve, stem down? - correct answer nurse corps Which type of officers are designated by a gold embroidered sprig of three oak leaves and three acorns placed on the sleeve with the longer dimension parallel to the upper stripe, stem to the front (right and left)? - correct answer supply corps How many inches wide are the rating badges for female cpo's? - correct answer 2.5 inches wide Approximately what percent of the size of the men's rating badges are women's rating insignia, chevrons and rockers? - correct answer 75% Who wears three gold stars above the eagle and one gold star in place of the specialty mark on their rating badge? - correct answer mcpon Who wears two gold stars above the eagle and one gold star in place of the specialty mark on their rating badge? - correct answer fleet/force master chief petty officers How many inches long are male cpo's service stripes? - correct answer 7 inches long How wide are male e1-e6 service stripes? - correct answer 3/8 inches wide How many inches long are female service stripes? - correct answer 5.25 inches long How many inches from the end of the sleeve is the lower end of the first service stripe? - correct answer two How many inches above the upper edge of the cuff on jumpers having a buttoned cuff is the lower end of the first service stripe? - correct answer 1.5 inches How far are service stripes placed apart when more than one is authorized? - correct answer 1/4 inches apart What is defined as the intentional radical alteration of the body, head, face, or skin for the purpose of and or resulting in an abnormal appearance? - correct answer mutilation Who establishes the requirement for enlisted personnel to wear civilian clothing in the performance of their official duties? - correct answer cno (n131u) Weekly - correct answer division personnel and material readiness should be assessed daily at a minimum and in more detail at least how often? Attitude - correct answer work habits, knowledge, along with what else will be the three areas looked at while assessing worker performance? Optar log - correct answer what does each division or department use to make formal supply inventories? Equipment deficiency log (edl) - correct answer which log describes deficiencies and missing equipment in each space? Edvr - correct answer what is the computer printout of the number of personnel in each rate aboard the command? (page 2- 2) Annual employment schedule - correct answer what lists the planned operations, assist visits, inspections, and ports of call for the fiscal year? (page 2-3) Counseling - correct answer what is the most effective way to inform subordinates of their standing in the division? Counseling sheet - correct answer what are used to note discrepancies, recommend solutions to problems, and provide a follow-up date for reevaluation? Letter of instruction - correct answer what identifies a number of discrepancies individually and gives recommended solutions in addition to dates for reevaluation? Page 13 - correct answer what is the administrative remarks page of the enlisted service record used to provide a chronological record of significant miscellaneous entries not provided on other pages of the record? Memorandum - correct answer what should be used to prepare written input from yourself to the responsible party in your chain of command via your division officer and department head? Five - correct answer how many types of recognition can subordinates be recommended for? Bullet - correct answer what format should subordinates' accomplishments be in to make them stronger? General and organizational - correct answer what are the two categories of authority? Titles - correct answer what should be used when the co delegates signature authority in writing? By direction - correct answer how do subordinates usually sign documents under delegated authority? Secnavinst 5216.5c - correct answer what instruction gives specific guidance on signature authority? Naval message - correct answer what is used for urgent communication where speed is of primary importance? Single-adress - correct answer what type of message is sent to one addressee only and may be either for action or information? Multiple=address - correct answer which type of message is sent to two or more addressees, each of whom is aware of the other addressee(s)? Book - correct answer what type of message is sent to two or more addressees and is of such a nature that no addressee needs to know who the others are? General - correct answer what type of message has a wide standard distribution to all commands in an area under one command or to types of commands and activities? (page 2-31) Originator - correct answer what is the authority (command or activity) in whose name messages are sent? Releaser - correct answer who is responsible for validating message content, affirming message compliance with message- drafting instructions, and for determining whether the draft of the message should be released as a message or as a navgram? (page 2-31) Drafter - correct answer what is the title of the message composer? Four - correct answer how many common precedence categories are messages divided into? Ntp-3 - correct answer which publication contains message precedence information? Navgrams - correct answer what are used for urgent communications between department of defense (dod) addressees? (page 2-43) Standard subject identification codes (ssics) - correct answer what provide a standard system of numbers used throughout the navy to categorize, subject classify, and identify directives, letters, messages, forms, and reports? (page 2-45) 14 - correct answer how many major subject groups does the ssic system consist of? (page 2-45) Parallelism - correct answer what means that when you use a coordinating conjunction (and, but, nor, yet), nouns, adjectives, dependent clauses, and so on, should match in each part of the sentence? (page 2-47) 20 - correct answer generally, sentences should be restricted to how many words or less? (page 2-48) "there are" - correct answer it is" along with what other phrase hurt naval writing more than anything else? General and organizational - correct answer what are the two distinct types of authority? 141.4 - correct answer which standard organization and regulations of the united states navy article contains the general responsibilities and duties of all officers and petty officers in the navy? (page 4-1) Billet - correct answer what type of authority held by all officers and petty officers is derived from each person's assigned billet within a particular command? ( Article 1037 - correct answer 4. Which navy regulations article grants petty officers at each level the necessary authority for the performance of their duties? Authority - correct answer what grants the right to require actions of others? Extra military instruction (emi) - correct answer withholding of privileges along with what else are two of the most common measures used to correct military duty deficiencies? (page 4-2) 2 - correct answer emi will not normally be assigned for more than how many hours per day? Cpo - correct answer the authority to assign emi is normally not delegated below what level? Privilege - correct answer what is a benefit provided for the convenience or enjoyment of an individual? Ucmj - correct answer depriving an individual of liberty or privileges as a punishment for any offense or substandard performance of duty is illegal, except as specifically authorized under the what? (page 4-3) Duty - correct answer what is defined as something that a person is expected or required to do by moral or legal obligation— an action or task required by one's position? ( Watch, quarter, and station (wqs) bill - correct answer what is the commanding officer's summary of personnel duty assignments and stations called? (page 4-5) Executive officer - correct answer who is responsible for maintaining the ships master wqs bill? Division notebook - correct answer what is used for transferring information from the battle bill and ship's bills to the wqs bill? Emergency bills - correct answer what is probably the most important of all the shipboard bills? General emergency bill - correct answer which bill organizes the crew to handle the effects of a major emergency or disaster aboard ship? Fundamentals (100 series) - correct answer which pqs section covers the basic knowledge needed to understand the specific equipment or duties and provides an analysis of those fundamentals that broadly apply? Systems (200 series) - correct answer which pqs section breaks down the subject equipment or duties into smaller, more easily understood sections called systems? (page 4-9) Watch station/maintenance action (300 series) - correct answer which pqs section tests the trainee's readiness to perform a designated task? (page 4-9) 8 - correct answer qs oral examination boards could have as few as two or as many as how many members? E-5 - correct answer what is normally the minimum paygrade required to be a pqs qualifier? Work center supervisor - correct answer who introduces trainee's to the pqs program and recommends and monitors the goals for each individual? (page 4-12) Sailors desiring to laterally convert rates. - correct answer career waypoints-conversion (c-way-conv) Applies to all rated ac, fts, and selres Sailors desiring to change from one component to another - correct answer career waypoints-transistion (c-way-trans) C-way maximum quota expiration date - correct answer 13 months after application Date (i.e. April 2013 application month, 30 may 2014 expiration) Open reenlistment - correct answer undermanned skill sets. All reenlistment eligible, non-nuclear e-5 and below will receive approval on their first application Balanced reenlistment - correct answer fully manned skill sets. All reenlistment eligible e-5 through e3 will be adjudicated based on manning in their year groups. Competitive reenlistment - correct answer overmanned or special requirement skill sets. All Reenlistment eligible e5 through e3 will compete through rack and stack for c-way-reen Quotas (in-rate, conversion, selres). Sailors with seaos dec 2013 through jun 2014 will have - correct answer 7 active reviews (in rate or conversion) and 3 selres only reviews (unless they choose Selres only prior to exhausting active reviews Sailors with seaos jul 2014 and beyond will have - correct answer 4 in rate reviews starting 13 months from seaos followed by 4 conversion reviews, followed By 3 selres only reviews. How many months prior to seaos, applications are auto-generated in c-way; - correct answer 15 How many months prior to seaos, applications are racked and stacked for inrate, conversion, or selres; only period racked and stacked for Inrate; - correct answer 10-13 How many months prior to seaos, applications are racked and stacked for conversion or selres; last active looks available - correct answer 9-6 How many months prior to seaos, applications are racked and stacked for selres only - correct answer 5-3 Utilize the "pts application browser" in order to submit c-way applications. All system-generated applications can be found under this section - correct answer ccc Can be submitted during seaos application window 13 - 6 months prior to seaos and prd application 12 - 10 months prior to prd - correct answer convert only applications Ecm approval is required to do what? - correct answer unlock an "intends to separate" application. Prd applications are submitted..... - correct answer 15 months prior to prd, applications are auto-generated in c-way When are prd applications racked and stacked - correct answer 12-10 months prior to prd Applications will be reviewed at 12, 11, and 10 months prior to prd. - correct answer sc-prd Does not provide approval letters. - correct answer cway pact Approved - executed - correct answer c-way quota has Been used; seaos has changed in The enlisted master file Approved - expired - correct answer this means the sailor did not Use the inrate quota in the Allotted time given (13 months From processing month) Approved - revoked - correct answer c-way quota was revoked by The ecm Approved - separated - correct answer member separated from the Service with an approved quota Approved - unused - correct answer means the sailor who had C-way approval allowed an Existing extension go Operative C-way quotas will expire at what date and time - correct answer 2359 cst on the last day of The month of expiration. States that in order for a sailor to execute a ste, he/she must be retention eligible, not be in an Overmanned rating by zone, cannot extend for more than 24 aggregate months, cannot extend greater than 23 months, and must