NBDHE MOCK BOARD COMPLETE EXAM 2024, Exams of Dentistry

Download NBDHE MOCK BOARD COMPLETE EXAM 2024 and more Exams Dentistry in PDF only on Docsity! NBDHE MOCK BOARD COMPLETE EXAM 2023 Which has the highest powder-to-water ratio? Plaster Type III stone Type IV stone Type V stone - type V (die stone) Patients with uncontrolled diabetes might exhibit each of the following conditions EXCEPT one. -Generalized widening of PDL space -Peripheral neuropathy -Polyuria -Retinopathy - generalized widening of PDL space Which is the handpiece primarily used for intraoral polishing? a. Belt-driven b. High speed c. Low speed d. Porte polisher - low speed A 10-year old exhibits mild dental fluorosis and resides in a non-fluoridated area. Which most accurately describes the rationale for this condition? a. Received professionally applied fluoride therapy b. Recently moved to the area c. Uses a daily fluoride rinse d. Uses an over-the-counter brush-on gel daily - Uses a daily fluoride rinse A patient has a removable partial denture which replaces the missing mandib. teeth. Which tissue is best suited to support this appliance? a. Alveolar mucosa b. Lining mucosa c. Masticatory mucosa d. Specialized mucosa - lining mucosa Which is most likely the cause of erosion located on several cusps of mandibular molars and premolars? a. Highly-carbonated diet b. GERD c. Medications d. Poor oral hygiene - Highly-carbonated diet Tonic-clonic seizure phases are: a. alternating spasms of rigidity and relaxation b. typical of petit mal epilepsy c. urinary bladder muscle spasms d. usually limited to a single limb - alternating spasms of rigidity and relaxation Tooth 30 presents with Class III furcation involvement. Which Gracey curette design is best suited for scaling the mesial aspect of the distal root? a. Gracey 5/6 b. Gracey 7/8 c. Gracey 13/14 d. Gracey 15/16 e. Gracey 17/18 - Gracey 15/16 Which is formed when a triangular ridge from a facial cusp tip joins a triangular ridge from a lingual cusp tip? a. developmental groove b. fissure c. oblique ridge d. transverse ridge - transverse ridge To be able to provide informed consent, each of the following must be communicated to the patient prior to exposing dental radiographs EXCEPT-- a. Benefits expected from the radiographic exam. b. Documentation of satisfactory inspections of the radiographic equipment. c. Possible risks to health associated with not having the radiographic exam. d. Possible risks to health from the radiographic exam. - documentation of satisfactory inspections of the radiographic equipment The quality of a sealant is most effectively examined with-- an explorer articulating paper mouth mirror ultraviolet lighting - an explorer c. prevalence d. severity - extent Which condition most significantly influences the progression of periodontal disease? a. atherosclerosis b. diabetes mellitus c. lupus erythematosus d. pregnancy - diabetes mellitus Which is the extraoral projection used to evaluate the maxillary sinuses? a. lateral cephalometric b. reverse town c. submentovertex d. water - lateral cephalometric Which is the water/powder ratio of dental stone? -25 ml/100 grams -30 ml/100 grams -50 ml/100 grams -75 ml/100 grams - 30 ml/100 grams Which is a protective protein surrounding viruses? a. capsid b. cell membrane c. cell wall d. core - capsid Which of the following types of immunoglobulins does NOT cross the barrier between mother and infant in the womb? IgA IgM IgD IgE - IgA (jumps Across) Which of the following types of immunoglobulins is located on the surface of most B- lymphocytes? IgA IgM IgD IgE - IgD Which of the following types of immunoglobulins is most responsible for promoting allergic reactions? -IgA -IgM -IgD -IgE - IgE (like an Ester) What percentage of alcohol is required to be considered a disinfectant? - at least 75% Which of the following is NOT an autoimmune disease? -Myasthenia gravis -Graves' disease -Alzheimer's disease -Insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus - Alzheimer's T-cell activation requires a/an ________________ cell. -Activation -Accessory -Memory -Helper - Accessory Which select group of antihypertensive medications has the mechanism of action that involves blocking the conversion of angiotensin I into angiotensin II? -Beta blockers -Thiazides -ACEIs -Angiotensin receptor blockers -Calcium-channel blockers - ACEIs What term describes a molecule that is not immunogenic by itself, but can react with a specific antibody? -Complement -Hapten -Interleukin -Immunoglobulin - Hapten The most external layer of alveolar bone is the: A. Spongy bone B. Spicule bone C. Cortical bone D. Woven bone E. Cribriform plate - Cortical bone The glenoid fossa is an oval cavity or a depression in the: a. maxilla, just anterior to the malar process b. temporal bone, just anterior to the auditory canal c. mandible, just posterior to the internal oblique ridge d. occipital bone, just posterior to the inferior nasal conchae - temporal bone, just anterior to the auditory canal The erupted dentition of a normally developed 7- year-old child usually consists of: A. 8 primary and 8 permanent teeth B. 10 primary and 10 permanent teeth C. 18 primary and 6 permanent teeth D. 20 primary teeth - 18 primary and 6 permanent teeth A common oral manifestation of Addison's disease is: a. Melanosis b. Xerostomia c. Glossodynia d. Cotton-wool bone - Melanosis An individual with mitral regurgitation will most likely suffer from which of the following? a. decreased heart rate b. fluid congestion in the lungs c. peripheral edema d. ventricular arrhythmias - fluid congestion in the lungs The largest and longest cusp in posterior teeth is the: a. mesiolingual cusp of a max first molar b. distolingual cusp of a max first molar c. mesiofacial cusp of a mand first molar d. distofacial cusp of a mand first molar - mesiolingual cusp of a max first molar Which of the following teeth in the permanent dentition normally have trifurcations? A. Magnesium and sodium chloride B. Sodium and potassium phosphate C. Calcium carbonate and zinc oxide D. Calcium phosphate and calcium carbonate - Calcium phosphate and calcium carbonate Bacterial organisms stain differently on the basis of: a. thickness of the slime layer b. thickness of the glycocalyx c. permeability of their cell walls d. thickness of the plaque biofilm - permeability of their cell walls On a radiograph, a radiolucent pear-shaped lesion is found distal to a maxillary right lateral incisor causing divergence of the lateral and canine roots. What is this radiolucency? a. odontogenic keratocyst b. ameloblastoma c. globulomaxillary cyst d. giant cell tumor - globulomaxillary cyst During probing, furcation involvement is detected on tooth #30; the probe enters into the furcation area and penetrates through to the opposite side. There is no recession present. What class of furcation is this? a. Class I b. Class II c. Class III d. Class IV - Class III A possible result of vitamin D deficiency is: a. Night blindness b. Enamel hypoplasia c. Glossitis d. Oral leukoplakia - Enamel hypoplasia Which of the following species of Streptococcus is predominantly found on hard tissues or teeth? a. Streptococcus mutans b. Streptococcus oralis c. Streptococcus salivarius d. Streptococcus mitis - Streptococcus mutans Immunity acquired by vaccination with toxoid is referred to as: a. artificially acquired passive b. artificially acquired active c. naturally acquired passive d. naturally acquired active - artificially acquired passive The maximum permissible dose for occupationally exposed workers is annually: a. 0.5 mSv b. 5 mSv c. 50 mSv d. 500 mSv - 50 mSv Which organization gives individuals the right to keep their group health insurance benefits? a. COBRA b. OSHA c. HIPAA d. CDC - COBRA What is the classification of a furcation with moderate bone loss, where a Nabers probe can enter the furcation, but cannot pass through the roots? a. Class I b. Class II c. Class III d. Class IV - Class II Which of the following is NOT a compound used to fluoridate water? a. Sodium fluorosilicate b. Stannous fluoride c. Hydrofluorosilicic acid d. Sodium fluoride - Stannous fluoride Which area-specific Gracey curet is used to scale direct linguals and facials of posterior teeth? a. Gracey 1/2 b. Gracey 7/8 c. Gracey 15/16 d. Gracey 17/18 - Gracey 7/8 There is a 3mm pocket on the direct lingual of tooth #30. There is also 4mm recession on the direct lingual. What is the clinical attachment level for tooth #30? - 7mm Enlargement due to an increase in cell size without changes in numbers is called: a. Hyperplasia b. Neoplasia c. Hypertrophy d. Anaplasia - hypertrophy A short scale of contrast will result from more kVp and mA. A long scale of contrast will result from less kVp and mA. a. Both statements are true. b. Both statements are false. c. The first statement is true, the second statement is false. d. The first statement is false, the second statement is true. - Both statements are false. X-ray developer is made up of what chemicals? a. Sodium thiosulfate b. Silver halide (bromide) c. Elon and hydroquinone d. Potassium alum - Elon and hydroquinone Which papillae do not contain taste buds? a. Fungiform b. Filiform c. Circumvallate d. Foliate - Filiform Which of the following muscles protrude the mandible? a. Masseter b. Temporalis c. Lateral pterygoid d. Medial pterygoid - Lateral pterygoid Which of the following is NOT a bacterium associated with periodontal disease? a. Campylobacter rectus b. Streptococcus mutans c. Prevotella intermedia d. Porphyromonas gingivalis - Streptococcus mutans (associated with CARIES, NOT PERIO disease) When doing an assessment with only a mouth mirror and lightning, you are using what kind of examination method? a. Type I examination b. Type II examination c. Type III examination d. Type IV examination - Type III examination (an "inspection) Which of the following conditions does NOT require premed? Heart shunts, or Mitral valve prolapse - Mitral valve prolapse All of the following are related to caries EXCEPT: a. Actinomyces viscosus b. Streptococcus mutans c. Streptococcus mitis d. Streptococcus sobrinus - Streptococcus mitis (this is associated with endocarditis) All of the following are used to treat HIV EXCEPT: a. Carbamazepine b. Zidovudine c. Didanosine d. Zalcitabine - Carbamazepine (used to tx seizures) What instrument will be used to scale the mesial of the distal root of tooth #19? a. Gracey 11/12 b. Gracey 13/14 c. Posterior sickle scaler d. 11/12 Explorer - Gracey 11/12 A deficiency of ascorbic acid is called scurvy. Women taking oral contraceptives may avoid scurvy related problems by eating more fruits and vegetables. a. The statement is true, but the reason is NOT related. b. The statement is true, and the reason IS related. c. The statement is false, and the reason is NOT related. d. The statement is false, but the reason IS true. - The statement is true, and the reason IS related. Which of these primary germ cell layers forms tooth enamel? a. Ectoderm b. Mesoderm c. Endoderm d. Stomodeum - Ectoderm All of the following muscles are innervated by the hypoglossal nerve EXCEPT: a. Hyoglossus b. Styloglossus c. Genioglossus d. Palatoglossus - Palatoglossus Which of the following exacerbates the gag reflex? a. Diltiazem (Cardizem) b. HCTZ c. Furosemide (Lasix) d. Digitalis (Digoxin) - Digitalis (Digoxin) All of the following factors increase density EXCEPT: a. Milliamperage b. Exposure time c. Distance d. kVp - Distance All of the following are muscles of mastication EXCEPT: a. Medial pterygoid b. Masseter c. Temporalis d. Buccinator - Buccinator (this is for facial expression) Which of the following lymph nodes drains the floor of the mouth? a. Submandibular lymph nodes b. Submental lymph nodes c. Superior deep cervical d. Inferior deep cervical - Submental lymph nodes Which drug would best treat a MRSA infection? a. Amoxicillin b. Clindamycin c. Vancomycin d. Cephalexin - Vancomycin All of the following are liners EXCEPT: a. Varnish b. Calcium hydroxide c. Zinc-oxide/eugenol d. Zinc phosphate - Zinc phosphate (this is a cement) Which of the following is an antimicrobial agent that can be found in toothpaste? a. Sodium pyrophosphate b. Triclosan c. Potassium nitrate d. Strontium chloride - Triclosan All of the following are measures of central tendency EXCEPT: -Range -Mean -Median -Mode - Range (this instead measures dispersion) What is a disease that occurs regularly in a population as a matter of course? a. Pandemic b. Endemic c. Morbidity d. Epidemic - Endemic Systemic fluoride reduces caries by: a. Increasing the hardness of enamel b. Decreasing the hardness of enamel c. Reducing the solubility rate of enamel d. Converting fluorapatite to hydroxyapatite - Converting fluorapatite to hydroxyapatite The dentist has diagnosed and recommended specific tx for a pt of record and remains on the premises while the pt is being treated. What is this type of dental supervision? a. General supervision b. Direct supervision c. Indirect supervision d. Personal supervision - Indirect supervision The ethical rules and principles of professional conduct for the practice of dentistry are set forth in the ADA's publication entitiled "Principles of Ethics and Code of Professional Conduct". Which of the following is not an ethical principle found in the code? d. Ethylene oxide - Ethylene oxide (chemical requires 10-16 hours) Which of the following is a pharmacological property of nitrous oxide? a. Sour odor b. Amber in color c. Explosive d. Inorganic - Inorganic (Nitrous smells sweet, is colorless, and is not explosive) Approximately how long does it take for a patient to feel the changes in the level of the flow of gases when nitrous oxide is administered? a. 5 to 10 seconds b. 20 seconds c. 30 to 60 seconds d. 2 minutes - 30 to 60 seconds The disease that affects the myelin sheath and results in fatigue and numbness is: a. Muscular dystrophy b. Multiple sclerosis c. Parkinson's disease d. Bell's palsy e. Myasthenia gravis - Multiple sclerosis (MS= Myelin sheath) Which of the following drugs can be used in a patient with asthma? a. Propranolol b. Atenolol c. Timolol d. Any non-selective beta blocker - Atenolol Which of the following side effects are associated with codeine? a. Diarrhea b. Emesis c. Dilated pupils d. Coughing - Emesis (vomiting) In patients with Alzheimer's disease, which of the following treatment plan modifications may be altered? a. Use of the ultrasonic b. Use of fluoride and antimicrobials c. Chair position d. Polishing - Use of fluoride and antimicrobials (contraindicated because pt may swallow them) Which lesion is related to Reiter's syndrome? a. Migratory glossitis b. Herpangina c. Pyogenic granuloma d. Lipoma - Migratory glossitis Among periodontal patients, frequency of tooth hypersensitivity has been reported at up to: a. 32% b. 57% c. 88% d. 98% - 57% Multiple sclerosis is a progressive disorder that affects the ___________ nervous system. a. Parasympathetic b. Central c. Sympathetic d. Autonomic - Central- affects the myelin sheath of nerves Hard tissue abnormalities associated with Ehler's-Danlos syndrome that are observed radiographically include: a. abnormal root morphology b. pulpal calcifications and abnormal pulp shape c. dentin that contains structural irregularities d. all of the above - all of the above One square millimeter of dentin can contain as many as ___________ tubules. a. 15,000 b. 20,000 c. 30,000 d. 40,000 - 30,000 The CDC infection control categories of patient care instruments are: a. Vital, somewhat critical, and nonvital b. Vital, semicritical, and noncritical c. Critical, semicritical, and noncritical d. None of the above - critical/semicritical/noncritical Desensitizing toothpastes need to be used for at least ________ before an effect can be observed. a. 3 days b. 1 week c. 2 weeks d. 1 month - 2 weeks Chlorhexidine has a _________ charge. a. Positive b. Negative c. Neutral d. none of the above - POSITIVE The surfaces of the teeth have a ________ charge. a. Positive b. Negative c. Neutral d. none of the above - negative The cell walls of microorganisms have a ___________ charge. a. positive b. negative c. neutral d. none of the above - negative In order for a generic drug to be approved by the FDA, the drug must _________. a. work 50% of the time b. be 50% as effective c. be no more than 80% effective d. be at least 80% effective - be at least 80% effective The advantages of using chlorhexidine as an intracanal irrigant in endodontic therapy include: a. Broad spectrum activity b. Ease of delivery c. Low tissue toxicity b. Dications c. Chromogens d. Dichromides - chromogens What can patients who rinse with chlorhexidine do to reduce the occurence of staining? a. Brush with an electric toothbrush b. Chew gum c. Use whitening toothpaste d. All of the above - all of the above The EPA monitors the concentration levels of fluoride in community drinking water and sets limits in bottled water. a. Both statements are true. b. Both statements are false. c. The first statement is true, the second statement is false. d. The first statement is false, the second statement is true. - true/false The FDA sets the limit in bottled water. All of the following tissues are non-keratinized EXCEPT: a. Alveolar mucosa b. Vestibular mucosa c. Buccal mucosa d. Masticatory mucosa - masticatory mucosa Benign anomaly which appears as a gray to white film on buccal mucosa, giving opaque appearance, is more common in African Americans, and no treatment is required. What is this condition? a. Leukoplakia b. Leukoedema c. Median rhomboid glossitis d. Angular cheilitis - leukoedema All of the following medications contribute to gingival hyperplasia EXCEPT: a. Phenytoin b. Nystatin c. Nifedipine d. Cyclosporine - Nystatin (a topical candidiasis med) What term describes a dose related reaction that is not part of the desired therapeutic outcome of a drug? a. Toxic reaction b. Side effect c. Idiosyncratic reaction d. Drug allergy - side effect All of the following are cardiac conditions that warrant antibiotic premedication EXCEPT: a. Artificial heart valves b. History of infective endocarditis c. Rheumatic heart disease d. Cardiac transplant that has developed valvular problems - rheumatic heart disease Where does cementum receive its nutrients from? a. pulp b. dentin c. alveolar bone d. periodontal ligament - the PDL A patient presents with an amalgam restoration on the MOD surfaces of tooth #14. What GV Black class restoration is this? Class I Class II Class III Class IV - Class II (caries affect proximal surfaces of posteriors, includes occlusals) A high school has a reported an abnormally large number of cases of mononucleosis during fall semester 2009. What is this an example of? -syndemic -epidemic -endemic -pandemic - epidemic What would you polish gold with extraorally? a. rouge b. pumice c. tin oxide d. baking soda - ROUGE (extraoral) All of the following are components of a gram-positive cell wall EXCEPT: a. cell walls are very thick b. cell walls have no periplasmic space/ porin channel c. cell walls contain endotoxins (lipid A) d. cell walls have low lipid content - cell walls contain endotoxins What is the active ingredient in Splenda? a. saccharin b. aspartame c. acesulfame-K d. sucralose - sucralose What is the site for cellular protein synthesis? a. Endoplasmic reticulum b. Mitochondria c. Golgi bodies d. Cytoplasm - endoplasmic reticulum In high concentrations, such as professional applications, fluoride is bacteri___________. In low concentrations, such as daily at home applications, fluoride is bacteri___________. - high concen: bactericidal low concen: bacteriostatic All of the following are clinical findings of NUG/NUP EXCEPT: a. Pain b. Exudate c. Melanin pigmentation d. Punched out papilla - melanin pigmentation In prescription writing, what abbreviation is used to "mean instructions to the patient"? sig u.d. prn b.i.d. - sig prn: as needed ud: as directed bid: twice per day What drug is an antidepressant used for smoking cessation? -Ritalin -Zyban -Chantix c. blood d. gingival crevicular fluid - gingival crevicular fluid Which cells arrive first at the site of injury during the acute inflammatory response? a. mast cells b. neutrophils c. plasma cells d. macrophages - neutrophils NUG is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT: a. fever b. exudate c. hyperkeratosis d. pseudomembrane - hyperkeratosis Bleeding upon probing is caused by: a. edema b. ulceration of the junctional epithelium c. more than 20g of pressure on the probe d. residual calc - ulceration of the junctional epithelium Which vitamin helps in metabolizing amino acids? a. Vitamin A b. Vitamin C c. Vitamin B6 d. Vitamin B12 - Vitamin B6 (pyridoxine) Which of the following restorations would require a wedge and a matrix band? a. Class I b. Class II c. Class V d. Class VI - Class II (proximal surfaces of molars) Which drug acts to reduce salivation? a. Ergotamine b. Atropine c. Phenobarbital d. Epinephrine - Atropine While in centric occlusion, the normal relation of the permanent maxillary 1st molar to the mandibular arch is established when the: A. Maxillary 1st molar occludes with the mandibular 2nd premolar and the 1st molar B. Distal surface of the maxillary 1st molar is in the same plane as the distal surface of the mandibular 1st molar C. Distofacial cusp of the maxillary 1st molar is in the same plane as the distal surface of the mandibular 1st molar D. Mesiolingual cusp of the maxillary 1st molar falls in the central fossa of the mandibular 1st molar - Mesiolingual cusp of the maxillary 1st molar falls in the central fossa of the mandibular 1st molar When root planing, which area would be the hardest to access? a. trifurcations of maxillary first molars b. mesial surfaces of maxillary premolars c. distal surfaces of mandibular third molars d. proximal surfaces of mandibular anteriors - trifurcations of maxillary first molars Which of the following choices has the most cementum? a. exposed root surface b. apical third of the root c. middle third of the root d. coronal third of the root - apical third of the root Calculus at the CEJ is difficult to detect because: a. broad contacts at the CEJ prevent access b. calculus is granular at the CEJ c. root surfaces are convex at the CEJ d. anatomical characteristics of the CEJ vary - anatomical characteristics of the CEJ vary Which of the following is a normal pattern for the eruption of primary teeth? a. Max centrals erupts before mandib centrals b. Max canines erupt before max laterals c. Max 1st molars erupt before max canines d. Mandib canines erupt before mandib 1st molars e. Mandib 2nd molars erupt before mandib 1st molars - Max 1st molars erupt before max canines Facial surfaces of maxillary molars are considered food-retentive areas because: A. These areas are less self-cleansing B. The Stensen's duct opens just opposite the maxillary molars C. Erupted 3rd molars tighten contact areas D. At rest, the lips force saliva against the molars E. The tongue pushes food against the molars during mastication - These areas are less self- cleansing Root sensitivity is decreased when the tooth reacts by formation of: a. Cementum b. Hypercementosis c. Dentinal tubules d. Reparative dentin e. A thickened PDL - Reparative dentin Sensation of pain in the cervical third portion of a tooth often occurs when recession is present. The reason for sensitivity is that: a. Exposed cementum, like exposed bone, is highly sensitive b. Dental tubules are not adequately protected c. Dentinal tubules beneath the area of cementum exposure are increased in number - Dental tubules are not adequately protected Pits in the occlusal surfaces of molars and premolars are generally found at the junction of: a. Marginal ridges and inclined planes b. Inclined planes and cusp tips c. Facial and mesial surfaces d. Developmental grooves - Developmental grooves Which of the following occurs in the dentin as a defense against invasion of the tubules by bacteria? a. Sclerosis of the tubules b. Swelling of the tubule walls c. Decalcification of the tubules d. Proliferation of the odontoblasts - Sclerosis of the tubules Which of the following teeth most frequently manifests dens in dente? a. Max central incisor b. Max lateral incisor c. Max third molar d. Mandib 2nd premolar - Max lateral incisor Which of the following transmits the sensation of contact when the teeth occlude? a. Dental pulp Which characteristic is unique to maxillary molars? a. Cuspal ridge b. Oblique ridge c. Transverse ridge d. Triangular ridge - Oblique ridge An excess of which of the following hormones can be associated with an increased sensitivity to epinephrine? a. insulin b. thyroid c. estrogen d. parathyroid e. testosterone - thyroid Fluorides are chiefly eliminated through which of the following? a. liver b. kidneys c. pancreas d. small intestine e. large intestine - kidneys (excreted through urine) Which oral condition could result from the administration of a glucocorticoid? a. candida albicans b. linea alba c. lichen planus d. brown hairy tongue e. gingival inflammation - brown hairy tongue Which can contribute to a patient developing stomach ulcers? a. Cimetidine (Tagamet) b. Aspirin c. Cigarettes d. Oral contraceptives - Aspirin *Tagamet helps to HEAL stomach ulcers What is the biggest weakness of a gold cast restoration? a. lack of resistance to attrition b. solubility of the cement needed c. susceptibility to deform under pressure d. lack of resistance to corrosion - solubility of the cement needed Which of the following impression material is best suited for an onlay? a. alginate b. impression plaster c. ZOE d. reversible hydrocolloid - reversible hydrocolloid A radiograph shows an amalgam overhang on the distal of 29. What is the cause of this? a. Contamination from moisture b. Expansion of the amalgam after placement c. Improper placement of matrix band d. Excessive condensed amalgam use for the prep - Excessive condensed amalgam use for the prep What material do you use to polish gold restorations intraorally? a. zirconium silicate b. silex c. tin oxide d. flour of pumice - tin oxide In which method do alginate materials set? a. crystallization b. syneresis c. gelation d. polymerization - gelation What is the best way to clean an instrument used with ZOE? a. water b. orange solvent c. eucalyptol d. sodium hypochlorite - orange solvent Which is NOT a symptom of severe shock? a. nausea b. weakness c. moist skin d. flushed skin e. strong pulse - flushed skin (the skin would be pale instead) The most common initial manifestation to a penicillin allergy is: a. anaphylaxis b. rash c. bronchospasm d. laryngeal edema - rash The most commonly used drug in dental emergencies is: a. epinephrine b. insulin c. penecillin d. oxygen - oxygen Which drug reaction is characterized by laryngeal edema, bronchoconstriction and severe hypotension? a. urticaria b. anaphylaxis c. serum sickness d. polydipsia - anaphylaxis polydipsia: excessive thirst Which is the test organism for intermediate level disinfection? a. Hepatitis A b. Hepatitis B c. Hepatitis C d. Mycobacterium tuberculosis - mycobacterium TB Universal precautions used during infection control are specific to the: A. operator B. patient C. office D. profession - profession Teardrop-shaped microbes are ___________. a. cocci b. bacilli c. vibrios d. spirochetes - vibrios During which phase of growth are bacteria most susceptible to antimicrobial agents? a. Log b. Lag c. Stationary d. Decline - LOG (when bacteria are reproducing) Which is MOST resistant to disinfection agents? a. HIV b. Measles c. Hepatitis d. Herpes - hepatitis (this is why we require vaccine) What injection site anesthetizes maxillary lateral to canine including the palatal tissues? a. ASA b. PSA c. Greater palatine