NBDHE Practice Test Exam with 100% Correct Answers Latest Update.2023 Guaranteed Success, Exams of Nursing

Download NBDHE Practice Test Exam with 100% Correct Answers Latest Update.2023 Guaranteed Success and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! NBDHE practice test Exam with 100% Correct Answers Latest Update.2023 Guaranteed Success. The x-ray was discovered by a. Heinrich Geissler b. Wilhelm Roentgen c. Johann Hittorf d. William Crookes - Correct answer Wilhelm Roentgen Which discovery was the precursor to the discovery of x-rays? A. Beta particles B. Alpha particles C. Cathode rays D. Radioactive materials - Correct answer Cathode rays Which term describes two or more atoms that are joined by a chemical bond? a. ion b. ion pair c. molecule d. proton - Correct answer Molecule Which is not a type of particulate radiation? A. Alpha particles B. Beta particles C. Protons D. Nucleons - Correct answer Nucleons P a g e 1 | 73 Which is the location where x-rays are produced? A. Positive cathode B. Positive anode C. Negative cathode D. Negative anode - Correct answer Positive anode Which describes scatter radiation? A. Radiation that exits the tubehead B. Radiation that is more penetrating than primary radiation C. Radiation that has been deflected from its path by interaction with matter D. none of the above - Correct answer Radiation that has been deflected from its path by interaction with matter In dental imaging, the quality of the x ray beam is controlled by? a. kilovoltage b. miliamperage c. exposure time d. source-to-receptor distance - Correct answer Kilovoltage Increasing milliamperage results in an increase in: A. Temperature of filament B. Mean energy of beam C. Number of x-rays produced D. Both A & C - Correct answer Temperature of filament and number of x-rays produced The overall blackness or darkness of an image is termed a. contrast b. density c. overexposure d. polychromatic - Correct answer Density P a g e 2 | 73 The intensifying screen that emits green light and must be used with green sensitive film is termed a. calcium tungstate b. rare earth c. phosphor d. rare tungstate - Correct answer Rare earth A dental image that demonstrates many shades of gray is said to have a. high contrast b. low contrast c. high density d. low density - Correct answer Low contrast The hydroquinone in the developer brings out the _____ tones, whereas the Elon in the developer bring out the _____ tones on a dental radiograph. a. black; white b. white; black c. gray; gray d. white; gray e. black; gray - Correct answer Black; gray A universal safelight filter such as the GBX-2 by the Carestream Health is recommended for a. intraoral films only b. extraoral screen films only c. extraoral nonscreen films only d. intraoral and extraoral films - Correct answer Intraoral and extraoral films Which describes the relationship between the receptor and the long axis of the tooth in the paralleling technique? P a g e 5 | 73 A. The receptor and the tooth are parallel to each other B. The receptor and the tooth are at right angles to each other C. The receptor and the tooth are perpendicular to each other D. The receptor and the tooth are intersecting each other - Correct answer The receptor and the tooth are parallel to each other Too much vertical angulation results in images that are a. elongated b. foreshortened c. overlapped d. none of the above - Correct answer Foreshortened The zone in which structures are clearly demonstrated on a pano image is termed the a. rotation center b. ghost image c. focal trough d. midsagittal plane - Correct answer Focal trough Changing a treatment plan without informing the patient violate which of the following? A. Veracity B. Fidelity C. Beneficence D. Societal trust E. Non-maleficence - Correct answer Fidelity Above all do no harm represents which ethical principle/core value? a. justice b. fidelity c. autonomy d. beneficence e. non-maleficence - Correct answer Non-maleficence P a g e 6 | 73 Confidentiality is both an ethical principle/core value as well as an aspect of civil unintentional tort. A. Both parts are true B. Both parts are false C. First part is true, the second is false D. First part is false, the second is true - Correct answer -The first part of the statement is true, the second is false. -Violation of confidentiality is considered INTENTIONAL civil tort therefore the 2nd part is false What is the correct order of learning? a. self interest, unawareness, awareness, involvement, action, habit b. unawareness, awareness, self-interest, involvement, action, habit c. awareness, self-interest, unawareness, involvement, habit, action d. action, unawareness, awareness, self-interest, involvement, habit - Correct answer Unawareness, awareness, self-interest, involvement, action and habit Fairness and equality represent which ethical principle/core value? a. justice b. fidelity c. veracity d. beneficence - Correct answer Justice All are considered essential elements of informed consent except which? A. Referral B. Diagnosis C. Treatment D. Consequences - Correct answer Referral Informed consent is considered an implied contract because it is a written agreement. P a g e 7 | 73 E. All of the above - Correct answer All of the above Breach of contract violates which ethical principle/core value? a. fidelity b. autonomy c. beneficence d. confidentiality e. non-maleficence - Correct answer Fidelity The Occupational Health and Safety Administration requires all except: A. Training upon employment B. Providing protective equipment to patients C. Annual, interactive training for chemical safety D. Protective equipment be available for all employees E. Annual, interactive training for blood borne pathogens - Correct answer Providing protective equipment to patients The CARE principle is a concept that includes which of the following? A. Respect B. Empathy C. Compassion D. Attentiveness E. None of the above - Correct answer Empathy as well as comfort, acceptance and responsiveness The Code of Ethics for the profession of dental hygiene have been established by which of the following entities? A. ADA B. State regulatory/licensing boards C. Commission on Dental Accreditation D. ADHA P a g e 10 | 73 E. Various textbooks and researchers within the profession - Correct answer ADHA Which of the following best describes the Standard of Care? A. Well defined by courts B. Defined by profession C. Represents the ethical principle of beneficence D. Part of the code of ethics for DH - Correct answer Defined by profession A patient presenting with an HIV positive status is refused treatment by a dental practice. This is a violation of... a. autonomy b. beneficence c. non-maleficence d. justice e. societal trust - Correct answer Justice A practice that accepts the insurance portion of a co-pay plan as "payment in full" without notifying the insurance company is in violation of which ethical principles? a. beneficence b. non-maleficence c. fidelity d. justice e. veracity - Correct answer Veracity Confidentiality relates to the confidentiality of the patient information and relationship and demonstrates the profession's values of which ethical principle? a. autonomy b. beneficence c. non-maleficence d. justice e. societal trust - Correct answer Autonomy P a g e 11 | 73 A patient makes an appt. for their 6 month recall and an exam is performed as well as a prophylaxis. This represents what type of contract? A. Express B. Explicit C. Implied D. Implicit E. C&D - Correct answer -C&D- implied and implicit are the same -action based Which of the following are considered 'law' and enforceable for violations of? A. Guidelines B. Regulations C. Policy D. All of the above E. None of the above - Correct answer Regulations You just treated a patient who is HIV+. How should you handle the instruments and cassette after use? A. follow routine instrument processing steps B. sterilize the instruments with a chemical sterilant first, rinse them, place them back in the cassette, and then follow routine instrument processing steps. C. Immediately heat sterilize the instruments and then follow routine instrument processing steps D. put the cassette through the routine processing steps twice - Correct answer Follow routine instrument processing steps What is the primary difference between regulated and nonregulated waste? a. the amount of time the item is in direct patient contact b. the designation of an item as disposable c. the procedure for which the item was used P a g e 12 | 73 A clinician decides to use a hand instrument to remove a tenacious, moderate calculus deposit on the facial of #31. The calculus deposit is located supra on the crown. Which of the following instruments would you choose? A. Universal curet with short lower shank length B. Standard Gracey 13/14 C. Rigid gracy curet D. Posterior sickle - Correct answer Posterior sickle A right handed clinician is working on the buccal of #2. The clinician is using a Gracey 13/14 curet and retracting the client's cheek with a mirror. The clinician's neck is bent excessively as she works. What correction should they make for more ergonomic positioning? a. Ask the client to turn her head slightly away from the clinician b. Turn the mirror head so that the reflecting surface can be used to view the distal surface c. ask the client to turn toward the clinician and lower her chin down toward her chest (chin-down position) d. raise the clients chair up to bring the working area level with the clinicians eye level - Correct answer Turn the mirror head so the reflecting surface can be used to view the distal surface Inactive ingredients help maintain the toothpaste's consistency to make it more palatable to the consumer. Active ingredients contribute to the therapeutic properties of dentifrice. A. Both are true B. Both are false C. First is true, second is false D. First is false, second is true - Correct answer Both are true What is the 1st clinical sign of demineralization? a. a dark spot in the pits and fissures P a g e 15 | 73 b. white spot lesion c. when sealant is not retained d. biofilm on the tooth surface - Correct answer A white spot lesion Piezo tips have a ____ movement whereas magnetostrictive inserts have a _____ movement. a. oblique; lateral b. lateral; oblique c. elliptical; linear d. linear; elliptical - Correct answer Linear;elliptical All of the following are assessment instruments except: a. 11/12 explorer b. periodontal probe c. 1/2 Gracey d. mouth mirror - Correct answer 1/2 gracey Standard or universal tips are designed for: A. Deplaquing shallow pockets B. Moderate to heavy deposits C. Finishing D. Implants - Correct answer Moderate to heavy deposits 3 characteristics to consider when selecting an instrument handle are a. weight, diameter and texture b. weight, length and diameter c. length, diameter and texture d. weight, diameter, and length - Correct answer Weight, diameter and texture The universal curet has ____ working ends a. 1 P a g e 16 | 73 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 - Correct answer 2 N2O/O2 has significant negative effects on the _______________ system. a. hepatic b. endocrine c. genitourinary d. renal system e. none of these are correct - Correct answer None of these. It has very few interactions with any body system. Who devised the 1st practical classification of occlusion? a. Black b. Bolton c. Angle d. Wilhem - Correct answer Angle The preconditioning stage of biofilm attachment is considered a. Materia alba b. Acquired pellicle c. Glycocalyx d. None of the above - Correct answer Acquired pellicle Which of the following is not a primary bacterium associated with biofilm formation A. S mutans B. S sanguinis C. Actinomyces viscosus D. S viscosus - Correct answer Strep viscosus P a g e 17 | 73 a. Streptococcus mitis b. Streptococcus sobrinus c. Streptococcus salivarius d. Streptococcus pyrogenes - Correct answer Streptococcus pyogenes Which type of bacteria is most often implicated in root caries? a. Prevotella b. Lactobacillus c. Actinomyces d. Streptococcus - Correct answer Actinomyces Which microorganism can be encapsulated with a polysaccharide layer? a. Actinomyces israelii b. Neisseria meningitidis c. Staphylococcus aureus d. Streptococcus pneumoniae - Correct answer Streptococcus pneumoniae The complement system aids in the immune response by a. creating antibodies b. increasing vasodilation c. decreasing inflammation d. increasing lysis and opsonization - Correct answer Increasing lysis and opsonization In characterizing Gram + organisms, which of the following characterizes the cell wall structure of these bacteria? a. thin, 3-layer cell wall structure that stains red on examination b. thick, 2-layer cell wall structure that stains red on examination c. thick, 2-layer cell wall structure that stains blue on examination d. thick, 3-layer cell wall structure that stains blue on examination - Correct answer Thick, 2 layer cell wall structure that stains blue on examination P a g e 20 | 73 Which microscopic technique must be employed to identify mycobacterium tuberculosis? a. acid-fast staining b. dark field microscopy c. cassein-associated imaging d. scanning electron microscopy - Correct answer Acid fast staining At what stage of bacterial growth are organisms MOST susceptible to antimicrobial action? a. lag phase b. death phase c. logarithmic phase d. stationary phase - Correct answer Logarithmic phase Which bacteria is an early colonizer that is associated with the tongue? a. Streptococcus mitis b. Streptococcus sobrinus c. Streptococcus salivarius d. Streptococcus sanguinis - Correct answer Streptococcus salivarius Which characteristics are associated with porphyromonas gingivalis? a. gram-negative bacillus, aciduric, stains blue b. grampositive rod, aerobe, produces collagenase c. gram-negative rod, obligate anaerobe, surface fimbrae d. gram-negative cocci, aerotolerant anaerobe, stains red - Correct answer Gram negative rod, obligate anaerobe and surface fimbrae All of the following are RNA viruses except one. Which is the exception? A. HIV B. Mumps C. Hep A P a g e 21 | 73 D. Epstein Barr - Correct answer Epstein Barr Which of the following viruses has been linked to a heightened risk of oropharyngeal cancer? a. Coxsackie virus b. Cytomegalovirus c. Varicella-zoster virus d. human papilloma virus - Correct answer Human papilloma virus A positive Mantoux skin test is an example of a. allergic dermatitis b. tuberculosis diagnosis c. antibody mediatied reaction d. call-mediated hypersensitivity reaction - Correct answer Cell mediated hypersensitivity reaction All of the following are characteristics of autoimmune disorders except one. Which condition is the exception? A. Early onset B. Multifactorial C. Antibody mediated D. More common in females - Correct answer Early onset Which immune cell is MOST active in cellular immunity? A. T cell B. B cell C. Plasma cell D. Macrophage - Correct answer T cell Allergies to pollen is an example of a. IgA stimulation P a g e 22 | 73 c. First is true, second is false d. First is false, second is true - Correct answer Both are true T lymphocytes a. mature in the thymus b. stimulate B lymphocytes c. are derived from bone marrow d. all of the above - Correct answer All of the above Which muscle shifts the mandible to the side of the face? A. Masseter B. Temporalis C. Medial Pterygoid D. Lateral Pterygoid E. Sternocleidomastoid - Correct answer Lateral Pterygoid The maxillary teeth, buccal gingiva and pulp of molars are innervated by which cranial nerve? A. III B. IV C. V D. VII E. IX - Correct answer CN V The submandibular gland lies superior to the digastric muscles, and divided into superficial and deep lobes, are separated by the mylohyoid muscle. It produces serous type secretion only from the Stenson's duct. A. Both are true B. Both are false C. First is true, second is false D. First is false, second is true - Correct answer -First is true, second is false P a g e 25 | 73 -The submandibular gland produces both serous and mucous type secretions; this gland produces the most saliva and includes Wharton's duct All but which of the following contain taste buds? A. Foliate B. Filiform C. Fungiform D. Circumvallate E. Foliate lingual - Correct answer Filiform Major branches of the maxillary artery include all but which of the following? A. Infraorbital B. Inferior alveolar C. Superior thyroid D. Greater palatine E. Posterior superior alveolar - Correct answer Superior thyroid The pituitary gland is an endocrine protrusion off the bottom of the hypothalamus at the base of the brain. This gland is responsible for thyroid glands and metabolism as well as water/salt concentration at the kidneys, temperature regulation and pain relief. A. Both are true B. Both are false C. First is true, second is false D. First is false, second is true - Correct answer Both are true Eventually in tooth development the condensation of ectomesenchymal cells will form the dental sac which will develop into which of the following? A. PDL B. Pulp C. Dentin D. Enamel - Correct answer PDL P a g e 26 | 73 Which of the following arteries carries deoxygenated blood? A. Facial B. Lingual C. Maxillary D. Pulmonary E. Superior thyroid - Correct answer Pulmonary arteries Where do T lymphocytes mature? A. Bone B. Thyroid gland C. Thymus gland D. Pituitary gland E. Parathyroid gland - Correct answer Thymus gland Which tooth may exhibit a cusp of Carabelli? A. Maxillary 1st molar B. Maxillary premolar C. Maxillary 2nd molar D. Mandibular premolar E. Mandibular 2nd molar - Correct answer Maxillary 1st molar Rests of Malassez can develop into cysts and are formed from ______. A. Stellate reticulum B. Ectomesenchyme C. Outer enamel epithelium D. Reduced enamel epithelium E. Hertwig's Epithelial Root Sheath - Correct answer Hertwig's Epithelial Root Sheath All of the following are muscles of mastication except for which? A. Masseter P a g e 27 | 73 D. None of the above - Correct answer -Carotid -the anterior triangles of the neck contain carotid, submental and submandibular -the posterior triangles of the neck contain occipital and subclavian muscles The lymphatics draining the mandibular incisors usually empty directly into which nodes? A. Facial B. Parotid C. Submental D. Deep cervical E. Submandibular - Correct answer Submental Which of the following are TRUE regarding filiform papillae? A. Least in number B. contain taste buds C. Contain Von Ebners glands D. whitish in color E. all of the above - Correct answer -Whitish in color -Filiform papillae are the most numerous, are white and do NOT contain Von Ebner glands or taste buds Where is the sublingual caruncle location? - Correct answer It is the protrusion along the sides of the lingual frenum and is the opening for the submandibular and sublingual glands What is another term for Wharton's duct? - Correct answer Submandibular duct What is the protrusion along the sides of the frenum? - Correct answer Sublingual caruncle Which nerve innervates the muscles of facial expression? P a g e 30 | 73 a. V b. VII c. IX d. XI - Correct answer VII The Rests of Malassez are located where? a. PDL b. cementum c. dentin d. pulp e. enamel - Correct answer PDL The strongest, most wear resistant restorative material is a. gold b. amalgam c. porcelain d. composite e. porcelain fused to metal - Correct answer Gold Triclosan is a toothpaste additive used to a. prevent caries b. control sensitivity c. eliminate oral malodor d. minimize the formation of calculus e. antimicrobial, specific for gingivitis - Correct answer Antimicrobial; used specifically for gingivitis The best method to use when polishing teeth via rubber cup is a. the least abrasive agent with firm, constant pressure b. light intermittent pressure with coarse prophy paste c. highest speed, moderate pressure and appropriate prophy paste P a g e 31 | 73 d. lowest speed, least abrasive agent with light, intermittent pressure - Correct answer Lowest speed, least abrasive agent with light and intermittent pressure The main purpose for etching in preparing a tooth surface for a sealant is a. increasing wettability of the enamel b. improving retention by cleaning the area to be sealed c. to form 'tags' or microscopic pores to retain material d. all of the above - Correct answer To form "tags" or microscopic pores to retain material is the MAIN purpose Which best describes the type of retention seen with sealants A. Chemical B. Mechanical C. Chemo-mechanical D. None of the above - Correct answer Mechanical Rubber cup or air polishing will remove which? A. Fluorosis B. White spots C. Intrinsic stains D. Extrinsic stains E. Tetracycline stains - Correct answer Extrinsic stain What is the correct order for sealant placement? a. rinse, isolate, clean, dry, etch, rinse, dry, apply sealant, evaluate, check occlusion b. clean, rinse, isolate, dry, etch, rinse, dry, apply sealant, evaluate, check occlusion c. isolate, clean, rinse, dry, etch, rinse, dry, apply sealant, evaluate, check occlusion d. etch, rinse, dry, clean, rinse, isolate, dry, apply sealant, evaluate, check occlusion e. check occlusion, clean rinse, isolate, dry, etch, rinse, dry, apply sealant, evaluate - Correct answer b. Clean, rinse, isolate, dry, etch, rinse, dry, apply sealant, evaluate, check occlusion P a g e 32 | 73 C. Macrofill D. Microhybrid - Correct answer Nanofill All impression materials set by gelation with the exception of reversible hydrocolloid. Reversible hydrocolloids set by polymerization. A. Both are true B. Both are false C. First is true, second is false D. First is false, second is true - Correct answer -Both are false -All impression materials set by polymerization EXCEPT reversible hydrocolloid (agar) which sets through gelation Sensitivity can be treated clinically with 5% NaF varnishes which are FDA approved for treating hypersensitivity. Caries prevention is an off label and accepted use for 5% NaF Varnish. A. Both are true B. Both are false C. First is true, second is false D. First is false, second is true - Correct answer Both are true Caries or restoration on the incisal edge of anterior teeth or the cusp tips of posterior teeth is considered which GV black classification? a. class I b. class II c. class III d. class IV e. class V f. class VI - Correct answer Class VI Calcium hydroxide is known for which property? A. Seals dentinal tubules P a g e 35 | 73 B. Stimulates reparative dentin C. Has a sedative effect on pulp D. A & C - Correct answer Stimulates reparative dentin Which provides desensitization via nerve depolarization? A. Calcium phosphate B. Potassium nitrate C. Potassium oxalate D. Stannous Fluoride E. Strontium chloride - Correct answer Potassium nitrate Which property may result in a metallic taste? A. Thermal conductivity B. Corrosion C. Galvanism D. Tarnish E. None of the above - Correct answer Galvanism What is used as a measurement of heat transfer? A. Coefficient of thermal expansion B. Corrosion C. Hardness D. Tarnish E. Thermal conductivity - Correct answer Thermal conductivity Which of the following materials has the highest thermal conductivity? A. Ceramics B. Composites C. Dentin D. Enamel E. Gold alloy - Correct answer Gold alloy P a g e 36 | 73 What change in alveolar bone on a dental radiograph indicates early loss of bone? A. Fuzziness in the crest of bone B. Faint cup shaped areas interproximally C. Vertical or angular defects D. Furcation involvement - Correct answer Fuzziness in the crest of bone After bacterial virulence is established and the perio lesion is initiated, which is the 1st inflammatory cell to respond? A. B lymphocytes B. Plasma cells C. Neutrophils D. Macrophages - Correct answer Neutrophils The periodontal ligament fiber group that runs from the cementum to the crystal bone is termed a. alveolar crest b. apical c. horizontal d. interradicular e. oblique - Correct answer Alveolar crest The most commonly found perio pathogen in chronic perio is a. gram-positive cocci b. orange complex bacteria c. red complex bacteria d. spirochetes - Correct answer Red complex bacteria (aka P. gingivalis) Which of the following are characteristics of aggressive perio? A. A long standing inflammatory disease with periods of remission and exacerbation B. A slowly progressive disease that usually manifests itself around puberty P a g e 37 | 73 b. pregnancy-related gingivitis c. necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis d. gingival abscess - Correct answer Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis Which condition should be suspected when a radiolucent area occurs at the apex of the root of a tooth on a radiograph? a. periodontal abscess b. pyogenic granuloma c. occlusal trauma d. periapical abscess - Correct answer Periapical abscess What is the principle etiologic agent of periodontitis? a. subgingival calculus b. neutrophil deficiency c. dental plaque biofilm d. antigen-antibody reactions - Correct answer Dental plaque biofilm The health status of the gingiva should be described with all of the universal descriptive categories listed below except one. Which one is the exception? A. Color B. Contour C. Consistency D. Stimuli E. Texture - Correct answer Stimuli BOP indicates a. disease activity b. presence of inflammation c. presence of subgingival calculus d. presence of supragingival calculus - Correct answer Presence of inflammation P a g e 40 | 73 Gingival tissue enlargement is a common side effect of a. nitroglycerin b. corticosteroids c. local anesthetics d. endogenous epinephrine e. calcium channel blockers - Correct answer Ca channel blockers, immunosuppressants, and anticonvulsants The goal of perio instrumentation is to return the periodontium to a state of health. Periodontal health is achieved through surgical therapy techniques. A. Both parts are true B. Both parts are false C. First part is true, the second is false D. First part is false, the second is true - Correct answer -First part is true, the second is false. -the long term goal of NSPT is to restore gingival health. This restoration is the sum of plaque control, periodontal debridement, and time for healing to occur The types of perio surgery that increase the predictability for growth of new tissues of the periodontal apparatus are called procedures for A. Access to the root surface B. Guided tissue regeneration C. Treatment of osseous defects D. Pocket reduction or elimination - Correct answer Guided tissue regeneration The most common oral site for donor tissue for free gingival graft procedures is the a. palate b. tongue c. lingual mucosa d. fresh extraction site - Correct answer Palate P a g e 41 | 73 Which of the following findings would indicate a failed dental implant? A. Peri implant inflammation B. BOP C. Alveolar bone loss D. Mobility - Correct answer Mobility All of the following are advantages of controlled drug delivery (sustained release drug delivery) over systemic drug administration in periodontal therapy EXCEPT one. Which is the exception? A. Less concern about client adherence throughout indicated time frame B. Site specific antimicrobial action in perio pocket C. High concentration delivered to the site of infection D. Can be used when periodontal infection is generalized or severe - Correct answer - Can be used when periodontal infection is generalized or severe -controlled (sustained release) drug delivery is site specific and application is limited to a specific number of sites depending on the drug selected -therefore, systemic antibiotics are used for generalized conditions warranting antibiotic therapy Which of the following oral conditions are contagious? A. Acute pericoronitis B. Chronic perio C. Herpetic gingivostomatitis D. NUG - Correct answer Herpetic gingivostomatitis Which of the following local anesthetic agents may be useful in patients with hepatic dysfunction? A. Articaine B. Lidocaine C. Bupivacine P a g e 42 | 73 b. decreasing blood pressure c. increasing vasoconstriction d. relaxing arterial smooth muscle - Correct answer Relaxing arterial smooth muscle The metabolite formed during metabolism (biotransformation) is more polar and less lipid soluble than its parent compound. This allows for the metabolite to be excreted. A. Both parts are true B. Both parts are false C. First part is true, the second is false D. First part is false, the second is true - Correct answer Both parts are true What part of a prescription instructs the patient how to take the medication? a. ac b. sig c. q3h d. stat - Correct answer B. sig which means write on label. -ac: at meals -q3h: every 3 hours -stat: immediately All of the following meds affect bleeding times Except one. Which is the exception? A. Aspirin B. ibuprofen C. Coumadin D. Acetaminophen - Correct answer Acetaminophen A patient reports using fluticasone (Flovent) to control asthma symptoms. Upon exam, you notice white patches on the soft palate. What is the likely cause? a. stomatitis b. linea alba c. SLS allergy P a g e 45 | 73 d. candidiasis - Correct answer Candidiasis Fosamax is often used as a medication to treat osteoporosis. What adverse oral side effect has been linked to Fosamax use? a. candidiasis b. necrosis of the mandible c. increased aphthous ulcer incidence d. widened periodontal ligament space - Correct answer Necrosis of the mandible Nitrous oxide is eliminated via a. exhalation b. excretion in the urine c. p-450 enzyme system d. biotransformation in the respiratory system - Correct answer Exhalation Which of the following agents is the drug of choice for an early dental infection unless the patient is allergic to it? a. penecillin b. clindamycin c. erythromycin d. metronidazole - Correct answer Penicillin Primary site for drug metabolism a. liver b. sweat c. kidneys d. gingival crevicular fluid - Correct answer Liver Your patient presents with peptic ulcer disease and is taking Coumadin for stroke prevention. Which of the following analgesic agents should you recommend following invasive procedures? P a g e 46 | 73 a. Aspirin b. ibuprofen c. naproxen d. acetaminophen - Correct answer Acetaminophen Omeprazole (Prilosec) is a medication primarily used in treatment of a. GERD b. hypertension c. muscle spasm d. high cholesterol - Correct answer GERD Treatment with all of the following agents is associated with development of gingival hypertrophy EXCEPT one. Which is the exception? A. Clonidine B. Nifedipine C. Verapamil D. Phenytoin - Correct answer Clonidine Agents such as albuterol (Proventil, Ventolin) cause bronchodilation by binding to a. beta 1 receptors b. beta 2 receptors c. alpha receptors d. nicotinic receptors - Correct answer Beta 2 Receptors An abnormal drug response that is usually genetically related is termed a. teratogenic response b. idiosyncratic response c. potency-efficacy reaction d. type II hypersensitivity reaction - Correct answer Idiosyncratic reaction Which route of drug administration is used to administer insulin? P a g e 47 | 73 a. side effect b. drug allergy c. toxic reaction d. therapeutic effect - Correct answer A side effect Which of the following choices has anti-inflammatory, antipyretic, analgesic and anti platelet action? A. Aspirin B. Codeine C. Hydrocodone D. Acetaminophen - Correct answer Aspirin The most common adverse reaction associated with any insulin product is a. bradycardia b. hypoglycemia c. hyperglycemia d. intestinal stasis - Correct answer Hypoglycemia Which of the following products is the most commonly used opioid in dentistry? A. Codeine B. Morphine C. Hydrocodone D. Oxymorphone - Correct answer Codeine What part of a prescription instructs the patient how to take a med? A. ac (at meals) B. sig C. q3h D. stat (immediately) - Correct answer Sig: that means "write on label" therefore the instructions are on the bottle P a g e 50 | 73 What virus is associated with herpangina? a. coxsackie virus b. chickenpox virus c. Epstein Barr virus d. varicella zoster - Correct answer Coxsackie virus Epulis fissuratum is caused by a. denture cleaner b. allergic reaction c. denture suction chaber d. ill-fitting denture - Correct answer An ill fitting denture What is the most common site for a supernumerary tooth? a. distal to the maxillary third molar b. distal to the mandibular third molar c. between the maxillary central incisors d. between the mandibular central incisors - Correct answer Between max centrals All of the following are symptoms of NUG except: A. Odor B. Pain and bleeding C. Hyperkeratinization D. Punched out papillae - Correct answer Hyperkeratinization Loss of tooth structure caused by chemical action describes a. allergy b. erosion c. attrition d. abrasion - Correct answer Erosion Characteristic hyperplasia of which papillae is termed hairy tongue P a g e 51 | 73 a. foliate b. filiform c. fungiform d. circumvallate - Correct answer Filiform papillae A ranula is usually found on the a. mucosa b. vestibule c. labial fold d. floor of mouth - Correct answer Floor of the mouth All of the following meds have been associated with gingival hyperplasia EXCEPT A. Fosamax B. Phenytoin C. Nifedipine D. Cyclosporine - Correct answer Fosamax - bisphosphonate that may induce osteonecrosis of the jaw Wickham's striae is seen with a. lichen planus b. Kaposi's sarcoma c. erythema multiforme d. lupus erythematosus - Correct answer Lichen planus Which is a multilocular radiolucency (honey combed) usually found in the posterior region of the mandible? A. Cementoma B. Radicular cyst C. Ameloblastoma D. Condensing osteitis - Correct answer Ameloblastoma P a g e 52 | 73 Oral candidiasis is caused by a a. fungus b. protozoan c. bacterium d. spirochete - Correct answer Fungus All of the following conditions are associated with Epstein Barr Virus except A. Herpangina B. Hairy leukoplakia C. Infectious mono D. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma - Correct answer Herpangina Which microorganism is associated with Tuberculosis? A. Treponema pallidum B. Actinomycosis israelii C. Mycobacterium israelii D. Mycobacterium Tuberculosis - Correct answer Mycobacterium TB A positive skin reaction to PPD indicates a. active tuberculosis b. need for antibiotics c. contagious tuberculosis d. exposure to the tuberculosis bacteria - Correct answer Exposure to TB All are clinical characteristics of NUG EXCEPT A. Foul odor B. Xerostomia C. Metallic taste D. Painful gingiva - Correct answer Xerostomia All contribute to development of oral candidiasis except P a g e 55 | 73 A. Xerostomia B. Herpangina C. HIV infection D. Antibiotic therapy - Correct answer Herpangina What is the term for the theory that a disease can be attributed to many factors? a. dimensional b. multifactorial c. naturalization d. cause and effect - Correct answer Multifactorial A negatively skewed distribution has a curve that is shifted to the left. The curve of a negatively skewed distribution results from more scores falling in the lower range. A. Both parts are true B. Both parts are false C. First part is true, the second is false D. First part is false, the second is true - Correct answer -Both parts are false -A negatively skewed distribution has a curve that is shifted to the RIGHT and does so due to more scores falling in the HIGHER range -The situation described in the question is a positively skewed distribution The number of new cases of a disease in a population over a given period of time is referred to as a. incidence b. mortality c. causality d. prevalence e. morbidity - Correct answer Incidence During which stage does the RDH develop a blueprint? A. Planning P a g e 56 | 73 B. Evaluation C. Assessment D. Implementation E. Dental hygiene diagnosis - Correct answer Planning Designing a community health program in the local community that provides mouthguard to the student athletes is what type of prevention? a. primary prevention b. secondary prevention c. tertiary prevention d. modern prevention - Correct answer Primary prevention What is the top step of the learning ladder? a. habit b. action c. awareness d. involvement - Correct answer Habit In a data set, the median is the a. average b. midpoint c. least frequently occurring value d. most frequently occurring value - Correct answer Midpoint Which type of research studies the same population over an extended period of time? a. pilot study b. historical study c. longitudinal study d. experimental study e. retrospective study - Correct answer Longitudinal study P a g e 57 | 73 c. type 3 d. type 4 - Correct answer Type 3 After giving a patient toothbrushing instructions, the Patient Hygiene Performance Index (PHP) assesses the extent of what? a. gingival bleeding b. plaque and debris c. gingival inflammation d. clinical attachment loss - Correct answer Plaque and debris Demographic information suggests a negative correlation between dental decay and SES. This means that as a SES decreases, the observance of dental decay increases. A. Both parts are true B. Both parts are false C. First part is true, the second is false D. First part is false, the second is true - Correct answer Both parts are true A small version of a proposed study that is used to test the design prior to the long term study is called a a. case study b. pilot study c. pivotal study d. descriptive study - Correct answer Pilot study The number of all existing cases of a disease in a population measured at a given point is referred to as a. incidence b. mortality c. morbidity d. prevalence - Correct answer Prevalence P a g e 60 | 73 The internal evaluation of a program is referred to as the formative evaluation. It is conducted after the implementation of the program. A. Both parts are true B. Both parts are false C. First part is true, the second is false D. First part is false, the second is true - Correct answer -First part is true, the second is false -It is conducted during the PLANNING phase The 5 dimensional health model includes all of the following except one. Which is the exception? A. Mental B. Physical C. Spiritual D. Emotional E. Psychological - Correct answer Psychological (the one missing is social) During which stage are the goals/objectives measured? a. planning b. diagnosis c. evaluation d. assessment e. implementation - Correct answer Evaluation The 2nd step on the learning ladder is? a. action b. awareness c. self-interest d. involvement - Correct answer Awareness (1. Unawareness, 2. Awareness, 3. Self interest, 4. Involvement, 5. Action, 6. Habit) P a g e 61 | 73 What type of sampling technique selects every nth subject to participate in a study? a. random b. stratified c. systematic d. judgemental e. convenience - Correct answer Systematic The nursing home in your neighborhood has 8 residents with full natural dentition. Their ages range from 85-95 years old. Their nurse has indicated to you that they have a need for improved oral hygiene and all of them suffer from moderate-severe arthritis. The admin has asked you to work with the nursing home to implement a dental community health program for these residents. The nursing home has a portable dental chair for use, but you decide for ease of assessment to use only a tongue depressor and available lighting to assess residents. You have the residents chew a disclosing tablet and expectorate the excess in a sink. Upon performing the patient hygiene performance index (PHP) you document their scores 2.5, 1.5, 2.75, 2.5, 2.25, 2.5, 3.0, and 1.5. You plan to provide Oral hygiene instructions to the residents once a week and will reassess the population in 2 months. What type of exam is used in this program? a. type 1 b. type 2 c. type 3 d. type 4 - Correct answer Type 4 The nursing home in your neighborhood has 8 residents with full natural dentition. Their ages range from 85-95 years old. Their nurse has indicated to you that they have a need for improved oral hygiene and all of them suffer from moderate-severe arthritis. The admin has asked you to work with the nursing home to implement a dental community health program for these residents. The nursing home has a portable dental chair for use, but you decide for ease of assessment to use only a tongue depressor P a g e 62 | 73 tablet and expectorate the excess in a sink. Upon performing the patient hygiene performance index (PHP) you document their scores 2.5, 1.5, 2.75, 2.5, 2.25, 2.5, 3.0, and 1.5. You plan to provide Oral hygiene instructions to the residents once a week and will reassess the population in 2 months. When you return to the nursing home in two months and perform another PHP on the residents, you discover that the mean PHP score has decreased. This is what stage of your program? a. planning b. diagnosis c. evaluation d. assessment - Correct answer evaluation Epinephrine should be avoided or used with caution in patients who are taking all of the following except: A. Chantix B. Lanoxin C. Synthroid D. Beta blocker - Correct answer Synthroid Which of the following is the serum marker for HIV infection? A. HAV B. HBcAg C. HBsAG D. HIV antibody - Correct answer HIV antibody Antibiotic prophylaxis is recommended for all of the following conditions except: A. Cardiac transplant B. Heart vance prosthesis C. Chronic renal failure D. Previous coronary artery bypass - Correct answer Previous coronary artery bypass P a g e 65 | 73 Exophthalmos may be a symptom of a. cretinism b. hypothyroidism c. hyperthyroidism d. marfan syndrome - Correct answer -Hyperthyroidism -bulging of the eyes Episodic vasoconstriction of digits due to cold temps is a symptoms of a. Reye's syndrome b. marfans syndrome c. epidermolysis bullosa d. raynaud's phenomenon - Correct answer Raynaud's phenomenon In the emergency treatment of angina pectoris, the mechanism of action of nitroglycerin is a. relaxation of cardiac muscle b. blocking beta adrenergic receptors c. relaxation of vascular smooth muscle d. reflex decrease in heart rate and contractility - Correct answer Relaxation of vascular smooth muscles Mucosal pallor, delayed tooth eruption, and atrophy of tongue papillae are all oral manifestations of a. hepatitis b. Crohn's disease c. sickle cell anemia d. chronic renal failure - Correct answer Sickle Cell Anemia Stage 2 HTN is classified when a client's BP is a consistent reading of A. 145/98 P a g e 66 | 73 B. 110/75 C. 120/80 D. 180/120 - Correct answer 145/98 Which type of hepatitis is caused by poor hygiene, transmitted via oral-fecal route? a. Type A and E b. Type A, B, C c. Type B and E d. Type D and E - Correct answer Type A & E Which condition is associated with diffuse pigmentation of the skin and mucosa caused by insufficient adrenal cortical steroid production? a. Myxedema b. diabetes mellitus c. Addison's disease d. Cushing's syndrome - Correct answer Addison's disease According to the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA), in public facilities both architectural and communication barriers must be removed. A dentist who leases an office is not responsible for ensuring that the office is accessible to people with disabilities. A. Both parts are true B. Both parts are false C. First part is true, the second is false D. First part is false, the second is true - Correct answer -First part is true, the second is false -A dentist IS responsible All of the following are examples of instrumental activities of daily living (IADL's) except A. Client can brush his teeth B. Client can clean his house P a g e 67 | 73 B. Conducted in short morning appts. to help control environmental stress C. Designed to address the client's needs regarding lifestyle changes and perio disease status D. All of the above - Correct answer All of the above Which of the following is characterized by myocardial dysfunction, diminished cardiac output, or abnormal circulatory congestion? A. Atherosclerosis B. Coronary heart disease C. Patent ductus arteriosus D. Congestive heart failure - Correct answer Congestive heart failure A 58 year old male requires extensive perio treatment. He has been on anticoagulant drug therapy and is taking warfarin (Coumadin). In order to avoid post treatment hemorrhage, the RDH should first A. Prescribe vitamin K B. Ask him to discontinue taking the drug C. Ask for a determination of his prothrombin time D. Consult his doctor about discontinuing medication - Correct answer Consult his doctor about discontinuing medication Which consequence may be likely if a client suffering with angina were to delay a sublingual dose of nitroglycerin? A. Angina attack B. Atrial fibrillation C. Myocardial infarction D. Hypertensive reaction - Correct answer Myocardial infarction Which of the following is a dental hygiene care consideration for a hypertensive client? A. Recording prothrombin time B. Vasopressors in local anesthetic agents P a g e 70 | 73 C. Short appts. to control environmental stress D. Caution in manipulating oral tissues to avoid severity of bacteremia - Correct answer Vasopressors in local anesthetic agents Which of the following routes of administration bypasses the GI tract? a. IV b. oral c. buccal d. sublingual - Correct answer IV Which of the following agencies is responsible for the approval of drugs? a. FDA b. EPA c. CDC d. BCD - Correct answer FDA Which of the following terms describes the development of constipation right after a patient started taking acetaminophen with codeine after a tooth extraction? a. toxicity b. allergy c. idiosyncracy d. side effect - Correct answer side effect Which of the following drugs should not be taken with alcohol? a. ciprofloxacin b. metronidazole c. epinephrine d. digoxin - Correct answer metronidazole Which of the following drugs is indicated in the treatment of trigeminal neuralgia? a. phenytoin P a g e 71 | 73 b. acetaminophen c. carbamazepine d. lidocaine - Correct answer carbamazepine - (for tic doloreux) Which of the following adverse effects is commonly seen in patients taking an NSAID? a. GI bleeding b. hair loss c. sedation d. xerostomia - Correct answer GI bleeding Which of the following are NSAIDs? a. ibuprofen b. aspirin c. naproxen d. all of the above - Correct answer all of the above Which of the following drugs interact with systemic fluconazole? a. erythromycin b. penicillin c. propanolol d. digoxin - Correct answer erythromycin Which of the following medications is used for the management of burning mouth syndrome? a. antidepressants b. clotrimazole troche c. nystatin tablets d. mycostatin pastilles - Correct answer antidepressants Which of the following drugs can cause xerostomia? a. digoxin P a g e 72 | 73