NCC ELECTRONIC FETAL MONITORING CERTIFICATION (EFM) EXAM, PRACTICE EXAM AND TEST BANK 2024, Exams of Nursing

Download NCC ELECTRONIC FETAL MONITORING CERTIFICATION (EFM) EXAM, PRACTICE EXAM AND TEST BANK 2024 and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! NCC ELECTRONIC FETAL MONITORING CERTIFICATION (EFM) EXAM, PRACTICE EXAM AND TEST BANK 2024 | ACCURATE REAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS | EXPERT VERIFIED FOR GUARANTEED PASS | GRADED A What is your first intervention in management of a patient experiencing variable decelerations? a. Immediate delivery b. Change maternal position c. No treatment indicated d. Oxygen e. Stop oxytocin infusion b. Change maternal position Etiology of a baseline FHR of 165bpm occurring for the last hour can be: 1. Maternal supine hypotension 2. Maternal fever 3. Maternal dehydration 4. Unknown a. 1 and 2 b. 1, 2 and 3 c. 2, 3 and 4 c. 2, 3 and 4 What is the most probable cause of recurrent late decelerations? a. Utero-placental insufficiency b. Head compression c. Cord compression d. Maternal position change a. Utero-placental insufficiency The most prevalent risk factor associated with fetal death before the onset of labor is: a. Low socioeconomic status b. Fetal malpresentation c. Uteroplacental insufficiency d. Uterine anomalies c. Uteroplacental insufficiency Which of the following is NOT used for antepartum fetal surveillance? a. Fetal movement counting b. Antepartum fetal heart rate testing c. Biophysical profile testing d. Maternal HCG levels d. Maternal HCG levels Which of the following conditions is not an indication for antepartum fetal surveillance? a. Gestational hypertension b. Diabetes in pregnancy c. Fetus in breech presentation d. Decreased fetal movement c. Fetus in breech presentation Which of the following does not affect the degree of fetal activity? a. Vibroacoustic stimulation b. Smoking c. Fetal position d. Gestational age a. Vibroacoustic stimulation To be considered reactive, a nonstress test must have: a. 4 fetal heart rate accelerations in a 20 minute window b. 2 fetal heart rate accelerations in a 10 minute window c. 4 fetal heart rate accelerations in a 40 minute window d. 2 fetal heart rate accelerations in a 20 minute window d. 2 fetal heart rate accelerations in a 20 minute window If a nonstress test is nonreactive after 40 minutes, the next step should be: a. Have the client go home and do fetal movement counts b. Do a biophysical profile or contraction stress test c. Repeat the nonstress test within a week d. Admit the client for delivery b. Do a biophysical profile or contraction stress test All of the following are components of a biophysical profile except: a. Contraction stress test b. Assessment of fetal breathing c. Amniotic fluid volume measurement d. Fetal movement assessment a. Contraction stress test A modified biophysical profile includes a nonstress test and: a. Contraction stress test b. Ultrasound assessment of fetal movement C. Perform SVE D. Administer oxygen C. Perform SVE During a term antepartum NST (non-stress test), you notice several variable decelerations that decrease at least 15 bpm and last at least 15 sec long. Which of the following is the least likely explanation? A. True knot B. Gestational diabetes C. Umbilical cord entanglement D. Oligohydramnios B. Gestational diabetes All of the following are likely causes of prolonged decelerations except: A. Uterine tachysystole B. Prolapsed cord C. Maternal hypotension D. Maternal fever D. Maternal fever _______ decelerations occur with less than 50% of contractions. A. Recurrent B. Intermittent C. Repetitive B. Intermittent _______ decelerations occur with greater than or equal to 50% of contractions. A. Recurrent B. Intermittent C. Repetitive A. Recurrent All of the following could likely cause minimal variability in FHR except A. Magnesium sulfate administration B. Fetal sleep cycle C. Narcotic administration D. Ephedrine administration D. Ephedrine administration When an IUPC has been placed, Montevideo units must be ___ or greater for adequate cervical change to occur. A. 100 B. 200 C. 300 D. 400 B. 200 The ________ increases the heart rate and strengthens myocardial contractions through the release of epinephrine and nonepinephrine. A. Sympathetic nervous system B. Parasympathetic nervous system A. Sympathetic nervous system The ________, through stimulation of the vagus nerve, reduces FHR and maintains variability. A. Sympathetic nervous system B. Parasympathetic nervous system B. Parasympathetic nervous system What would be a suspected pH in a fetus whose FHTs included recurrent late decelerations during labor? A. 7.10 B. 7.26 C. 7.32 D. 7.41 A. 7.10 What is the most common cause of sinusoidal patterns? A. Prolapsed cord B. Rh incompatibility C. Recurrent late decelerations D. Oligohydramnios B. Rh incompatibility Before ___ weeks of gestation, an increase in FHR that peaks at least 10 bpm above the baseline and lasts at least 10 seconds is considered an acceleration. A. 28 B. 30 C. 32 D. 36 C. 32 The expected response of the fetal heart rate to active fetal movement of a 31-week gestational age fetus is: a. Suppression of normal short term variability for 15 seconds b. Acceleration of at least 15 beats per minute for 15 seconds c. Acceleration followed by a 15-second deceleration of the heart rate d. Acceleration of at least 10 beats per minute for 10 seconds d. Acceleration of at least 10 beats per minute for 10 seconds The nurse notes a pattern of variable decelerations to 75 bpm on the fetal monitor. The initial nursing action is to: a. Reposition the woman b. Administer oxygen c. Increase the intravenous fluid infusion d. Stimulate the fetal scalp a. Reposition the woman The tocotransducer should be placed: a. In the suprapubic area b. In the fundal area c. Over the xiphoid process d. Within the uterus b. In the fundal area The nurse notes a pattern of decelerations on the fetal monitor that begins shortly after the contraction and returns to baseline just before the contraction is over. The correct nursing response is to: a. Give the woman oxygen by facemask at 8-10 L/min b. Position the woman on her opposite side c. Increase the rate of the woman's intravenous fluid d. Continue to observe and record the normal pattern d. Continue to observe and record the normal pattern Determining the FHR baseline requires the nurse to approximate the mean FHR rounded to increments of 5 bpm during a ___-minute window (excluding accelerations and decelerations). A. 2 B. 5 C. 10 D. 20 C. 10 Uterine tachysystole is observed when there are A. 5 or more contractions in 10 min B. 6 or more contractions in 10 min C. 10 or more contractions in 10 min D. 7 or more contractions in 10 min B. 6 or more contractions in 10 min A deceleration from 145bpm down to 100bpm lasting 12 minutes may be defined as a A. Prolonged deceleration B. Variable deceleration C. Late deceleration D. Baseline change D. Baseline change Reduced respiratory gas exchange from persistent decelerations may cause a rise in fetal PCO2, which leads first to _______ _______, then _______ _______. A. Respiratory alkalosis; metabolic acidosis B. Respiratory acidosis; metabolic acidosis C. Respiratory alkalosis; metabolic alkalosis D. Respiratory acidosis; metabolic acidosis B. Respiratory acidosis; metabolic acidosis Decreased intervillious exchange of oxygenated blood resulting in fetal hypoxia is typically present in _______. A. Variable decelerations B. Late decelerations C. Early decelerations D. Accelerations B. Late decelerations Place the following interventions for a sinusoidal FHR in the correct order: 1. Prepare for cesarean delivery 2. Place patient in lateral position 3. Determine if pattern is related to narcotic analgesic administration 4. Provide oxygen via face mask A. 4, 2, 3, 1 B. 3, 1, 2, 4 C. 4, 3, 2, 1 D. 3, 2, 4, 1 D. 3, 2, 4, 1 The _____ is the source of all fetal oxygenation. A. Placenta B. Umbilical cord C. Mother D. Amniotic fluid C. Mother FHTs with recurrent variable decelerations, no accelerations, and minimal variability would be categorized as A. Category I B. Category II C. Category III B. Category II FHTs with absent variability and bradycardia would be categorized as A. Category I B. Category II C. Category III C. Category III FHTs with moderate variability, no accelerations, and early decelerations would be categorized as A. Category I B. Category II C. Category III A. Category I FHTs with accelerations, no decelerations, and minimal variability would be categorized as A. Category I B. Category II C. Category III B. Category II Sinusoidal pattern is categorized as A. Category I B. Category II C. Category III B. Category III FHTs with absent variability and no accelerations or decelerations would be categorized as A. Category I B. Category II C. Category III B. Category II Absence of accelerations following fetal stimulation (i.e. scalp stimulation) is categorized as A. Category I B. Category II C. Category III B. Category II FHTs with minimal variability, absent accelerations, and a 3-minute prolonged deceleration would be categorized as A. Category I B. Category II C. Category III B. Category II FHTs with minimal variability and a baseline of 95bpm would be categorized as A. Category I B. Category II C. Category III B. Category II FHTs with a baseline of 170bpm, moderate variability, and no accelerations or decelerations would be categorized as A. Category I B. Category II C. Category III B. Category II FHTs with a baseline 135bpm, moderate variability, accelerations, and one late deceleration would be categorized as A. Category I B. Category II C. Category III B. Category II A prolonged acceleration lasts greater than ___ minutes and less than ___ minutes. A. 2; 10 B. 2; 20 C. 10; 20 D. 10; 20 A. 2; 10 _______ FHR patterns are those associated with uterine contractions. A. Periodic B. Episodic C. Recurrent D. Irregular A. Periodic _______ FHR patterns are those that are not associated with uterine contractions. A. Periodic Findings indicative of progressive fetal hypoxemia are A. Late decelerations, moderate variability, stable baseline rate B. Prolonged decelerations recovering to baseline and moderate variability C. Loss of variability and recurrent late or variable decelerations C. Loss of variability and recurrent late or variable decelerations Clinically significant fetal metabolic academia is indicated by an arterial cord gas pH of less than or equal to 7.10 and a base deficit of A. 3 B. 6 C. 12 C. 12 Fetal bradycardia can result during A. The sleep state B. Umbilical vein compression C. Vagal stimulation C. Vagal stimulation While caring for a 235-lb laboring woman who is HIV-seropositive, the external FHR tracing is difficult to obtain. An appropriate nursing action would be to A. Apply a fetal scalp electrode B. Auscultate for presence of FHR variability C. Notify the attending midwife or physician C. Notify the attending midwife or physician FHR decelerations that are benign and do not require intervention are A. Early B. Late C. Variable A. Early FHR decelerations that results from decreased uteroplacental blood flow are A. Early B. Late C. Variable B. Late FHR decelerations that results from umbilical cord compression are A. Early B. Late C. Variable C. Variable An FHR pattern associated with severe fetal anemia is A. Lambda B. Saltatory C. Sinusoidal C. Sinusoidal A workup for maternal systemic lupus erythematosus would likely be ordered in the presence of A. Complete fetal heart block B. Premature ventricular contractions C. Fetal supraventricular tachycardia A. Complete fetal heart block Which IV fluid is most appropriate for maternal administration for intrauterine resuscitation? A. Lactated Ringer's solution B. D5L/R C. Normal saline C. Normal saline The position that best promotes maternal-fetal exchange is A. Left lateral B. Right lateral C. Either right or left lateral C. Either right or left lateral The most appropriate equipment for administration of maternal oxygen for intrauterine resuscitation at 10 L/min is a A. Nasal cannula B. Simple face mask C. Nonrebreather face mask C. Nonrebreather face mask Accurate determination of baseline rate requires A. At least 2 contiguous minutes of FHR in a 10-min window B. Evaluation of the FHR over at least a 10-min window C. Averaging the FHR over 30 min B. Evaluation of the FHR over at least a 10-min window An EFM tracing with absent variability and no decelerations would be classified as A. Category I B. Category II (indeterminate) C. Category III B. Category II (indeterminate) An EFM tracing with absent variability and intermittent late decelerations would be classified as A. Category I B. Category II C. Category III B. Category II Interpretation and classification of FHR patterns are based on predictability of fetal status A. At birth B. At the time the pattern is observed C. Over the previous hour B. At the time the pattern is observed Amnioinfusion is an appropriate measure for A. Thick, meconium-stained fluid B. Oligohydramnios C. Recurrent variable decelerations unresolved by position changes C. Recurrent variable decelerations unresolved by position changes Baroreceptors respond to changes in fetal A. Blood pressure B. Oxygen status C. Acid-base status A. Blood pressure Fetal scalp stimulation is appropriate in the context of A. Minimal variability B. Prolonged deceleration C. Bradycardia A. Minimal variability Maternal oxygen administration is appropriate in the context of A. Recurrent variable decelerations/moderate variability B. Intermittent late decelerations/minimal variability C. Prolonged decelerations/moderate variability B. Intermittent late decelerations/minimal variability A preterm fetus A. Is more susceptible to hypoxic insults during labor than the term fetus B. Requires internal monitoring if oxytocin is used for labor induction or augmentation C. Should be born via cesarean section unless there are maternal contraindications A. Is more susceptible to hypoxic insults during labor than the term fetus Baroreceptors influence _____ decelerations with moderate variability. Variable Following an ultrasound which revealed decreased amniotic fluid, a woman at term is admitted in early labor. It should be recognized that oligohydramnios often results in fetal heart rate decelerations that are A. Late in onset or occur after the peak of the contraction B. Synchronous with that of the contraction C. Varied in depth and duration C. Varied in depth and duration In comparing early and late decelerations, a distinguishing factor between the two is A. Onset time to the nadir of the deceleration B. The number of decelerations that occur C. Timing in relation to contractions C. Timing in relation to contractions The underlying cause of early decelerations is decreased A. Baroceptor response B. Increased peripheral resistance C. Vagal reflex C. Vagal reflex Glucose is transferred across the placenta via _____ _____. Facilitated diffusion Oxygen, carbon dioxide, water, electrolytes, urea, uric acid, fatty acids, fat-soluble vitamins, narcotics barbiturates, anesthetics, and antibiotics are transferred across the placenta via _____ _____. Simple (passive) diffusion Amino acids, water-soluble vitamins, calcium, phosphorus, iron, and iodine are transferred across the placenta via _____ _____. Active transport Well-oxygenated fetal blood enters the _____ ventricle, which supplies the heart and brain. Less- oxygenated blood enters the ______ ventricle, which supplies the rest of the body. Left; right The _____ _____ allows relatively well-oxygenated blood to enter the fetal heart directly, bypassing the liver. Ductus venosus The _____ _____ allows blood to bypass the lungs, flowing from the pulmonary artery to the aorta. Ductus arteriosus The _____ _____ is the shunt that bypasses the fetal lungs, moving blood from the right atrium to the left atrium. Foramen ovale Fetal blood has a _______ hemoglobin concentration compared to adults. A. Higher B. Lower A. Higher Greater oxygen-carrying capacity Fetal blood has a _______ affinity for oxygen compared with the mother's blood, which facilitates adaptation to the low PO2 at which the placenta oxygenates the fetus. A. Higher B. Lower A. Higher The fetus has a _______ cardiac output and heart rate than the adult, resulting in rapid circulation. A. Higher B. Lower A. Higher As the FHR increases, the myocardium consumes _____ oxygen. A. More B. Less A. More The fetal spiral electrode measures the A. Peaks of the Doppler waveforms B. R to R intervals of the fetal heart C. ST segments of the fetal ECG B. R to R intervals of the fetal heart A woman who is admitted for an induction of labor with oxytocin is questioning the need for continuous electronic fetal monitoring. The appropriate response to this woman is A. Hospital policy requires that all patients have continuous electronic fetal monitoring. B. I would like to answer your questions about continuous monitoring and give you some information about why continuous monitoring is recommended. C. Nurses have more training with continuous electronic fetal monitoring than intermittent auscultation so it is safer for you and your baby to use this method. B. I would like to answer your questions about continuous monitoring and give you some information about why continuous monitoring is recommended. The greater affinity that fetal hemoglobin has for oxygen allows for A. Easier release of oxygen to the tissues B. Greater binding of oxygen C. Stimulation of erythropoietin release B. Greater binding of oxygen The process by which oxygen and carbon dioxide pass from a region of higher concentration to one of a lower concentration is called A. Active transport B. Simple diffusion C. Facilitated diffusion B. Simple diffusion In the healthy fetus, blood flows from the right atrium to the left atrium through the A. Ductus arteriosus B. Ductus venosus C. Foramen ovale C. Foramen ovale In the healthy fetus, the umbilical cord enters the fetal abdomen and bypasses the liver through the A. Ductus arteriosus B. Ductus venosus C. Foramen ovale B. Ductus venosus Which statement best describes the relationship between maternal and fetal hemoglobin levels? A. Fetal hemoglobin is higher than maternal hemoglobin B. Maternal hemoglobin is higher than fetal hemoglobin C. Maternal and fetal hemoglobin are the same A. Fetal hemoglobin is higher than maternal hemoglobin We have an expert-written solution to this problem! B. Early deceleration C. Tachycardia B. Early deceleration Which fetal monitoring pattern is characteristic of cephalopelvic disproportion, especially when seen at the onset of labor? A. Early deceleration B. Late deceleration C. Variable deceleration A. Early deceleration A risk of amnioinfusion is A. Prolonged labor B. Uterine overdistension C. Water intoxication B. Uterine overdistension A fetal heart rate pattern that the NICHD has identified as predictive of current or impending fetal asphyxia so severe that the fetus is at risk of neurologic damage or death is A. Baseline tachycardia with absent variability B. Minimal baseline variability with recurrent late decelerations C. Recurrent late or variable decelerations with absent variability C. Recurrent late or variable decelerations with absent variability A fetal heart rate pattern that can occur when there is a prolapsed cord is A. Marked variability B. Prolonged decelerations C. Tachycardia B. Prolonged decelerations The patient is in early labor with pitocin at 8 mu/min, and FHR is Category I. In the next 15 minutes, there are 18 uterine contractions. Recommended management is to A. Address contraction frequency by reducing pitocin dose B. Continue to increase pitocin as long as FHR is Category I C. Turn the patient on her side and initiate an IV fluid bolus C. Turn the patient on her side and initiate an IV fluid bolus A woman at 38 weeks gestation is in labor. The labor has been uneventful, and the fetal heart tracings have been normal. Spontaneous rupture of membranes occurs; fetal heart rate drops to 90 beats per minute for four minutes and then resumes a normal pattern. The most likely etiology for this fetal heart rate change is A. Abnormal fetal presentation B. Impaired placental circulation C. Possible cord compression C. Possible cord compression A 42 week gestation woman has been diagnosed with oligohydramnios. Based on this, a FHR change that can be expected is A. Late deceleration B. Minimal variability C. Variable deceleration C. Variable deceleration Mono-mono zygotic twins are prone to what type of deceleration during labor? A. Early B. Late C. Variable C. Variable During labor, the recommended fetal heart rate assessment interval for auscultation is every A. 15-30 minutes in the active phase of the first stage and every 5-15 minutes in second stage B. 15 minutes no matter what stage of labor C. 60 minutes in the active phase of the first stage and every 30 minutes in second stage A. 15-30 minutes in the active phase of the first stage and every 5-15 minutes in second stage What fetal heart rate characteristics can be determined with auscultation? A. Baseline B. Early decelerations C. Variability A. Baseline When auscultating the fetal heart rate, the provider/nurse should simultaneously assess the maternal A. Blood pressure B. Pain level C. Radial pulse C. Radial pulse A woman has 10 fetal movements in one hour. This is considered what kind of movement? A. Decreased B. Excessive C. Normal C. Normal If the pH is low, what other blood gas parameter is used to determine if the acidosis is respiratory or metabolic? A. HCO3 B. PCO2 C. PO2 B. PCO2 The following cord blood gasses are consistent with: pH 7.10, pCO2 70, pO2 25, base excess -10 A. Metabolic acidosis B. Mixed acidosis C. Respiratory acidosis C. Respiratory acidosis A fetus at 36 weeks receives a biophysical profile (BBP) score of 6. The amniotic fluid was scored as normal. The expected management is A. Immediate delivery B. Repeat the test in 24 hours C. Schedule the next test in one week B. Repeat the test in 24 hours A woman with gestational diabetes is 38 weeks gestation. Her Biophysical Profile score is 4. This indicates need for A. Follow up in one week B. Induction of labor C. Emergent cesarean section B. Induction of labor A 35 week gestation fetus is having an NST. The fetal heart rate baseline is 130 bpm. The nurse is using vibroacoustic stimulation to reduce the length of time needed to obtain the NST. Fetal well-being requires A. 1 acceleration to 145 bpm B. 2 accelerations to 140 bpm C. 2 accelerations to at least 145 bpm C. 2 accelerations to at least 145 bpm A woman desires a natural childbirth. The nurse puts pressure on her to get an epidural. This is an example of going against which ethical principle? A. Autonomy B. Beneficence C. Justice A. Autonomy 4. Assess part of the fetus in the upper uterus A. 1, 3, 2, 4 B. 2, 4, 1, 2 C. 4, 1, 3, 2 D. 4, 3, 2, 1 C. 4, 1, 3, 2 When the internal mode of monitoring (FSE, IUPC) is used, the information obtained on the uterine activity panel on the fetal monitor should be validated by the clinician by A. Asking the patient to report when she is feeling a contraction B. Ultrasound imaging C. Palpation C. Palpation T/F: Use of a fetoscope for intermittent auscultation of the fetal heart rate may be used to detect baseline, rhythm, changes from baseline, and presence of an irregular rhythm. True T/F: A Doppler device used for intermittent auscultation of the fetal heart rate may be used to identify rhythm irregularities, such as supraventricular tachycardia. False T/F: Use of a fetoscope for intermittent auscultation of the fetal heart rate may be used to detect accelerations and decelerations from the baseline, and can clarify double-counting of half- counting of baseline rate. True T/F: Auscultation may be used to detect baseline variability and discriminate FHR deceleration patterns. False _______ represents increased sympathetic or decreased parasympathetic autonomic tone. A. Bradycardia B. Tachycardia B. Tachycardia T/F: In the context of moderate variability, late decelerations are considered neurogenic in origin and are typically amenable to intrauterine resuscitation techniques directed towards maximizing uterine blood flow. True When coupling or tripling is apparent on the uterine activity tracing, this may be indicative of a dysfunctional labor process and saturation (down regulation) of uterine oxytocin receptor sites in response to excess exposure to oxytocin. Which of the following interventions would be most appropriate? A. Normal response; continue to increase oxytocin titration B. Turn patient on side C. Decrease or discontinue oxytocin infusion C. Decrease or discontinue oxytocin infusion The most common tachyarrhythmia in fetuses, supraventricular tachycardia, typically occurs at a rate of _____ to _____ bpm with minimal or absent variability. A. 160-200 B. 200-240 C. 240-260 C. 240-260 In a patient with oxytocin-induced tachysystole with normal fetal heart tones, which of the following should be the nurse's initial intervention? A. Assist the patient to lateral position B. Discontinue Pitocin C. Administer IV fluid bolus A. Assist the patient to lateral position In a patient with oxytocin-induced tachysystole with indeterminate or abnormal fetal heart tones, which of the following should be the nurse's initial intervention? A. Assist the patient to lateral position B. Discontinue Pitocin C. Administer IV fluid bolus B. Discontinue Pitocin Fetal hypoxia and acidemia are demonstrated by pH < _____ and base excess < _____. < 7.15; < -8 T/F: Amnioinfusion is an appropriate intervention to attempt to resolve patterns of moderate to severe late decelerations. False T/F: Amnioinfusion is an appropriate intervention to attempt to resolve patterns with absent variability. False T/F: Amnioinfusion may be an appropriate intervention for patients with oligohydramnios in the prevention of the development of variable decelerations. False Not for prevention T/F: Meconium-stained amniotic fluid is an indication for amnioinfusion. False T/F: Uterine resting tone may appear higher (25 to 40 mmHg) during amnioinfusion. True _______ denotes a decrease in oxygenation of the fetal tissues. A. Hypercapnia B. Hypoxia C. Hypoxemia B. Hypoxia _______ denotes a decrease in oxygen content of the fetal blood. A. Hypercapnia B. Hypoxia C. Hypoxemia C. Hypoxemia _______ denotes an increase in carbon dioxide in the fetal blood. A. Hypercapnia B. Hypoxia C. Hypoxemia A. Hypercapnia _______ denotes an increase in hydrogen ions in the fetal blood. A. Acidosis B. Acidemia C. Hypercapnia B. Acidemia _______ denotes an increase in hydrogen ions in the fetal tissues. A. Acidosis B. Acidemia C. Hypercapnia A. Acidosis _______ _______ occurs when there is low bicarbonate (base excess) in the presence of normal pressure of carbon dioxide (PCO2) values. A. Metabolic acidosis A. Metabolic acidosis pH 7.02 PO2 17 PCO2 72 HCO3 19 Base deficit 16 A. Metabolic acidosis B. Respiratory acidosis C. Mixed acidosis C. Mixed acidosis Which is a correct description of daily fetal movement counting? A. Counting should not be started by low-risk mothers until 38 weeks of gestation B. Fetal movement counting is not reliable because the methods of counting vary C. The mother counts the number of movements over a specified length of time C. The mother counts the number of movements over a specified length of time The BPP includes the assessment of FHR along with what other four components? A. Amniotic fluid, fetal breathing, fetal movement, fetal tone B. Amniotic fluid, fetal anomalies, fetal breathing, fetal movement C. Estimated fetal weight, fetal breathing, fetal movement, placental grading A. Amniotic fluid, fetal breathing, fetal movement, fetal tone Which of the following might indicate a potential for chronic fetal hypoxemia? A. Decreased amniotic fluid volume B. Increased amniotic fluid volume C. Intrauterine growth restriction C. Intrauterine growth restriction With the finding of a single umbilical artery, what would you expect to observe with Doppler flow studies? A. Decreased blood perfusion from the fetus to the placenta B. Decreased blood perfusion from the placenta to the fetus C. Homeostatic dilation of the umbilical artery A. Decreased blood perfusion from the fetus to the placenta Two umbilical arteries flow from the fetus to the placenta Primary benefits associated with the use of standardized terminology for fetal heart monitoring interpretation include A. Enhanced communication among health care providers and promotion of patient safety B. Increased nursing time at the bedside and enhanced patient satisfaction C. Increased likelihood of correctly diagnosing fetal acidosis during labor A. Enhanced communication among health care providers and promotion of patient safety A patient presents with a small amount of thick dark blood clots who denies pain and whose abdomen is soft to the touch. Which component of oxygen transport to the fetus could potentially be compromised by this bleeding? A. Affinity B. Saturation C. Delivery C. Delivery What is the most appropriate physiologic goal for a patient whose tracing reveals a sinusoidal baseline? A. Maximize umbilical circulation B. Maximize uteroplacental circulation C. Reduce uterine activity B. Maximize uteroplacental circulation Compromised oxygenation - maximize uteroplacental circulation to promote perfusion and oxygenation When recurrent late decelerations are occurring, the correct physiologic interpretation of this event is A. Fetal myocardial acidosis is occurring B. Fetal hypoxemia may be present C. The fetus has oxygen reserves B. Fetal hypoxemia may be present Which intrinsic homeostatic response is the fetus demonstrating when abrupt variable decelerations are present? A. Baroreceptor B. Catecholamine C. Sympathetic A. Baroreceptor An amnioinfusion is intended to relieve which extrinsic factor that compromises oxygen transport? A. Excessive uterine compression B. Structural abnormalities of the placenta C. Umbilical cord compression C. Umbilical cord compression The nurse wants to document her conversation with the attending physician during an emergent situation. The best approach to documentation would be to A. Continue providing care for the patient and write a late entry summarizing the conversation after the cesarean is completed B. Enter an objective transcription of the conversation in the electronic record while colleagues are preparing the patient for surgery C. Report the conversation to the charge nurse, who can make an entry in the medical record A. Continue providing care for the patient and write a late entry summarizing the conversation after the cesarean is completed An infant was delivered via cesarean. Umbilical cord blood gases were: pH 6.88, PCO2 114, PO2 10, bicarbonate 15, base excess (-) 20. The initial neonatal hemocrit was 20% and the hemoglobin was 8. Which interpretation of these umbilical cord and initial neonatal blood results is correct? A. Base buffers have been used to maintain oxygenation B. The mother was probably hypoglycemic C. The neonate is anemic C. The neonate is anemic An infant was delivered via cesarean. Umbilical cord blood gases were: pH 6.88, PCO2 114, PO2 10, bicarbonate 15, base excess (-) 20. The initial neonatal hemocrit was 20% and the hemoglobin was 8. These umbilical cord blood gases indicate A. Asphyxia related to umbilical and placental abnormalities B. Hypoxia related to neurological damage C. Mixed acidosis C. Mixed acidosis An infant was delivered via cesarean. Umbilical cord blood gases were: pH 6.88, PCO2 114, PO2 10, bicarbonate 15, base excess (-) 20. The initial neonatal hemocrit was 20% and the hemoglobin was 8. Which phrase best describes acidemia? A. A decrease of oxygen concentration in the blood B. An increase in hydrogen ions in the blood C. An increase of hydrogen ions in the tissues B. An increase in hydrogen ions in the blood How long may a standard NST be extended in a term gestation if reactivity is not initially demonstrated? A. From the initial 20 min to 40 min B. From the initial 20 min to 60 min C. From the initial 30 min to 60 min A. From the initial 20 min to 40 min Accounts for fetal sleep Which is the most appropriate application of vibroacoustic stimulation (fetal acoustic stimulation) in a standard NST? A. The device is placed at the top of the maternal fundus B. The mother uses a marker button to document the fetal movement response C. The stimulation is applied after a baseline is established C. The stimulation is applied after a baseline is established Which of the following characteristics are most common in the preterm fetus? A. Increased baseline rate and prolonged accelerations B. Increased baseline rate and variable decelerations C. Prolonged accelerations and variable decelerations B. Increased baseline rate and variable decelerations As well as decreased variability What typical characteristics of preterm uterine activity may be present in a patient experiencing preterm labor? A. An irritable uterus with wandering hypertonus B. Low-amplitude high-frequency contractions C. Tetanic contractions B. Low amplitude high-frequency contractions Which medications used with preterm labor can affect the FHR characteristics? A. Terbutaline and antibiotics B. Betamethasone and terbutaline C. Antibiotics and narcotics B. Betamethasone and terbutaline What characterizes a preterm fetal response to stress? A. More frequently occurring late decelerations B. More frequently occurring prolonged decelerations C. More rapid deterioration from Category I to Category II or III C. More rapid deterioration from Category I to Category II or III More likely to be subjected to hypoxia Clinical decision-making at the bedside should include: A. Communication with the primary care provider only during a crisis B. Integration of physiologic concepts with maternal-fetal assessment findings C. Reliance primarily on technology over bedside assessments B. Integration of physiologic concepts with maternal-fetal assessment findings In the United States, the paper speed on the monitor is set at A. 1 cm/min B. 2 cm/min C. 3 cm/min C. 3 cm/min A woman being monitored externally has a suspected fetal arrhythmia. The most appropriate action is to A. Insert a spiral electrode and turn off the logic B. Turn the logic on if an external monitor is in place C. Use a Doppler to listen to the ventricular rate A. Insert a spiral electrode and turn off the logic The ultrasound transducer on the electronic fetal monitor measures the A. Electrical signal of the fetal heart B. Mechanical movements of the fetal heart reflected off of sound waves C. R-to-R intervals of the fetal heart B. Mechanical movements of the fetal heart reflected off of sound waves The purpose of autocorrelation in external monitoring is to A. Compare incoming waveforms for comparison B. Decrease signal to noise levels C. Distinguish fetal from maternal HR A. Compare incoming waveforms for comparison The area of maximum intensity of the FHR is usually the fetal A. Back B. Chest C. Umbilicus A. Back Palpating the uterus is best performed by using the A. Back of the hand B. Fingertips C. Palm B. Fingertips What is the most sensitive method of assessing uterine activity? A. IUPC B. Manual palpation C. Maternal perception A. IUPC In comparison to maternal blood, the affinity of fetal blood for oxygen is A. Higher B. Lower C. The same A. Higher The process that requires energy to accomplish the passage of substances within the intervillous space is A. Active transport B. Diffusion C. Facilitated diffusion A. Active transport The umbilical vein carries A. Carbon dioxide from the fetus back to the placenta B. Deoxygenated blood from the fetus to the placenta C. Oxygenated blood from the placenta to the fetus C. Oxygenated blood from the placenta to the fetus Fetal hypoxia is best described as a condition of A. Decreased oxygen in the blood B. Decreased oxygen in the tissue C. Increased hydrogen ions in the blood B. Decreased oxygen in the tissue Stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system causes the FHR to A. Decrease B. Increase C. Remain the same A. Decrease B. Marked variability C. Tachycardia A. Bradycardia Baseline FHR variability is determined in what amount of time, excluding accelerations and decelerations? A. 10 min B. 20 min C. 30 min A. 10 min One possible cause of a sinusoidal FHR pattern from fetal hypoxemia is A. Fetal anemia B. Fetal thumb sucking C. Maternal administration of a narcotic A. Fetal anemia Which of the following tachyarrhythmias can result in fetal hydrops? A. Persistent supraventricular tachycardia B. Premature atrial contractions C. Sinus tachycardia A. Persistent supraventricular tachycardia A preterm fetus with persistent supraventricular tachycardia that is not hydropic is best treated with maternal administration of A. Digoxin B. Phenobarbital C. Terbutaline A. Digoxin The maternal medical condition that predisposes the fetus to a heart block is A. Lupus erythematosus B. Marfan's disease C. Mitral valve prolapse A. Lupus erythematosus The initial response in treating a primigravida being induced for preeclampsia who has a seizure is A. Administer terbutaline to slow down uterine activity B. Initiate magnesium sulfate C. Perform an immediate cesarean delivery B. Initiate magnesium sulfate Which FHR sounds are counted with a stethoscope and a fetoscope? A. Atrial B. Atrial and ventricular C. Ventricular C. Ventricular When using auscultation to determine FHR baseline, the FHR should be counted after the contractions for A. 5-10 sec B. 15-30 sec C. 30-60 sec C. 30-60 sec Which of the following characteristics can be determined using FHR auscultation? A. Baseline B. Type of decelerations C. Variability A. Baseline One advantage of using a fetoscope is that it can A. Allow more rapid detection of a baseline change B. More accurately assess the FHR variability C. Verify the presence of an irregular rhythm C. Verify the presence of an irregular rhythm According to ACOG, intermittent auscultation is appropriate for A. All pregnancies B. Neither complicated nor uncomplicated pregnancies C. Uncomplicated pregnancies C. Uncomplicated pregnancies A woman who is 34 weeks' gestation is counting fetal movements each day. Today she counted eight fetal movements in a two-hour period. Based on her kick counts, this woman should A. Continue counting for one more hour B. Discontinue counting until tomorrow C. Notify her provider for further evaluation C. Notify her provider for further evaluation A BPP score of 6 is considered A. Abnormal B. Normal C. Equivocal C. Equivocal A modified BPP reveals the following: reactive NST with moderate variability; AFI of 7. This test would be interpreted as A. Abnormal B. Equivocal C. Normal C. Normal As fetal hypoxia (asphyxia) worsens, the last component of the BPP to disappear is fetal A. Breathing B. Movement C. Tone C. Tone The legal term that describes a failure to meet the required standard of care is A. Breach of duty B. Negligence C. Proximate cause A. Breach of duty According to ACOG, in a patient without complications, the FHR tracing during the first stage of labor should be reviewed approximately every A. 5 min B. 15 min C. 30 min C. 30 min According to ACOG, in a patient without complications, the FHR tracing during the second stage of labor should be reviewed approximately every A. 5 min B. 15 min C. 30 min B. 15 min Since the widespread use of EFM, the rate of cerebral palsy has A. Decreased B. Increased C. Remained the same C. Remained the same Regarding the reliability of EFM, there is A. Good interobserver reliability Normal frequency of contractions is A. </= 5 in 10 min averaged over 20 min B. </= 6 in 10 min averaged over 30 min C. </= 5 in 10 min averaged over 30 min C. </= 5 in 10 min averaged over 30 min Which of the following most closely approximates normal umbilical artery pH at term? A. 7.0-7.1 B. 7.1-7.2 C. 7.2-7.3 C. 7.2-7.3 The "overshoot" FHR pattern is highly predictive of A. Fetal hypoxia B. Preexisting fetal neurological injury C. None of the above C. None of the above A key point regarding the occurrence of tachysystole is that A. It requires FHR decelerations to be significant B. It can occur in spontaneous or stimulated labor C. It should be documented as hyperstimulation if oxytocin is being used B. It can occur in spontaneous or stimulated labor A Category II tracing A. Predicts abnormal fetal acid-base status B. Excludes abnormal fetal acid-base status C. Is not predictive of abnormal fetal acid-base status C. Is not predictive of abnormal fetal acid-base status Plans of the health care team with a patient with a sinusoidal FHR pattern may include A. Administration of an NST B. Administration of tocolytics C. Kleinhauer-Betke lab test C. Kleinhauer-Betke lab test Stimulation of the fetal vagus nerve will A. Increase FHR B. Decrease FHR C. Initially increase, then decrease FHR B. Decrease FHR Which of the following is not true when assessing preterm fetuses? A. FHR baseline may be in upper range of normal (150-160 bpm) B. They may have fewer accels, and if <35 weeks, may be 10x10 C. Variability may be in lower range for moderate (6-10 bpm) B. They may have fewer accels, and if <35 weeks, may be 10x10 One of the side effects of terbutaline as a tocolytic is A. Fetal bradycardia B. Increased oxygen consumption C. Marked variability B. Increased oxygen consumption Common problems seen during monitoring of postterm fetuses include all of the following except A. Baseline may be 100-110bpm B. Increased variables C. Polyhydramnios C. Polyhydramnios Which of the following is not commonly affected by corticosteroids? A. Doppler flow studies B. FHR baseline C. Frequency of FHR accelerations A. Doppler flow studies A fetus of a diabetic mother may commonly develop A. Polyhydramnios B. Supraventricular tachycardia C. Third-degree heart block A. Polyhydramnios The fetus of a mother with preeclampsia is at high risk for developing A. Intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR) B. Macrosomia C. Polyhydramnios A. Intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR) Maternal infection most often results in A. Fetal tachycardia B. Moderate variability C. Placenta previa A. Fetal tachycardia Uncontrolled maternal hypertension is often a causative factor in A. Postmaturity B. Preterm contractions C. Placental abruption C. Placental abruption EFM is an excellent _____ test for determining the presence or absence of neurological injury. A. Definitive B. Diagnostic C. Screening C. Screening The primary assumption when using EFM is that _____ produces physiological changes that can be detected by changes in the FHR. A. Disruption of oxygen B. Labor induction C. Parity A. Disruption of oxygen The primary difference between intermittent auscultation (IA) and EFM is A. EFM is primarily a visual assessment B. IA is associated with worse outcomes C. IA is less labor-intensive than EFM A. EFM is primarily a visual assessment The tocodynamometer is completely unreliable for A. Contraction duration B. Contraction frequency C. Contraction intensity C. Contraction intensity High resting tone may occur with an IUPC because of all of the following except A. Extraovular placement B. Maternal BMI C. Multiple gestations B. Maternal BMI All of the following are disadvantages of the ultrasound transducer for monitoring the FHR except A. It is noninvasive B. It may half or double the actual FHR C. It restricts patient movement Which of the following is responsible for fetal muscle coordination? A. Cerebellum B. Cerebral cortex C. Medulla oblongata A. Cerebellum When the placenta covers the cervical os, this is called A. Placenta previa B. Succenturiate lobe (SL) C. Velamentous insertion A. Placenta previa An additional placental lobe is defined as A. Placenta previa B. Succenturiate lobe (SL) C. Velamentous insertion B. Succenturiate lobe (SL) During periods of fetal tachycardia, FHR variability is usually diminished due to A. The dominance of the parasympathetic nervous system B. The dominance of the sympathetic nervous system C. Stimulation of the fetal vagus nerve A. The dominance of the parasympathetic nervous system The presence of moderate FHR variability is most specifically an excellent predictor of A. Absence of fetal metabolic acidosis B. Fetal movement C. Fetal oxygenation A. Absence of fetal metabolic acidosis All of the following can be used to describe episodic FHR changes except A. Accelerations B. Late decelerations C. Variable decelerations B. Late decelerations Periodic accelerations can indicate all of the following except A. Stimulation of fetal chemoreceptors B. Tracing is a maternal tracing C. Umbilical vein compression A. Stimulation of fetal chemoreceptors A transient decrease in cerebral blood flow (increased cerebral blood pressure) during a contraction may stimulate _____ and may cause a(n) _____ A. Baroreceptors; early deceleration B. Baroreceptors; late deceleration C. Chemoreceptors; early deceleration A. Baroreceptors; early deceleration The primary physiologic goal of interventions for late decelerations is to A. Decrease maternal oxygen consumption B. Maximize placental blood flow C. Maximize umbilical circulation B. Maximize placental blood flow Which of the following is most responsible for producing FHR variability as the fetus grows? A. Maturation of the parasympathetic nervous system B. Maturation of the sympathetic nervous system C. Release of maternal prostaglandins A. Maturation of the parasympathetic nervous system Using the NICHD terminology, tachysystole is defined as A. More than 5 contractions in 10 minutes averaged over a 20-minute period B. More than 5 contractions in 15 minutes averaged over a 30-minute period C. More than 5 contractions in 10 minutes averaged over a 30-minute period C. More than 5 contractions in 10 minutes averaged over a 30-minute period When a patient reports that she is feeling contractions but the nurse does not note any on the toco tracing, what is the first intervention that should be performed? A. Ask the provider to place an IUPC B. Reposition the toco C. Palpate the uterus C. Palpate the uterus Which of the following represents the normal range for FHR baseline? A. 120-160 bpm B. 110-160 bpm B. 110-160 bpm Which of the following is not a type of supraventricular dysrhythmia? A. Premature atrial contraction (PAC) B. Premature ventricular contraction (PVC) C. Supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) B. Premature ventricular contraction (PVC) Which is the most common type of fetal dysrhythmia? A. Premature atrial contraction (PAC) B. Premature ventricular contraction (PVC) C. Third-degree heart block A. Premature atrial contraction (PAC) What is the most common cause of third-degree heart block in the fetus? A. Maternal HIV infection B. Maternal lupus C. Tocolysis B. Maternal lupus All of the following are traits of fetal supraventricular tachycardia (SVT), but which is most problematic? A. Decreases diastolic filling time B. Dramatically increases oxygen consumption C. Often leads to ventricular tachycardia (VT) C. Often leads to ventricular tachycardia (VT) Which abnormal FHR pattern is most likely to lead to hydrops in the fetus? A. Marked variability B. A premature ventricular contraction (PVC) C. Supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) C. Supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) Which of the following is an irregular FHR pattern associated with normal conduction and rate? A. Premature atrial contractions (PACs) B. Sinus arrhythmias C. Sinus tachycardias B. Sinus arrhythmias Which method of assessing FHR allows the clinician to hear the opening and closing of heart valves, which helps detect dysrhythmias? A. A fetoscope B. An internal scalp electrode (FSE) C. An ultrasound transducer A. A fetoscope Which method of assessment allows the clinician to visually see cardiac wall movements? A. A fetal echocardiogram B. A fetal pulse oximetry reading C. A nonstress test (NST) B. Decreased FHR baseline Which of the following is not commonly caused by terbutaline administration? A. Increased FHR baseline B. Decreased FHR late decelerations C. Increased maternal HR B. Decreased FHR late decelerations Which of the following is not commonly caused by nifedipine administration? A. Maternal hypotension B. Decreased uterine blood flow C. Increased FHR accelerations C. Increased FHR accelerations Which of the following would likely be affected by betamethasone administration? A. Fetal echocardiogram B. Biophysical profile (BPP) score C. Contraction stress test (CST) B. Biophysical profile (BPP) score Fetal breathing decreased with betamethasone administration We have an expert-written solution to this problem! Which of the following is a common EFM finding when monitoring a preterm fetus? A. Decreased baseline B. Variable decelerations C. Increased FHR variability B. Variable decelerations Which of the following is most strongly correlated with placental abruption? A. Uncontrolled gestational diabetes B. Multiple gestation C. Uncontrolled hypertension C. Uncontrolled hypertension Which of the following is not typically associated with a postterm pregnancy? A. Meconium-stained amniotic fluid B. Presence of late decelerations in the fetal heart rate C. Polyhydramnios C. Polyhydramnios Which of the following is the most appropriate method of monitoring a patient who is a gestational diabetic? A. Daily NSTs B. Twice-weekly BPPs C. Weekly contraction stress tests B. Twice-weekly BPPs Which of the following is not commonly caused by magnesium sulfate? A. Increased FHR baseline B. Decreased FHR variability C. Decreased FHR accelerations A. Increased FHR baseline Which of the following FHR changes would not typically be seen in a mother with chorioamnionitis? A. Increased baseline B. Increased variability C. Decreased accelerations B. Increased variability Which of the following is false regarding electronic fetal monitoring of twins? A. Both twins must be monitored, as opposed to monitoring one twin at a time B. Twins rarely have accelerations and decelerations simultaneously, and tracings should appear distinctly different C. Twins must be identified and monitored as A or B throughout the entire antenatal and intrapartum periods B. Twins rarely have accelerations and decelerations simultaneously, and tracings should appear distinctly different pH 6.9, PO2 15, PCO2 55, HCO3 18, BE -22 The nurse reviews the arterial gas results and concludes that the fetus had _____ acidosis. With results such as these, you would expect a _____ resuscitation. A. Metabolic; lengthy B. Metabolic; short C. Respiratory; lengthy A. Metabolic; lengthy Which of the following umbilical artery cord gases would most likely result in a fetus who had a Category I strip, then had a cord prolapse and was delivered within 3 minutes? A. pH 7.17, PO2 22, PCO2 70, HCO3 24, BE -5 B. pH 7.25, PO2 23, PCO2 46, HCO3 22, BE -8 C. pH 7.02, PO2 18, PCO2 56, HCO3 15, BE -18 A. pH 7.17, PO2 22, PCO2 70, HCO3 24, BE -5 Which of the following factors can have a negative effect on uterine blood flow? a. Hypertension b. Epidural c. Hemorrhage d. Diabetes e. All of the above e. All of the above How does the fetus compensate for decreased maternal circulating volume? a. Increases cardiac output by increasing stroke volume. b. Increases cardiac output by increasing it's heart rate. c. Increases cardiac output by increasing fetal movement. b. Increases cardiac output by increasing it's heart rate. Stimulating the vagus nerve typically produces: a. A decrease in the heart rate b. An increase in the heart rate c. An increase in stroke volume d. No change a. A decrease in the heart rate What initially causes a chemoreceptor response? a. Epidurals b. Supine maternal position c. Increased CO2 levels d. Decreased O2 levels e. A & C f. A & B g. C & D g. C & D The vagus nerve begins maturation 26 to 28 weeks. Its dominance results in what effect to the FHR baseline? a. Increases baseline b. Decreases baseline True T/F: The fetal heart rate baseline can be determined during periods of marked variability. False T/F: Anything that affects maternal blood flow (cardiac output) can affect the blood flow through the placenta. True T/F: Variable decelerations are the most frequently seen fetal heart rate deceleration pattern in labor. True T/F: Minimal variability is always an indicator of hypoxia and a Cesarean section is indicated. False Cord blood gases from one of the umbilical arteries best represent A. The status of fetal acid-base balance B. The status of maternal oxygenation C. The status of placental function A. The status of fetal acid-base balance A modified biophysical profile (mBPP) is considered normal if A. NST is reactive and mother reports at least 10 fetal movements in 2 hours B. NST is reactive and the amniotic fluid index (AFI) is greater than 5 cm C. There are no decelerations following contractions B. NST is reactive and the amniotic fluid index (AFI) is greater than 5 cm Which of the following is not a component of a BPP? A. Amniotic fluid index (AFI) B. Fetal breathing C. Nonstress test (NST) A. Amniotic fluid index (AFI) (Should be volume, not index) A contraction stress test (CST) is done. During the testing, there were three contractions in 10 minutes, no decels, the baseline was 145, and there was moderate variability. This is interpreted as A. Negative B. Positive C. Suspicious A. Negative Which of the following is most likely to result in absent end diastolic flow during umbilical artery velocimetry? A. Preeclampsia B. Preterm labor C. Previous cesarean delivery A. Preeclampsia Which of the following best describes a condition in which there is decreased oxygen in the tissues? A. Acidosis B. Hypoxemia C. Hypoxia C. Hypoxia What is the maximum amount of time allotted for a nonstress test? A. 20 minutes B. 40 minutes C. 60 minutes B. 40 minutes A nonstress test (NST) is nonreactive after 40 minutes. The nurse should A. Call the physician to plan for a possible induction B. Call the physician to arrange for a BPP or CST C. Perform vibroacoustic stimulation and monitor patient for 20 additional minutes B. Call the physician to arrange for a BPP or CST (T/F) Contractions during a contraction stress test (CST) may be spontaneous or induced with oxytocin or nipple stimulation. True A contraction stress test (CST) is performed. Late decelerations were noted in three out of the five contractions in 10 minutes. This is interpreted as A. Positive B. Negative C. Suspicious A. Positive A contraction stress test (CST) is performed. Late decelerations were noted in two out of the five contractions in 10 minutes. This is interpreted as A. Positive B. Negative C. Suspicious C. Suspicious A contraction stress test (CST) is performed. Two variable decelerations were seen on the FHR tracing and there were four contractions in 10 minutes. This is interpreted as A. Positive B. Negative C. Suspicious B. Negative A contraction stress test (CST) is performed. No decelerations were noted with the two contractions that occurred over 10 minutes. This is interpreted as A. Positive B. Negative C. Unsatisfactory C. Unsatisfactory A patient has a reactive NST and negative CST. Select the appropriate followup. A. Prepare patient for delivery B. Repeat in 24 hours C. Repeat in one week C. Repeat in one week A patient has a nonreactive NST and negative CST. Select the appropriate followup. A. Prepare patient for delivery B. Repeat in 24 hours C. Repeat in one week B. Repeat in 24 hours For a patient with a suspicious or unsatisfactory CST, select the appropriate followup. A. Prepare patient for delivery B. Repeat in 24 hours C. Repeat in one week B. Repeat in 24 hours In a patient whose CST reveals late decelerations with three out of the four induced contractions, which of the following would be the least appropriate plan for treatment? A. Obtain physician order for BPP B. Prepare for possible induction of labor C. Repeat CST in 24 hours C. Repeat CST in 24 hours